the external reproductive structure of an insect male is called?

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Answer 1

The external reproductive structure or an insect male is known as: Aedeagus.

Reproductive structures are the part of the reproductive system that are involved in the process of reproduction. These structures perform functions like synthesis of gametes, hormones and the processes required for reproduction to be accomplished.

Aedeagus is the organ in Arthropods that secrete male gametes (sperm). It is present at the hindmost abdominal segment of the body. Some species of insects have a spiny aedeagus. The aedeagus further is subdivided into three sections: phallobase, theca, and endosoma. A pair of testes are connected to the aedeagus through the genital ducts in the insects.

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it is uncommon for intact proteins to be absorbed from the digestive tract except in . multiple choice question. infants adolescence elderly childhood

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It is uncommon for intact proteins to be absorbed from the digestive tract except in infants.

What are proteins?

Proteins are large biomolecules made up of chains of smaller units called amino acids. They play a variety of roles in living organisms, including serving as structural components of cells, enzymes that catalyze biochemical reactions, hormones that regulate biological processes, and transportation molecules that move substances throughout the body. Proteins are essential for life and are involved in virtually every process that occurs in living cells. The specific sequence of amino acids in a protein determines its three-dimensional structure and, therefore, its function. Proteins can be found in all living organisms, from bacteria and yeast to plants and animals.

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what is the meaning of the root word acetabul- as in acetabulum?

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Explanation:

The root word acetabul- refers to a type of hip joint, specifically the socket of the hip joint. It is derived from the Latin word acetabulum, which means "vinegar cup".

which fatty acid is required for synthesis of phospholipids?

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Answer:

The synthesis of membrane phospholipids begins with the phospholipid PA, which is produced from glycerol-3-phosphate or dihydroxyacetone phosphate after fatty acyl coenzyme A (CoA)-dependent reactions that are catalyzed by the SCT1- and GPT2-encoded glycerol-3-phosphate acyltransferases

Explanation:

in a colony of 100 vampire bats, 16 show the recessive trait of bristly hair. what is the percentage of heterozygotes in the population?

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According to the question the percentage of heterozygotes in the population is 80%.

What is heterozygotes?

Heterozygotes are individuals that possess different alleles for a particular gene, meaning that they have two different versions of the same gene. Heterozygotes result when two different homozygous parents with different alleles of the gene in question combine during fertilization.

The percentage of heterozygotes in the population is 80%. This is because heterozygotes are individuals who have a mixture of two different alleles at a given locus, one of which is dominant and the other recessive. In this case, 16 out of 100 individuals show the recessive trait of bristly hair, meaning that 84 out of 100 individuals show the dominant trait of smooth hair. Since the majority of individuals show the dominant trait, this means that the remaining 16 individuals must be heterozygotes, which is 16 out of 100 or 16%. This comes out to 80% heterozygotes.

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which finding is not typically seen in degenerative joint disease? a. marginal erosions b. osteophyte formation c. intra-articular loose bodies d. non-uniform joint space loss

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The finding not typically seen in degenerative joint disease is: (a) marginal erosion.

Degenerative joint disease is also known by the name osteoarthritis. IT is the wear-and-tear of the joints and is recognized by nonuniform loss of joint space, osteophytes, subchondral sclerosis and cysts. The most common cause of this disease is the constant motion of the joints.

Marginal erosion is loss of bones, particularly at the joints where the edges of the bones are exposed. This symptom occurs very commonly in the inflammatory joint disease. The erosion is an irreversible process, however it can be slowed down by proper treatment.

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Meiosis is a process used by many organisms but not all organisms. What organisms or habitats would make mitosis a better reproductive option than meiosis?

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Answer:

Meiosis does not occur in archaea or bacteria, which reproduce via asexual processes such as mitosis or binary fission. ... Because the chromosomes of each parent undergo genetic recombination during meiosis, each gamete, and thus each zygote, will have a unique genetic blueprint encoded in its DNA.

Explanation:

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etiolation is a set of morphological adaptations for growing under what condition?

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Etiolation, sometimes known as "itiolation," is a phenomenon that occurs in blooming plants that are cultivated in partial or total darkness.

Long, flimsy stems, smaller leaves due to longer internodes, and a pale yellow hue are its distinguishing features (chlorosis).

Etiolation, sometimes known as "itiolation," is a phenomenon that occurs in blooming plants that are cultivated in partial or total darkness.  Long, flimsy stems, smaller leaves due to longer internodes, and a pale yellow hue are its distinguishing features (chlorosis). "Skotomorphogenesis," the process by which seedlings grow in the dark, results in etiolated seedlings.

The hormones known as auxins, which are generated by the developing tip to preserve apical dominance, regulate etiolation.

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the levels of what molecules fluctuate during specific parts of the cell cycle to promote cell cycle progression?

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The progression of the cell through the numerous checkpoints is controlled by two families of proteins known as cyclins and cyclin-dependent kinases (Cdks).

The levels of the four cyclin proteins change in a predictable fashion during the cell cycle. Cyclin-dependent protein kinases (Cdks) are key components of the cell-cycle regulation system, and their activity is reliant on their connection with regulatory subunits known as cyclins. Oscillations in the activity of distinct cyclin-Cdk complexes initiate a variety of cell-cycle events.

In the last post, we looked at the why of cell cycle transitions: the elements that a cell examines when determining whether or not to go through the cell cycle. External cues (such as chemical signals) and internal cues are examples of both (like DNA damage).

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culture and susceptibility tests are performed prior to the prescription of antimicrobial drugs. what is the specific purpose of the culture test?

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The culture test is a critical step in the process of antimicrobial therapy. Its specific purpose is to identify the type of pathogenic microorganisms causing the infection, such as bacteria, fungi, or viruses.

The culture test involves obtaining a sample from the infected site, such as blood, urine, or tissue, and growing it in a laboratory setting to allow the microorganisms to proliferate. This allows for the accurate identification of the pathogen, which is essential for selecting the most appropriate antimicrobial drug to treat the infection.

Without a culture test, it would be impossible to determine the specific type of pathogen causing the infection, making it more difficult to choose the correct antimicrobial drug.

This could lead to the use of a broad-spectrum antibiotic, which would target a wide range of bacteria and may not be the most effective treatment for the specific pathogen causing the infection.

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A certain substance does not conduct heat or electricity, and breaks easily when hit with a hammer. What other property might this substance have?

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This substance may be brittle, which is a frequent feature of heat and electricity nonconductors.

Brittle substances are distinguished by their poor fracture resistance and ease of breaking under load. Brittle substances also have poor toughness and ductility, which implies they have little capacity to absorb energy or flex under stress before breaking.

Glass and ceramics are examples of fragile materials. These materials are frequently employed in applications where heat and electrical conductivity are not required and great mechanical strength is not required, such as the manufacture of glassware or ceramic tiles.

This substance might also have a low melting point and poor thermal stability, as non-conductors of heat and electricity are often poor thermal conductors. This means that they are not very effective at transferring heat and may break down at relatively low temperatures.

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Which is the best general description of a medium used to support bacterial growth in a petri dish?

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A medium used to support bacterial growth in a petri dish is a nutrient-rich substance that provides the necessary nutrients and conditions for bacteria to grow and proliferate.

The choice of medium used in a petri dish can affect the type of bacteria that can grow and the conditions under which they grow. Some common media used in microbiology include nutrient agar, blood agar, and MacConkey agar. The specific composition of each medium is carefully formulated to support the growth of certain types of bacteria, and to inhibit the growth of others.

In general, a good medium for bacterial growth in a petri dish should be easy to sterilize, provide a consistent environment for bacteria to grow, and support the growth of a wide range of bacteria. The medium should also be transparent, allowing for easy observation and counting of colonies, and should be able to support the growth of bacteria for several days.

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A researcher conducts an experiment involving two different cell types. One cell sample is taken from the reproductive organs of an animal, and the other cell sample is taken from the skin of the same animal. Unfortunately, a lab technician mixes the labels of the samples, so it ls not apparent which cell type is in each sample. The researcher examines the cells in the samples as they grow and records notes in a table.

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The researcher is unable to accurately determine which cell type is which due to a mix-up in labeling: causing potential issues with the accuracy of their results.

This scenario highlights the importance of proper labeling and record-keeping in scientific research as even small errors can greatly impact the accuracy of results. The researcher's inability to accurately distinguish between the two cell types may lead to inaccurate conclusions, potentially wasting time and resources on an experiment that cannot provide useful data.

It also emphasizes the need for transparency and collaboration within research teams to prevent mistakes and ensure the highest level of accuracy in their findings.

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what is the name of the cluster of cell bodies, from lower motor neurons, that are contained within the spinal cord?

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The cluster of cell bodies from lower motor neurons contained within the spinal cord is called the anterior horn, also known as the anterior gray horn.

The front column of grey matter in the spinal cord is referred to as the anterior grey column, anterior cornu, anterior horn of the spinal cord, motor horn, or ventral horn. The column is one of the three grey ones. While the posterior grey column receives information about touch and sensation, the anterior grey column contains motor neurons that influence the skeletal muscles. The cell bodies of alpha motor neurons are found in the anterior grey column. The anterior horn, also known as the anterior grey horn, is a collection of lower motor neuron cell bodies found within the spinal cord. The lower motor neuron cell bodies, which are the neurons in charge of controlling the muscles, make up the anterior horn, a structure in the anterior (front) region of the spinal cord. After receiving instructions from the brain, these motor neurons fire axons that leave the spinal cord and innervate (attach to) particular muscle fibres. One of the key components in the regulation of movement and muscle tone is the anterior horn.

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true / false: the effects of sustained and elevated levels of cortisol include greater resistance to leptin and greater sensitivity to ghrelin, both of which result in potential overeating (select one word answer only please).

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True, more sensitivity to ghrelin and greater resistance to leptin are two impacts of prolonged and excessive cortisol levels that may lead to probable overeating.

Ghrelin: what is it?

Your stomach manufactures and releases a hormone called ghrelin. It alerts your brain when you need to eat since your stomach is empty. Ghrelin levels rise in the period between meals and fall after a meal.

Low amounts of ghrelin are frequently found in obese people, whereas high levels of ghrelin are found in people who severely restrict their calorie consumption.

Your stomach creates a hormone called ghrelin. Ghrelin is also released in trace amounts by other organs like the pancreas, small intestine, and brain. Ghrelin, also referred to as the "hunger hormone," serves a variety of purposes in addition to informing your brain when you're hungry.

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Which observation would best support the claim that this organism was a transitional form between amphibians and fish?

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Observation which support this organism was a transitional form between amphibians and fish is b)The fossil has some body structures that are homologous to amphibians and some body structures that are homologous to fish. So, correct option is b.

A fossil is any preserved remaining parts, impression, or hint of any once-living thing from a past land age. Models incorporate bones, shells, exoskeletons, stone engravings of creatures or microorganisms, objects protected in golden, hair, froze wood and DNA remainders. The entirety of fossils is known as the fossil record.

Paleontology is defined as the study of fossils: their age, technique for arrangement, and transformative importance. Examples are generally viewed as fossils assuming that they are more than 10,000 years old.The most seasoned fossils are around 3.48 billion years old to 4.1 billion years old. The perception in the nineteenth century that specific fossils were related with specific stone layers prompted the acknowledgment of a geographical timescale and the overall periods of various fossils.

Hence, correct option is b.

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(Complete question) is:

Which observation would best support the claim that this organism was a transitional form between amphibians and fish?

a.The fossil is larger than most modern amphibians, but smaller than most ancient fish.

b.The fossil has some body structures that are homologous to amphibians and some body structures that are homologous to fish.

c.The fossil has some body structures that are analogous to amphibians and some body structures that are vestigial.

d.The fossil was discovered near a lake, which shows that the organism needed water to reproduce, as do amphibians and fish.

the adult neurogenesis that takes place in the olfactory bulb is due to a migratory pathway from the .

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The adult neurogenesis that takes place in the olfactory bulb is due to a migratory pathway from the subventricular zone.

Adult neurogenesis is basically defined as a process which involves the generation of functional neurons from the adult neural precursors and this occurs throughout life in the restricted brain regions in case of mammals. The new neurons are produced in two regions of brain.

The first is the subgranular zone (SGZ) which is a part of the dentate gyrus of the hippocampus and this is where the neural stem cells produce granule cells. The other is the subventricular zone or the SVZ of the lateral ventricles and it can be divided into three microdomains which are, lateral, dorsal and medial.

The neuroblasts present in the subventricular zone (SVZ) migrate along the rostral migratory stream or the RMS into the olfactory bulb, where they happen to differentiate into interneurons.

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which blood lipid is linked most directly to heart disease? group of answer choices low-density lipoprotein high-density lipoprotein very high density lipoprotein very low-density lipoprotein chylomicron

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The blood lipid that is most directly linked to heart disease is low-density lipoprotein (LDL).

LDL is sometimes referred to as the "bad" cholesterol since it has been shown that it can induce atherosclerosis, a condition in which plaque builds up in the arteries. The risk of heart attack, stroke, and other heat diseases rises due to atherosclerosis, which narrows the arteries.

Contrarily, high-density lipoprotein (HDL), which helps remove excess LDL from the bloodstream and transport it back to the liver for processing, is frequently referred to as the "good" cholesterol. A lower risk of heart disease has been associated with high HDL levels.

The bloodstream also contains very low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) and very high-density lipoproteins (VHDL).

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A hog’s internal organs closely resemble those of a:________

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A hog’s internal organs closely resemble those of a human. They have same abdominal as well as thoracic organs as humans.

Hogs are mammals and therefore all of the major structures which are found in humans are also present in the fetal hogs. There are a certain differences present in the structural details but those are mostly relatively minor in nature.

The human liver consists of four lobes which are right, left, quadrate and caudate. The fetal hog liver has five lobes instead which are right lateral, right central, left central, left lateral, and the caudate. The muscles present in hog are similar to that of humans with some differences present in the size as well as the location. The thymus is found in the same area in hogs as well as humans.

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which process occurs when waste has been filtered out of the blood and the substances that are needed by the body are put back into the bloodstream?

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Tubular reabsorption is the process that takes solutes and water out of the filtrate and puts them back into your circulation. Because they have been absorbed twice, this procedure is known as reabsorption.

Glomerular filtration: what is it?

Urine production starts with glomerular filtration. It is the procedure your kidneys utilize to filter extra fluid and waste from your blood into the kidney's urine-collecting tubules, allowing your body to discard them.

How do filtration and reabsorption differ?

Transferring soluble elements, such water and waste, from the blood into the glomerulus is the process of filtering. Reabsorption is the process of taking in molecules, ions, and water from the environment that the body needs to maintain homeostasis.

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Do any living organisms have nitrogenous bases other than A,T,C and G in their dna

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Yes, all organisms on the Earth use the same 5 nitrogenous bases. DNA contains adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine while RNA contains adenine, uracil, guanine, and cytosine.

Describe how a habitat restoration project could affect an area where there ha been deforestation for agriculture .

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A habitat restoration project could have a number of positive effects in an area where there had been deforestation for agriculture.

What do you mean by deforestation?

Deforestation is the permanent destruction of forests in order to make the land available for other uses, such as agricultural production or urban development. It is one of the most significant causes of global climate change and has numerous negative impacts on the environment, such as reduced biodiversity, increased soil erosion, and decreased water supply.

A habitat restoration project could improve soil fertility and increase the availability of water for plants and wildlife. The restoration project could create a more diverse and healthy ecosystem, providing a home for birds, insects, and other wildlife. This could lead to an increase in biodiversity, potentially boosting the health of the local food chain. The project could also provide educational opportunities and employment for local people. Finally, the restoration project could help to reduce the risk of wildfires and floods, which are both common in deforested areas.

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In fruit flies normal wings(W) is dominant over vestigial wings(w)the result of a cross of two fruit flies give the following result normal wings 793,vestigial wing 811 what are genotype of parents of the f1 generation offspring use a punnett square to improve your answer

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The Punnett square shows that the offspring of this cross will have a 50/50 chance of inheriting either the WW or Ww genotype, and a 50/50 chance of inheriting either the wW or ww genotype.

How did we get this assertion?

To determine the genotype of the parent fruit flies, we can create a Punnett square. Assuming that each parent contributes one allele to the offspring, a possible Punnett square for this cross is:

| W | w

--|----|--

w | WW | Ww

w | WW | Ww

The result of the cross shows that there are 793 offspring with normal wings (WW or Ww genotype) and 811 offspring with vestigial wings (wW or ww genotype). Since the normal wings are dominant, the only possible explanation for the appearance of vestigial wings is if at least one of the parents had the ww genotype.

Therefore, the genotype of the parent fruit flies is likely one normal-winged (WW) and one vestigial-winged (ww) individual. The Punnett square shows that the offspring of this cross will have a 50/50 chance of inheriting either the WW or Ww genotype, and a 50/50 chance of inheriting either the wW or ww genotype.

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The ________ nerve innervates the trapezius, sternocleidomastoid, and pharynx muscles.

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Along with the laryngeal musculature, the XI nerve also directly innervates the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

What nerve innervates the trapezius?

The motor function of the trapezius is innervated by cranial nerve XI. The scapula is stabilized and moved by the trapezius muscle. The upper fibers have the ability to stretch the neck and raise and rotate the scapula upward.

The sternocleidomastoid muscle is fed by what?

A branch of the superior thyroid artery (42%), the external carotid artery (23%), or branches of both (47%), give blood to the middle part of the SCM muscle. The stylopharyngeus muscle, which raises the pharynx and larynx, receives motor innervation from the glossopharyngeal nerve, as was previously mentioned.

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which layer of skin contains blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, hair follicles, and sebaceous and sweat glands?

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The layer of skin that contains blood and lymph vessels, nerve fibers, hair follicles, and sebaceous and sweat glands is called the dermis.

The dermis is located below the epidermis and provides structural support to the skin, as well as a rich supply of blood vessels and nerves that support the function of the skin.

The hair follicles and sebaceous glands are responsible for producing hair and oil, respectively, while the sweat glands help regulate body temperature.

The dermis is also an important part of the body's immune system, as it contains lymph vessels that help to fight off infections and other threats to the body. Overall, the dermis plays a crucial role in the function and health of the skin.

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Blood helps regulate body temperature by absorbing heat from body cells, especially ______ ______ and releases heat primarily through the ______

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Blood helps regulate body temperature by absorbing heat from body cells, especially skeletal muscle and releases heat primarily through the Skin

What three purposes does the body's blood serve?

All bodily components may continue to function because blood supplies them with oxygen and nourishment. In order to be expelled from the body, carbon dioxide and other waste products are transported by blood to the lungs, kidneys, and digestive system. Aside from carrying hormones throughout the body, blood also fights infections.

Blood transfers heat produced by working skeletal muscles to other tissues by absorbing that heat. The heat from the body will escape via the skin's surface if the body temperature is already high.

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what is the first event of an action potential? potassium gates open and the membrane depolarizes. potassium gates open and the membrane repolarizes. sodium gates open and the membrane depolarizes. sodium gates open and the membrane repolarizes.

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Depolarization happens first, then repolarization, and then there is a brief phase of hyperpolarization. These three things take place in a matter of milliseconds.

Excitatory postsynaptic potentials from a presynaptic neuron are most frequently responsible for triggering action potentials. Normally, the presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitter molecules. The receptors on the postsynaptic cell are then occupied by these neurotransmitters. Ion channels of different sorts are opened by this binding. Voltage-gated sodium channels rapidly open during an action potential, then quickly deactivate and reset to the closed state. Potassium channels that are voltage-gated open and close more slowly. The resting potential, threshold, rising phase, declining phase, and recovery phase are the five phases that make up the action potential.

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What is the first event of an action potential? Sodium gates open and the membrane depolarizes. Potassium gates open and the membrane repolarizes. Sodium gates open and the membrane repolarizes. Potassium gates open and the membrane depolarizes.

the frequency of two alleles in a gene pool is 0.1 and 0.9. what is the percentage in the population of herozygous individuals? of homozygous recessives? assume the population is in hardy weinberg equilibrium

Answers

Therefore in a population of 100, the number of homozygous recessive are = 65.61 = 66 [1.5]

Frequency of allele (A) in a gene pool = 0.19

Frequency of allele (a) in a gene pool = 0.81

According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation,

p²+2pq+q² = 1

where,

p² = frequency of homozygous dominant genotype

2pq = frequency of heterozygous genotype

q² = frequency of homozygous recessive genotype

a) According to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation, heterozygotes are represented by the 2pq term. Therefore, the number of heterozygous individuals

(Aa) is equal to 2pq which equals to

2 x 0.19 x 0.81 = 0.3078

Therefore in a population of 100, the number of heterozygotes are = 30.78 = 31 [1.5]

b) The homozygous recessive individuals (aa) are represented by the q² term in the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation which equals to

0.81 x 0.81 = 0.6561

Therefore in a population of 100, the number of homozygous recessive are = 65.61 = 66 [1.5]

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what two conditions must be met during exercise for indirect calorimetry to most accurately reflect metabolic rate?

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Intensity of exercise and steady state of oxygen intake and carbondioxide release are two conditions must be met during exercise for indirect calorimetry to most accurately reflect metabolic rate

Based on the measurement of oxygen consumption and carbon dioxide production, indirect calorimetry is a technique for calculating metabolic rate during exercise. Two requirements must be satisfied for the approach to effectively portray metabolic rate during exercise:

In order to reach a steady state, where oxygen intake and carbon dioxide generation are stable and no longer increasing, the person must exercise at a constant intensity for a long enough period of time (often 10 to 15 minutes).

Closed-circuit breathing apparatus: The person must use a mouthpiece or mask with a closed-circuit breathing apparatus that collects all air breathed in and exhaled. This guarantees that the assessment of carbon dioxide production and oxygen intake is precise and representative of the person's metabolic rate throughout exercise. Indirect calorimetry can offer a more precise and reliable assessment of metabolic rate during exercise if it can satisfy these two requirements. This measurement can then be used to calculate energy expenditure, rate the intensity of an exercise session, and track fitness improvements over time.

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This fertilizer contains nitrogen, phosphate and potassium and is a mix of two incomplete fertilizers. (Check all that apply)

A. Complete
B. Blended
C. Special Purpose
D. Slow Release

Answers

Answer:

B. Blended

Explanation:

Blended fertilizer is a type of fertilizer that is made by mixing two or more incomplete fertilizers together. Incomplete fertilizers contain only one or two of the three primary nutrients required by plants: nitrogen (N), phosphorus (P), and potassium (K). Blended fertilizers are a popular choice among farmers and gardeners because they allow for customization of the nutrient balance and ratios to meet the specific needs of different crops or plants.

there’s only 1 that makes sense and it’s blended.

africanized honey bees in the new world are the result of: group of answer choices mutation natural selection gene flow genetic drift none of these

Answers

Africanized honey bees in the New World are the result of gene flow.

The term "gene flow" describes the transfer of genes from one group to another through individual migration or the exchange of gametes (sperm and eggs). When African honey bees were imported to the New World and crossed with European honey bees, gene flow took place in the case of Africanized honey bees. Africanized honey bees spread throughout the Americas as the hybrid population's prevalence of African features increased over time.

A hazard to people and animals, Africanized honey bees are known for their aggressive nature. They are more suited to many regions of the New World since they can withstand hot and dry weather.

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