What’s is the velocity

Answer:

The first one with the rope would be a transverse wave and the second with the slinky would be a longitudinal wave

Answer:

Light travels at 3.0 x 108 m/s in a vacuum.

Explanation:

Light travels at 3.0 x 108 m/s in a vacuum.

Answer:

c

Explanation:

c

Answer:

D. By comparing traits

Explanation:

Because age isn't genetic, as well as names, as well as who discovered, but traits are genetic.  

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Answer:

it will more and change direction

Explanation:

because the resultant force (R) is not equal zero so may be there is a force greater than the other one and the ball will more in the direction of greater force.

and it can't be remain stationary because R=! 0 .

Answer:

[tex]a=16\ m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

Motion With Constant Acceleration

It's a type of motion in which the velocity of an object changes uniformly in time.

The formula to calculate the change of velocities is:

[tex]v_f=v_o+at[/tex]

Where:

a   = acceleration

vo = initial speed

vf  = final speed

t    = time

The roller coaster moves from vo=6 m/s to vf=70 m/s in t=4 seconds. To calculate the acceleration, solve for a:

[tex]\displaystyle a=\frac{v_f-v_o}{t}[/tex]

[tex]\displaystyle a=\frac{70-6}{4}=\frac{64}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\boxed{a=16\ m/s^2}[/tex]

Answer:

F = Gm1m2/r^2 where G = 6.67x10^-11, m1 =1300, m2 = 7800, r = 0.23m

F = 6.67x10^-11 *1300*7800/(0.23)^2 = 0.0127852N

Explanation:

Answer:

Try C as the answer, if it works do the thanks button! :D

Explanation:

C) It drives the convection currents in the mantle.

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Answer:

3 x 10⁻⁴m

Explanation:

Given parameters:

Speed of light  = 300000km/s

Frequency  = 1000gigahz  = 1000 x 10⁹Hz

Unknown:

Wavelength = ?

Solution:

To solve this problem, we use the expression below:

    V  = F ∧  

V is the speed

F is the frequency

∧ is the wavelength

      300000 = 1000 x 10⁹ x   ∧  

Wavelength  = 3 x 10⁻⁷km = 3 x 10⁻⁴m

Answer:

1,200 W

Explanation:

18,000 J / 15s = 1,200 W

Answer:

Destructive inference

Explanation:

I just took the test

The type of wave interaction that is shown in the diagram is destructive interference. The correct option is C.

Destructive interference happens when two or more waves mix in such a way that they cancel each other out, causing the amplitude (or intensity) of the resulting wave to drop or disappear entirely at specific places.

The crests of one wave line up with the troughs of another wave when waves interact destructively.

Due to the individual waves' displacements being in opposition to one another as a result of this alignment, the net displacement is zero or has a small amplitude.

The superposition principle, which states that when two or more waves collide at a location in space, the resulting displacement is the sum of the individual displacements of each wave at that point, is what causes the destructive interference event.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Your question seems incomplete, the probable complete question is:

Which type of wave interaction is shown in the diagram?

A. Constructive interference.

B, Diffraction interference.

C. Destructive interference.

Answer:

a) [tex]v_{60^{o}} =4.98 m/s[/tex]

b) [tex]\theta_{max}=79.34^{o}[/tex]

Explanation:

This problem can be solved by doing an energy analysis on the given situation. So the very first thing we can do in order to solve this is to draw a diagram of the situation. (see attached picture)

So, in an energy analysis, basically you will always have the same amount of energy in any position of the pendulum. (This is in ideal conditions) So in this case:

[tex]K_{lowest}+U_{lowest}=K_{60^{o}}+U_{60^{0}}[/tex]

where K is the kinetic energy and U is the potential energy.

We know the potential energy at the lowest of its trajectory will be zero because it will have a relative height of zero. So the equation simplifies to:

[tex]K_{lowest}=K_{60^{o}}+U_{60^{0}}[/tex]

So now, we can substitute the respective equations for kinetic and potential energy so we get:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv_{lowest}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}mv_{60^{o}}^{2}+mgh_{60^{o}}[/tex]

we can divide both sides of the equation into the mass of the pendulum so we get:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}v_{lowest}^{2}=\frac{1}{2}v_{60^{o}}^{2}+gh_{60^{o}}[/tex]

and we can multiply both sides of the equation by 2 to get:

[tex]v_{lowest}^{2}=v_{60^{o}}^{2}+2gh_{60^{o}}[/tex]

so we can solve this for [tex]v_{60^{o}}[/tex]. So we get:

[tex]v_{60^{o}}=\sqrt{v_{lowest}^{2}-2gh_{60^{0}}}[/tex]

so we just need to find the height of the stone when the pendulum is at a 60 degree angle from the vertical. We can do this with the cos function. First, we find the vertical distance from the axis of the pendulum to the height of the stone when the angle is 60°. We will call this distance y. So:

[tex]cos \theta = \frac{y}{4m}[/tex]

so we solve for y to get:

[tex]y = 4cos \theta[/tex]

so we substitute the angle to get:

y=4cos 60°

y=2 m

so now we can find the height of the stone when the angle is 60°

[tex]h_{60^{o}}=4m-2m[/tex]

[tex]h_{60^{o}}=2m [/tex]

So now we can substitute the data in the velocity equation we got before:

[tex]v_{60^{o}}=\sqrt{v_{lowest}^{2}-2gh_{60^{0}}}[/tex]

[tex]v_{60^{o}} = \sqrt{(8 m/s)^{2}-2(9.81 m/s^{2})(2m)}[/tex]

so

[tex]v_{60^{o}}=4.98 m/s [/tex]

b) For part b, we can do an energy analysis again to figure out what the height of the stone is at its maximum height, so we get.

[tex]K_{lowest}+U_{lowest}=K_{max}+U_{max}[/tex]

In this case, we know that [tex]U_{lowest}[/tex] will be zero and [tex]K_{max}[/tex] will be zero as well since at the maximum point, the velocity will be zero.

So this simplifies our equation.

[tex]K_{lowest} =U_{max}[/tex]

And now we substitute for the respective kinetic energy and potential energy equations.

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv_{lowest}^{2}=mgh_{max}[/tex]

again, we can divide both sides of the equation into the mass, so we get:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}v_{lowest}^{2}=gh_{max}[/tex]

and solve for the height:

[tex]h_{max}=\frac{v_{lowest}^{2}}{2g}[/tex]

and substitute:

[tex]h_{max}=\frac{(8m/s)^{2}}{2(9.81 m/s^{2})}[/tex]

to get:

[tex]h_{max}=3.26m[/tex]

This way we can find the distance between the axis and the maximum height to determine the angle of the pendulum about the vertical.

y=4-3.26 = 0.74m

next, we can use the cos function to find the max angle with the vertical.

[tex]cos \theta_{max}= \frac{0.74}{4}[/tex]

[tex]\theta_{max}=cos^{-1}(\frac{0.74}{4})[/tex]

so we get:

[tex]\theta_{max}=79.34^{o}[/tex]

The speed when the string is at 60 degrees to the vertical is approximately 8.85 m/s. The greatest angle with the vertical that the string will make is approximately 57.6 degrees.

(a) To find the speed when the string is at 60 degrees to the vertical, we can apply the conservation of mechanical energy between the lowest point (initial position) and the 60 degrees point (final position).

At the lowest point, all of the gravitational potential energy is converted into kinetic energy:

m × g × h = (1/2) × m × v²

v = √(2 × g × h) = √(2 × 9.8 × 4.0) ≈ 8.85 m/s.

Therefore, the speed when the string is at 60 degrees to the vertical is approximately 8.85 m/s.

(b) The greatest angle with the vertical that the string will make, we need to determine the maximum height reached by the stone. At the highest point, all of the kinetic energy is converted into gravitational potential energy:

(1/2) × m × v² = m × g  h(max)

h(max) = (v²) / (2 × g) = (8.0²) / (2 × 9.8) ≈ 3.27 m.

Using the sine function:

sin(Θ) = h(max) / 4.0,

Θ = sin⁻¹(h(max) / 4.0) ≈ sin⁻¹(3.27 / 4.0) ≈ 57.6 degrees.

Therefore, the greatest angle with the vertical that the string will make is approximately 57.6 degrees.

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Answer:

it is C i dont need no explanat

Explanation:

Answer:

Momentum of car = 1200 kg * 10 m/s = 12000 kgm/s Momentum = Force * time 12000 kgm/s = Force * 20s Force = 600 N

Explanation:

Answer:

0.17 m

Explanation:

The formula to apply in this question is that of speed of light.

The speed of the microwaves :

v = f * λ ------where f is frequency of the microwave, λ is the wavelength  and v is the speed of the wave

3.0 x 10⁸ = 1.8 x 10⁹ *λ

3.0 x 10⁸ / 1.8 x 10⁹ = λ

λ  = 0.16666666666

λ = 0.17 m { two significant figures}

Answer:

densest: blue; medium dense: clear; least dense: red

Explanation:

i've done this question before :)

Answer:

i think its a wave length

Answer:

520kw or 520, 000w

Explanation:

Given that power equsls workdone /time taken

P=mgh

____

t

M=10, 000kg

h=26m

T=5sec

g=10m/s²

Recall:

P=mgh/t

P=10,000×10×26/5

P=20,000×26

P=520,000w or 520kw

Answer:HJKGFHJYKIUGFJDTGYKUGFJDSX

Explanation:65TTY6Y Y YY. ;D DDS

HVC BJCHGNMGHJFYIKUHYGFTR6457TY8IUOHJKGYTDYR567YUOI8HJKBGJMVHDTR5E46T7Y TFGDGHYUFVYH T7UYGHUGFTY Y6TURF67URY

Answer: D.

Explanation:

Moji listed the solids in order of hardness as graphite < chalk < quartz. because his peer group suggested some experimental errors that may have caused this to happen. The experimental error most likely led Moji to the conclusion that Moji could have chosen hardness tests that were not reliable. Therefore the correct option is D.

Anything which has mass and occupies space is known as matter, mainly there are four states of matter solid liquid gases, and plasma.

These different states of matter have different characteristics according to which they vary their volume and shape.

There are various tests to judge the mechanical hardness of any solid  material such as the Rockwell hardness test, Brinell's hardness test,Vicker's diamond hardness test, and Knoop's hardness test which is also known as microhardness test

The experimental error most likely led Moji to the conclusion that Moji could have chosen hardness tests that were not reliable. Therefore the correct option is D.

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Answer:

C is the correct answer.

Answer:

The mass of an object is the same on Earth, in orbit, or on the surface of the Moon. ... the absence of air resistance, all objects fall with the same acceleration g. ... A 1.0-kg mass thus has a weight of 9.8 N on Earth and only about 1.7 N ... What force does he apply if the stone accelerates at a rate of 1.5m/s2?

Explanation:

Explanation:

Part 1 :

The efficiency of a simple machine is defined as the ratio of useful work done by the machine ( output work ) to the total work put into the machine ( input work ).

Part 2 : [tex] \boxed{ \sf{No}}[/tex]

In practice , the work output of a machine is always less than the work input due to the effect of friction. Since, there is always some loss of energy in the machine , if the frictional force in machines increases , efficiency decreases. Because machines are not frictionless in practice , efficiency of a machine is never 100% or greater.

Hope I helped ! ツ

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Answer:

Its not really possible I don't think. UNLESS! You fall into a manhole then find a wirling vortex in the sewers! : )

Explanation:

Answer:

What caused the slope to change around 1905 and 1906? Building the Canadian hydroelectric plant reduced the rate of erosion after 1906. This change in the rate of erosion is represented by the change in the slope on the graph. Hydroelectric dams convert kinetic energy from moving water to electrical energy.

Answer:

In 1906, around the time the Canadian hydroelectric plant began operating, the erosion rate decreased to approximately 0.7 meters per year.

Explanation:

Answer:

2,158.8 mi?

Explanation:

sorry if this is wrong

Answer:

C Distance

Explanation:

If she knows how far the plane went then she just goes that far from where it took off

Answer:

Ah yes.. Beetlejuice

Explanation:

I hear it so well ngl