The specialized intracellular components would increase the fitness of prokaryotes dwelling in these particular microenvironments A. Aerophilic magnetic bacteria in aquatic sediments are magnetosomes used for navigation by detecting the Earth's magnetic field.
Prokaryotic is a type of cell in which genetic material is spread in a body similar to a nucleus but not surrounded by a membrane. Examples of prokaryotic microorganisms are algae and bacteria such as aerophilic magnetic bacteria.
Aerophilic magnetic bacteria are bacteria whose movements are affected by a magnetic field. In these bacteria there is a special organelle called a magnetosome which functions to detect the Earth's magnetic field for navigation. The magnetosome is composed of magnetite or greigite compounds which have much stronger magnetic properties than synthetic magnets.These organelles also help improve the fitness of aerophilic magnetic bacteria because they are able to guide these bacteria in migrating and looking for food.
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how does one determine the minimum inhibitory concentration in the broth test? select one: a. reading the concentration on the plastic strip b. testing the fic index c. looking at the growth inhibition zone d. examining the broth for lack of turbidity
One can determine the minimum inhibitory concentration in the broth test by examining the broth for lack of turbidity.
The correct option is option d.
The minimum inhibitory concentration happens to define the in vitro levels of susceptibility or the resistance of some particular bacterial strains to the applied antibiotic. Reliable assessment of the minimum inhibitory concentration has a very significant impact on the therapeutic strategy which will be chosen and also affects efficiency of an infection therapy.
The minimum inhibitory concentration or the MIC is basically the lowest concentration of a chemical, which is usually a drug which happens to prevent the visible growth of the bacterium. The determination of the minimum inhibitory concentration is basically based on turbidity. High turbidity would mean high concentrations of anti microbial drugs whereas lower the turbidity, the lower will be the microbial concentration.
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Sometimes a hypothesis is not supported. Yet, scientists consider the findings valuable. State one reason scientists would value an experiment that does not support the initial hypothesis.
One reason through which scientists would value an experiment that does not support the initial hypothesis is as follows:
It supports them to make new discoveries and refine their hypotheses on the basis of some facts. What is a Hypothesis?A hypothesis may be defined as a testable statement that signifies the relationship between two or more variables or a proposed explanation for some observed phenomenon.
Hypotheses are always constructed and tested with respect to the experiments. When the outcome of an experiment supports a hypothesis, such a hypothesis is accepted.
But on contrary, when the outcomes of an experiment do not support a hypothesis, such a hypothesis is refined and retested.
Therefore, the hypothesis helps scientists to make new discoveries and refine their hypotheses on the basis of some facts and findings.
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i find a fossil arm bone covered in volcanic ash that i think is a very ancient human ancestor. i want to get a numerical age of it. how do i date it?
To date a fossil, scientists typically use one of two methods: relative dating or absolute dating.
Relative dating involves comparing the fossil to other fossils found in the same location to determine its age based on the geological layer it is found in.
Absolute dating methods, such as radiocarbon dating and potassium-argon dating, provide a numerical age in years. Radiocarbon dating measures the decay of the radioactive isotope carbon-14 and can be used to date organic materials up to around 50,000 years old. Potassium-argon dating measures the decay of potassium-40 into argon-40 and can be used to date materials up to billions of years old.
To use either method, a sample of the fossil or surrounding material must be taken for laboratory analysis. The choice of method depends on the age of the fossil and the type of material it is made of. In your case, given the age of your fossil, potassium-argon dating might be more appropriate. However, it is important to consult with a specialist in the field to determine the most appropriate method and to ensure proper sampling and analysis.
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pls help
Why are the cells produced via mitosis identical to one another?
Answer:
In short,this is Because each daughter cell carries the exact same chromosomes of the parent.
: if both samples are treated with the eco r1 restriction enzyme, how many fragments would be produced? circle the recognition sites of the enzyme.
The EcoR1 restriction enzyme recognizes the DNA sequence 5'-GAATTC-3' and cuts both strands of the DNA molecule at the site where this sequence is found.
The number of fragments that will be produced will depend on the number of times the EcoR1 recognition site occurs in the DNA sequence of each sample. If both samples have the same DNA sequence, they will produce the same number of fragments after treatment with EcoR1.
However, if the DNA sequences are different, the number of fragments produced may differ. To accurately determine the number of fragments produced, the DNA sequences of both samples must be known and the recognition sites of the EcoR1 enzyme must be identified within each sequence.
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the presence of increased numbers of circulating nucleated red blood cells may occur with a markedly regenerative anemia. when this occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophillic stippling, it may indicate
When this occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophilic stippling, it may indicate : lead Poisoning.
What is meant by regenerative anemia?If bone marrow is responding to anemia, then anemia can be classified as regenerative and the cause for anemia is hemorrhage or hemolysis. Regenerative response is assessed by identifying immature anucleate red blood cells in the peripheral blood.
Regenerative anemia may be caused by poisoning, infection, trauma, or other conditions that may cause loss of blood or hemolysis ( that is shortened life span of erythrocytes). With regenerative anemia, bone marrow responds properly to the decreased red cell mass by increasing RBC production and also releasing reticulocytes.
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Note: The question given on the portal is incomplete. Here is the complete question.
Question: The presence of increased numbers of circulating nucleated red blood cells may occur with a markedly regenerative anemia. when this occurs in the absence of anemia and is accompanied by basophilic stippling, it may indicate
Lead poisoning
Food poisoning
infection
Anemia
in order for an embryo to develop male genitals, the embryo must?
In order for an embryo to develop male genitals, the embryo must receive hormonal and genetic signals.
An embryo is the first stage of a multicellular organism's development. Embryonic development is the phase of life cycle that starts just after the male sperm cell fertilises the female egg cell in sexually reproducing animals.
The consequence of the union of these two cells is a single-celled zygote that divides several times to give rise to blastomere cells. The blastomeres are structured as a solid ball, or morula, which when it reaches a specific size absorbs fluid to form a hollow, or blastocoel. It is then known as a blastula, or a blastocyst in animals, after the structure.
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what pieces of evidence support the hypothesis that tetrapods evolved from lobeâfin fish?
The hypothesis that tetrapods evolved from lobe-finned fish is supported by multiple lines of evidence, including the fossil record, genetic analysis, and comparative anatomy. While there is still much to learn about the evolution of tetrapods, this hypothesis provides a compelling framework for understanding how these diverse and fascinating animals came to be.
Tetrapods are a diverse group of animals that includes all living and extinct amphibians, reptiles, birds, and mammals. Scientists have long been interested in the origin and evolution of tetrapods, and one of the most well-supported hypotheses is that they evolved from lobe-finned fish. In this answer, we will examine the pieces of evidence that support this hypothesis.
Fossil evidence: One of the most compelling lines of evidence for the evolution of tetrapods from lobe-finned fish is the fossil record. Fossils of several species of lobe-finned fish have been found that show a range of adaptations that are thought to have been important in the evolution of tetrapods. For example, some lobe-finned fish had limb-like fins with a series of bones that resemble the bones found in the limbs of tetrapods. Fossils of early tetrapods have also been found that show a transitional form between fish and tetrapods, with limbs that were used for both swimming and walking on land.
Genetic evidence: Another line of evidence for the evolution of tetrapods from lobe-finned fish comes from genetic studies. Genetic analysis has shown that tetrapods are more closely related to lobe-finned fish than to other types of fish. This supports the idea that tetrapods evolved from a group of lobe-finned fish that were more closely related to tetrapods than to other fish.
Comparative anatomy: A third line of evidence comes from comparative anatomy. Many of the features that are unique to tetrapods, such as limbs, lungs, and the ability to walk on land, are also found in lobe-finned fish. For example, the bones in the limbs of tetrapods are similar in shape and structure to the bones in the fins of lobe-finned fish. This suggests that the limbs of tetrapods evolved from the fins of lobe-finned fish.
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ou generate a plant with a mutation in the enzyme rubisco, and this mutant enzyme now shows optimal activity at a ph of 7.5. what consequences might this mutation have on the regulation of the calvin cycle?
The mutation in rubisco leading to optimal activity at a pH of 7.5 may affect the regulation of the Calvin cycle by altering the rate of carbon dioxide (CO2) fixation.
If the pH deviates from 7.5, the activity of the mutated rubisco enzyme may decrease, leading to a decrease in the rate of CO2 fixation. This can impact the rate of photosynthesis and the overall efficiency of the plant's energy production.
Additionally, changes in pH can also affect the activity of other enzymes involved in the Calvin cycle, potentially disrupting the entire process and leading to growth and metabolic abnormalities in the plant.
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SOMEONE PLS EXPLAIN PLS "a diploid reproductive cell dovides mitotically to form four haploid cells called spermatids"
Explanation:
the mother cell has 46 chromosomes (diploid) then divide into 2 daughter cells (haploid) then those 2 daughter cells form another 4 daughter cells that are (haploid) each sperm cell is haploid and each egg cell is haploid when the fertilization takes place the two cells form a diploid zygote.
Explain the roles of white blood cells when a pathogen enters the body
Answer:
They are attracted towards the infective agents, then surround and engulf them. Once inside the cell, these white cells then release chemicals that break the organism down and destroy it. Other white cells, called lymphocytes, target attacks in another way, by making antibodies.
Explanation:
(:
What are three factors that could prevent an organism from long ago from ever turning up in a fossil collection today?
Answer:
Explanation:
The organism generally must have hard parts such as shell, bone, teeth, or wood tissue; the remains must escape destruction after death; and the remains must be buried rapidly to stop decomposition.
What are long bundles of contractile proteins found in sarcoplasm?
The long bundles of contractile proteins found in sarcoplasm are called muscle fibers or muscle cells.
These fibers are elongated cells that are specialized for contraction and play a crucial role in the movement and support of the body. The contractile proteins found in muscle fibers are actin and myosin, which are responsible for the shortening of the muscle fibers during contraction.
The sarcoplasm, which is the cytoplasm of the muscle cell, contains a large amount of these contractile proteins and other cellular components necessary for the proper functioning of the muscle cell, such as energy-rich molecules, enzymes, and ion pumps.
The arrangement and interaction of actin and myosin filaments within the muscle fiber determine the strength and speed of contraction, which is critical for the various movements of the body.
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which anatomical segment in the heart has the highest conduction velocity? which is the slowest? what is the physiological relevance?
The anatomical segment in the heart with the highest conduction velocity is the atrioventricular (AV) node.
Conduction velocity refers to the speed at which electrical signals travel through the heart, driving the coordinated contraction of the heart's chambers. The AV node is located in the junction between the atria and ventricles and acts as a relay station, allowing electrical signals to pass from the atria to the ventricles. The physiological relevance of these differences in conduction velocity is that they play a crucial role in ensuring that the heart beats in a coordinated and synchronized manner. The slower conduction velocity of the bundle of His allows the atria to contract before the ventricles, giving time for the atria to fill with blood before the ventricles pump it out to the rest of the body. The higher conduction velocity of the AV node ensures that electrical signals are transmitted from the atria to the ventricles quickly and efficiently.To know more about anatomy visit:
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in woody dicots, the periderm eventually replaces question 6 options: xylem. phloem. epidermis. parenchyma lenticels
in woody dicots, the periderm eventually replaces epidermis. as to response to the increased demand for protection.
The periderm eventually takes the role of the epidermis in woody dicots. A layer of tissue called periderm develops on the outside of the stem and root of woody plants as protection. It is made up of numerous cork cell layers, which are distinguished by their thick walls and capacity to withstand drying.
The original epidermis, or the outermost layer of cells on a stem or root, is gradually covered with periderm as a plant grows. The periderm takes the place of the epidermis in response to the growing need for protection as the plant ages and becoming woody. The periderm acts as a barrier against water loss, as well as a layer of defence against physical harm and pathogen infiltration. The transfer of nutrients and water, however, is carried out by the xylem, phloem, and parenchyma cells, which are significant parts of the vascular system in plants. Lenticels, which can be seen on the surface of stems and roots, are tiny, elevated pores that enable gas exchange between the plant and the atmosphere.
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How do bicarbonates influence biotic factors?
when rna transcript is first made in a eukaryote, it requires further processing to become messenger rna (mrna). what steps are needed to produce a mature mrna?
Pre-mRNA is transcribed from the DNA by RNA polymerase and requires further processing to become messenger RNA (mRNA). The steps for producing a mature mRNA are capped, splicing, polyadenylation, export, and protein synthesis.
What is RNA transcript?The enzyme RNA polymerase initially transcribes the RNA transcript from the DNA in eukaryotes. This transcript is known as pre-mRNA, and it must be processed further to produce messenger RNA (mRNA). The following are the stages for creating mature mRNA:
1. Capping: A 7-methylguanosine cap is added to the 5' end of the pre-mRNA to modify it. This prevents mRNA degradation and aids in the effective translation of mRNA into protein.
2. Splicing: The pre-mRNA is cut at the introns and the exons are spliced together in this phase. This results in the formation of mature mRNA, which then exits the nucleus.
3. Polyadenylation: The insertion of a poly-A tail to the 3' end of the mRNA modifies it. This is beneficial in the efficient translation of the mRNA into protein.
4. Export: The mature mRNA is exported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm for protein synthesis.
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give a scientific reason for the following (in) the presence of a large central vacuole in a plant cell
Answer: Plant cells are known to have bigger vacuoles than that of animal cells as they need to store food and water. This is because the plant don't possess the ability to move freely like that of animals.
Explanation:
what change did the national census of 1890 indicate that had not previously occurred in u.s. history?
This is the first investigation to demonstrate the presence of Americans across the whole of the biologically diverse country.
What does the human body contain?As according Carl Larsson' Latin two name system, scientists define "human" as. This consists of the names of the "genus" and the "species." The species Homo (man) and species sapiens are used to classify humans (wise). Homo sapiens is the term used in science to describe humans.
What does biology entail?Definition. All of the branches of the natural sciences that focus on different facets of life's processes are included in the biological sciences. The notion spans all species, from bacteria to animals and plants, and incorporates morphology, physiology, cell biology, biochemistry, and biophysics.
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Look at the diagram. The function of part 1 is to provide an efficient __________ supply. What one word completes the sentence?
Which of these statements about skeletal muscles is false?A) Their fibers branch.B) They store nutrient reserves.C) They pull on tendons.D) They support soft tissues.
The correct option is A ; Their fibers branch. A branched fiber is a type of skeletal muscle fiber that is made up of two or more cataclysmically continuous strands.
Skeletal muscle fibers branch or split during extreme muscle loading and subsequent hypertrophy. A skeletal muscle fiber is composed of a single cylindrical muscle cell. A single skeletal muscle can be composed of hundreds or even thousands of muscle fibers bundled together and wrapped in connective tissue. The epimysium is a connective tissue sheath that surrounds each muscle.
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Approximately what percentage of plastics are actually recyclable?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 25%
Answer:
B. 30%
Explanation:
The approximate percentage of plastics that are actually recyclable is 30%. This means that out of all the plastic produced, only 30% of it is able to be recycled and reused. The other 70% of plastic either ends up in landfills, where it can take hundreds of years to decompose, or is released into the environment, where it can harm wildlife and ecosystems. It is important to reduce the use of single-use plastics and properly dispose of plastic waste to help minimize the negative impact of plastic on the environment.
Answer:
abt 10%
Explanation:
Most plastics can not be recycled. Most ends up in the landfill. Only about 10% of plastics used can be recycled.
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DNA is a very long molecule that has chemicals in a special order. Parts of dna molecules are what we call?
Answer:DNA is made of chemical building blocks called nucleotides. These building blocks are made of three parts: a phosphate group, a sugar group and one of four types of nitrogen bases. To form a strand of DNA, nucleotides are linked into chains, with the phosphate and sugar groups alternating.
The four types of nitrogen bases found in nucleotides are: adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G) and cytosine (C). The order, or sequence, of these bases determines what biological instructions are contained in a strand of DNA. For example, the sequence ATCGTT might instruct for blue eyes, while ATCGCT might instruct for brown.
Explanation:
Need help with this biology assigment
Answer:
9: A
10: 80
11:80
12: early stages of survival
13: fish
what kind of foods were eaten by the wild ancestors of livestock-- aurochs, jungle fowl, and wild boar. how does that compare to their feed now
The wild ancestors of livestock, such as aurochs, jungle fowl, and wild boar, primarily ate grasses, plants, seeds, insects, and small invertebrates. In comparison, modern livestock are often fed a mixture of grains, such as corn and soy, and sometimes receive supplements like minerals and vitamins to ensure their health and well-being.
The diet of wild ancestors of livestock was determined by their habitat and the resources available to them. For example,
Aurochs, which were wild cattle, lived in grasslands and ate a diet primarily consisting of grasses and other vegetation. Wild boar lived in wooded areas and ate a more varied diet including acorns, roots, and small animals. Jungle fowl, the ancestors of domestic chickens, fed on seeds, insects, and small invertebrates in the forests of Southeast Asia.In contrast, modern livestock are often kept in confined spaces and are fed a controlled diet to maximize their growth and productivity. Grains are a staple feed for many domesticated animals, as they are easily stored, and transported, and provide a source of energy for the animals.
However, this type of diet is often lacking in fiber, which can lead to digestive problems, and may not provide all the nutrients the animals need for optimal health. In some cases, supplements are added to their feed to make up for any nutritional deficiencies.
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assume you are using the explorer 11/12. on posterior teeth, which part of the tooth is instrumented twice: once when the instrument is pointing distally, and again when it is pointed mesially?
When using the Explorer 11/12 on posterior teeth, the distal surface of the tooth is instrumented twice - once when the instrument is pointing distally and again when it is pointing mesially.
This is done to ensure that the instrument reaches the deepest parts of the pocket and removes any debris that may have been left behind.
The instruments used in root canal treatment include endodontic files, reamers, and burs. Endodontic files are used to clean and shape the root canal, and are available in a variety of shapes and sizes. Reamers are used to enlarge the root canal, while burs are used to remove excess cement, debris, and access the root canal. All of these instruments must be used with care and precision to ensure the best outcome for the patient.
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the trp operon also undergoes negative regulation by a repressor. tryptophan is the signal molecule (effector molecule) that binds to the repressor. determine which events lead to an increase in transcription.
The signal molecule (effector molecule) that binds to the repressor is tryptophan. Determine which events cause a spike in transcription. - When the trp repressor dissociates from DNA, the trp operon is transcribed.
High tryptophan: Tryptophan binds to the trp repressor, causing it to alter shape and become active (DNA-binding). The trp repressor connects to the operator, preventing RNA polymerase from connecting to the promoter and so halting operon transcription.
Tryptophan activates an RNA-binding protein called TRAP, which binds to the trp operon leader RNA and causes transcription to stop. The tryptophan repressor (or trp repressor) is a transcription factor that regulates amino acid metabolism. It has been investigated the most in Escherichia coli, where it is a dimeric protein that controls transcription of the tryptophan operon's five genes.
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describe how light interacts with pigments in photosystems of the light reactions, and why certain wavelengths of light (green) are not helpful for photosynthesis
In a mechanism known as resonance energy transfer, when one of these pigments is activated by light, it transfers energy to a neighbouring pigment through direct electromagnetic interactions.
What light frequencies are not used in photosynthesis?Chlorophyll, the green pigment present in all photosynthesis cells, absorbs all visible light wavelengths except green, while green is reflected. Because of this, plants appear green to us.
What wavelengths are emitted by green plants but not absorbed?Plants have a green tint because of chlorophyll, which does not absorb green portions of white light. The plant seems to be green because it reflects that particular light wavelength.
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Suppose that 16 pairs of pintaloosa horses have one offspring per pair. How many of each phenotype would be expected? Determine the number out of 16 expected for each phenotype. Only count phenotypes for offspring expected to live past one week of age.
The number of solid overo is 2, few spot is 3 and white Overo is 0. A pantaloons is a type of horse which is produced from the breeding between overo and leopard.
So from the parameters given in the question, 2 different individuals possess genotype for overo (Ovo) phenotype.
It is very clear from the complete question that the number of:
Solid is 2
Few spot is 3
White Overo is 0
This goes to say that just only out of the 16 pair will have an overo phenotype.
Overo genotype
Ov ov
Ov OvOv Ovov
ov Ovov ovov
Leopard genotype
Lp lp
Lp LpLp Lplp
lp Lplp lplp
The expected phenotype for:
Solid is related to the Overo gene and its genotype is ovov, so from the Punnett's square, the possibility for a offspring is 1 out of 16;
Fewspot is related to both Overo and Leopard gene. A fewspot horse is both Ovov and LpLp, so the number is 3 out of 16;
White Overo is related to the Overo gene and these offspring dies at birth. Since it is asking for the number of ofspring to live past one week of age, there will 0 white overos;
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Full Question ;
In horses, the Overo gene, Ov, produces a white splotch pattern on the coat. The overo phenotype is seen only when a horse has one Ov copy, Ovov. Horses with two Ov copies, OvOv, die soon after birth and are called white overo because they are completely white. Horses with no Ov copies are solid colored, ovov. The Leopard complex gene, Lp, shows incomplete dominance and controls white spotting. One Lp allele, Lplp, produces the leopard phenotype, in which there are spots everywhere. Two Lp alleles, LpLp, produce the fewspot phenotype, in which the horse is mostly white with colored spots. A horse that is both overo and leopard is called pintaloosa, and these horses are spotted with splotches. A horse that is overo and fewspot is considered fewspot because the white areas from Lp is indistinguishable from the white from Ov.
Suppose that 16 pairs of pintaloosa horses have one offspring per pair. How many of each phenotype would be expected? Determine the number out of 16 expected for each phenotype. Only count phenotypes for offspring expected to live past one week of age.
Number of:
Solid:____
Fewspot:_____
White Overo:______
State two reasons why death rates fell in Europe and North America starting in the 1700s
The Industrial revolution of the 1800's led to improved water supplies, sewers, and personal hygiene, as well as improved farming techniques and machines. This increased the efficiency of agricultural machines and train transport, improving the distribution of food.
Describe the two main reasons of the fall of death rates in Europe and North America.The two main reasons are -
Better farming techniques and machines increases the food supply.The Industrial revolution of the 1800's led to new sources of energy, such as coal and electricity. This increased the efficiency of the new agricultural machines. It also led to train transport, which improved the distribution of food.Death rates fell because of improved water supplies, sewers, and personal hygiene, increased food supply, and the new sources of energy.
In stage two of demographic transition model, the death rate is falling due to improved access to education, health care, shelter, sustenance, etc., but the birth rate continues to be high. This causes a massive population growth
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