Answers
i think animals shouldn’t be kept in zoos. i don’t like seeing all those animals locked up in cages just for others entertainment. some animals have a certain environment they need to stay in.
Answer:
As you see this question could be worth of an argument.
So, I would provide both views to it and for sure a conclusion in end.
For:
1. Zoos are educational resources that give visitors the chance to learn about animals and their surroundings.
2. Zoos are essential to breeding programmes that preserve species and help save endangered animals from extinction.
3. Zoos provide a safe and secure environment for animals, particularly those whose lives are in danger in the wild.
Against:
1. It is wrong to keep animals in captivity since it can lead to serious bodily and mental suffering for the creatures.
2. Animals in zoos frequently lack the space and stimulation they require to flourish.
3. There is a chance that wild animals and caged animals could contract the same disease, which would be bad for both populations.
In conclusion, both sides have convincing reasons, but ultimately the choice of keeping animals in zoos depends on personal beliefs and viewpoints.
Related Questions
how alleles gets distributed to offspring form parents
Answers
Alleles are alternative forms of genes that code for different variations of a given trait.
Alleles for a specific gene will only differ by one or a few bases (similar sequences)
FOR EXAMPLE:
GENE: eye color
ALTERNATIVE ALLELES: brown / blue / green
Which of the following forces of evolution increases (on average) genetic diversity within one population? Select all that are correct Genetic drift Natural selection (for new allele conferring fitness benefit) Migration Mutation
Answers
The evolutionary mechanisms which increase the genetic diversity in a population are mutation and migration.
Genetic diversity is always dynamic both across space as well as through time. Typically, the amount as well as the type of the genetic diversity within a species which varies across their natural range. Additionally, the genetic diversity changes over a period of time in the long term, and sometimes it occurs over shorter time frames such as a less number of generations of the species.
Migration is basically the movement of the genetic diversity which occurs usually within a species. In plants, this process occurs through the pollen dispersal, seed dispersal, as well as the movement of vegetative propagules. Genetic mutation is the change in the sequence of the DNA which occurs randomly. Mutation and migration increase genetic diversity.
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The diagram summarizes the steps in one round of the Krebs cycle.
Answers
Formation of ATP stores extra chemical energy in a molecule by forming a new chemical bond in Kreb's cycle. Therefore, option C is correct.
What is Kreb's cycle?The Krebs cycle also called the TCA cycle or the citric acid cycle is a series of chemical processes that take place in the mitochondria and are essential for aerobic respiration that provides energy to nearly all living things.
It consumes oxygen and produces carbon dioxide and water as waste. ATP is created here from ADP. For the transport of an electron chain, this cycle makes hydrogen and electrons necessary.
Therefore, option C is correct.
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After meiosis II, half of the chromosomes in the
secondary oocyte are transferred into polar body Il
(labeled as PB2 in Slide 6). The remaining
chromosomes and cytoplasm in secondary oocytes
develop into ovum or egg cells. How many
chromosomes are there is a mature egg?
Answers
After the meiosis II of the cell cycle, the chromosomes in the secondary oocyte gets transferred to the polar body II and 23 chromosomes will remain in the mature egg.
Meiosis is basically a reductional type of cell division. In meiosis, the chromosomes present in the cell are divided equally amongst the two daughter cells which are produced from the parent cell. The meiosis is very important during sexual reproduction as it allows the formation of haploid germ cells.
After meiosis II, when the parent cell is divided into two gametes each gamete cell contains 23 chromosomes. In this phase, the gamete produced remains haploid in nature. At the end of the meiosis II, half of the chromosomes will remain in the egg and the rest half will be transferred to the polar body and therefore the cell will have half the number of the actual chromosome, that is, 23 chromosomes.
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4.5% of what is covered in ice
Answers
Approximately 4.5% of the Earth's surface is covered in ice, including glaciers, ice caps, and the polar ice sheets. This is a significant amount and has a major impact on the planet's climate and ecosystems.
What parts of the world have ice?Ice is primarily found in the polar regions of the Earth, such as the Arctic and Antarctica, and on mountains, including the Himalayas, the Rocky Mountains, and the Andes.
Some regions with colder climates, such as Greenland, Scandinavia, and Russia, also have ice and glaciers. In general, ice can be found anywhere where temperatures remain below freezing for a significant period of time.
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examine the phylogenetic tree of the 13 finch species below. which of the following statements is a correct interpretation of the phylogenetic tree in the illustration
Answers
Option A: All the Galápagos finches are more closely related to one another than they are to mainland finch species, is the correct interpretation of the phylogenic tree.
The Galápagos finches are regarded as a prime example of an adaptive radiation, or the quick divergence from a common ancestor of ecologically distinct species. Modern molecular techniques and comparisons of the anatomical characteristics of the Galápagos finches demonstrate that they are in fact more closely related to one another than to any other species. As a result, choice A is accurate.
The evolutionary relationships between distinct organisms are shown visually in phylogenetic trees. Phylogenetic trees are hypotheses as opposed to confirmed facts. The branching structure of a phylogenetic tree shows how various species or other groupings evolved from a variety of shared ancestors. If two species of trees have a recent common ancestor, they are more closely linked, and if not, they are less related.
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Complete question is:
Examine the phylogenetic tree of the 13 finch species below. which of the following statements is a correct interpretation of the phylogenetic tree in the illustration.
All the Galápagos finches are more closely related to one another than they are to mainland finch species.
The sharp-beaked ground finch is more closely related to the small tree finch than either species is to the cactus finch.
The 13 finch species evolved in sequence; the warbler finch is the oldest species and the small ground finch is the most recent species to evolve.
The warbler finch is the common ancestor to all the finch species that exist today in the Galápagos Islands.
For each type of organism, place a check mark in the box to indicate whether the cellular characteristic or function is present. CHARACTERISTIC OR FUNCTION PROTOZOA ALGAE CYANOBACTERIA
Nucleus Flagella Pseudopodia Cilia Photosynthetic pigment(s) Chloroplasts Cell wall
Answers
For each type of organism, the indicate whether a cellular characteristic or function is present.
Characteristics of Protozoa Algae Cyanobacteria
Nucleus ✓ ✓ -
Flagella ✓ - -
Pseudopodia ✓ - -
Cilia ✓ - -
Pigment - ✓ ✓
photosynthesis ✓ ✓ ✓
Chloroplasts ✓ ✓ ✓
Cell wall ✓ ✓ ✓
Protozoa are single-celled animals with eukaryotic cell types that live alone or in colonies. Organisms that are used as the main tool for movement are flagella, cilia, pseudopodia. Several types of protozoa have cell walls and can form their own food through photosynthesis.
Algae are thallus plants because they do not have true roots, stems and leaves that can make their own food by photosynthesis. Algae are a type of eukaryotic cell that has a cell wall, chloroplast, and nucleus. In the algae body itself there are dyes (pigments) namely blue, green, yellow, and brown.
Cyanobacteria or blue-green algae are a group of eubacteria with prokaryotic cells and generally live in waters. Cynobacteria contain a type of chlorophyll, and various carotenoids as well as phycocyanin and phycoerythrin which give these organisms their characteristic color. These organisms have a cell wall containing a thin peptidoglycan layer and act as plant pioneers.
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Which of the following is NOT a way humans disrupt the carbon cycle?
Question 28 options:
replacing natural environments with human structures
using excessive fertilizers
deforestation
burning fossil fuels
Answers
Answer: Exceesive fertilzers
Explanation:
I think its this because you burn fossil fuels and the fuels you are putting out bad gasses witch could affect the carbon cycle. also deforestation since tree give out carbon so when you cut them down lees carbon is in the air.
What supports the argument that a well-balance diet is an important part of any daily nutrition plan?
Answers
Answer:
Explanation:
well many doctors and scientists find ways to help and answer our questions
If David is struggling with completing his work during the day what are some things that could help him manage his time better
Answers
Explanation:
Making a time table on what to do on that particular day.
First: Know when work begins, and do other things as how you manage your time. remember time is ticking
The peptide ala_ arg _ his _ gly _ glu is treated with peptidases to release all of the Amino acid , the solution is adjusted to ph 7 , and electrophoresis depicted below , the Amino acid indicated by the arrow is most likely to be see the picture that I put it
And of options is the Right answer??
Answers
(a) glycine The peptide ala-arg-his-gly-glu is treated with peptidases to release all the amino acids, The solution is adjusted to pH 7, and electrophoresis is performed_ In the electrophoretogram depicted below, the amino acid indicated by the arrow is most likely to be glycine.
what is glycine ?A single hydrogen atom makes up the side chain of the amino acid glycine. With the chemical formula NH2CH2COOH, it is the most straightforward stable amino acid. One of the amino acids that is proteinogenic is glycine. All of the codons beginning with GG encode it.
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Which criteria of Koch's postulates would not necessarily be met when trying to link a particular bacterium to a latent infection, such as tuberculosis or Lyme disease?
A.The microbe is isolated from the diseased host and grown in pure culture.
B.The same strain of microbe is obtained from a newly diseased host.
C.The microbe is found in all cases of the disease but is absent from healthy individuals.
D.When the microbe is introduced into a healthy, susceptible host, the same disease occurs.
Answers
When linking a bacterium to a latent infection like Lyme disease or tuberculosis, then the microbe will be found in all the cases of the disease but they are absent from healthy individuals and when the microbe is introduced in the body of a healthy and a susceptible host, the same disease will occur.
The correct options are C and D.
Koch's postulates were formed basically as guidelines in order to establish that microbes cause certain specific diseases. Since these rules were developed for the living agents, especially bacteria, and therefore they are not applicable to the inanimate pathogens such as viruses as well as infectious proteins.
Latent infections, like tuberculosis, only happen to cause symptoms in a fraction of the infected individuals. Also, the period of time before these infected individuals show symptoms also variable. So, it is very unlikely that a scientist will only find the microbe in the diseased individuals and also it is unlikely that symptoms would occur in all hosts.
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TRUE/FALSE. elongation of the polypeptide chain is terminated when a stop codon is incorporated into the newly synthesized protein.
Answers
The given statement is True.
Translation is the process by which ribosomes read the information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize a corresponding protein. The ribosome reads the mRNA codons three nucleotides at a time and matches each codon to a specific amino acid. When the ribosome reaches a stop codon, which does not code for an amino acid, it signals the termination of protein synthesis. This stop codon acts as a signal for the release of the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome. In conclusion, elongation of the polypeptide chain is terminated when a stop codon is incorporated into the newly synthesized protein. The stop codon acts as a signal for the release of the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome, and is a critical step in ensuring the accuracy and efficiency of protein synthesis.To know more about RNA visit:
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Upon reception of a biochemical signal by a eukaryotic cell, which of the following would change first when the genetic expression pattern of the cell changes? Choose one: A. The proteome would change first. B. The transcriptome would change first. C. The proteome and transcriptome would change simultaneously. D. The proteome and transcriptome would not change; they are not parts of genetic expression.
Answers
B) A eukaryotic cell would first experience changes in the transcriptome and subsequently the proteome in response to a biochemical stimulus.
What distinguishes methanogens from other organisms?Three characteristics are present in all methanogens. (1) They must manufacture methane since it provides them with all or the majority of the energy they need to grow. (2) They are archaea, a subclass of Euryarchaeota. (3) As strict anaerobes, they can only develop under anaerobic conditions.
How does pyruvate become ethanol?fermentation. Pyruvate molecules are used in the fermentation process (more particularly, the alcoholic fermentation) to create ethanol. Alcohol dehydrogenase and pyruvate decarboxylase are the extra enzymes at play. Pyruvate will be converted by the two enzymes to acetaldehyde, which will subsequently be converted to ethanol.
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recreate the order of the flow of electrons through oxidative phosphorylation from the electron donor to the terminal acceptor
Answers
The electron transportation chain or chemiosmosis are two parts of oxidative phosphorylation that are interdependent.
What is a mechanism for phosphorylation?The phosphorylation route, also known as the phosphorylation system or P»-system, is the functional component that uses the behavior of a particular force for phosphorylate ADP (D) into ATP (T). Adenine nucleotides translocase, phosphate carrier, or ATP synthase make up the P-system.
What is the phosphorylation procedure?A phosphoryl (PO3) ring is added to a molecule during phosphorylation. This process is essential again for cellular storage and transmission for free energy via energy carrier molecules in biological systems.
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Given a wave whose wavelength is 10 meters, and its period is 0.5 s, what's the speed?
Answers
Answer:
2Hz
Explanation:
What is the frequency of a wave if its period is 0.5 s?
2 Hz
As the frequency of a wave increases, the time period of the wave decreases and as the frequency of a wave decreases, the time period of the wave increases. So, the answer is, f = 1/0.5 = 2 Hz.
Read the article and use the information to answer
the questions that follow.
Microscope
Name one advantage of electron microscopes.
I
DONE ✔
Answers
what amino acid sequnece will be generated based on the following mrna codon sequence? 5'aug ucu ucg uua ucc uug 3
Answers
The following mRNA codon sequence will produce the amino acid sequence met-ser-ser-leu-ser-leu.
What is the amino acid mRNA codon?Since codons are three-letter structures, the four nucleotides that make up mRNA — A, U, G, and C — can be put together in a total of 64 different ways. Three stop signal codons connect the 61 amino acid codons that make up these 64 codons to indicate the completion of protein synthesis.
How is an mRNA codon translated?The order of amino acids in a protein, from the N-terminus (methionine) to the C-terminus, is determined by mRNA codons, which are read from 5' to 3'. Each group of three mRNA nucleotides read during translation determines an amino acid.
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How does an antibiotic resistant bacterium enter into a population of non-resistant bacteria?
A.
natural selection
B.
asexual reproduction
C.
mutation
D.
competition
Answers
Answer:
C. Mutation
Explanation:
How does an antibiotic resistant bacterium enter into a population of non-resistant bacteria?
A.
natural selection
B.
asexual reproduction
C.
mutation
D.
competition
Which of the following might result from a parathyroid tumor which causes oversecretion of parathyroid hormone?
A) Joint inflammation leading to osteoarthritis
B) Bone loss due to stimulation of osteoclasts
C) Bone growth due to stimulation of osteoblasts
D) Conversion of cartilage to bone
Answers
Bone loss due to stimulation of osteoclasts might result from a parathyroid tumor which causes over secretion of parathyroid hormone. The correct answer is B.
A parathyroid tumor that results in over secretion of parathyroid hormone can lead to a condition known as hyperparathyroidism.
In hyperparathyroidism, the elevated levels of parathyroid hormone cause an increase in the activity of osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This increased activity leads to a net loss of bone mass and can result in bone fractures, joint pain, and other skeletal abnormalities.
On the other hand, parathyroid hormone has a regulatory role in bone metabolism and can also stimulate the activity of osteoblasts, which are cells that build bone tissue.
However, in the context of a parathyroid tumor and hyperparathyroidism, the net effect is bone loss due to the increased activity of osteoclasts. Joint inflammation leading to osteoarthritis (Option A) and conversion of cartilage to bone (Option D) are not direct effects of hyperparathyroidism.
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Saved Please classify the following as either triumphs or challenges by moving them into the appropriate columns HIV/ AIDS Eradication of smallpox Control of rodent populations harboring the bacteria causing the plague Measles, mumps rubella, varicella vaccine (MMRV) Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome SARS Reset
Answers
Eradication of smallpox, Control of the rodent populations harboring the bacteria causing the plague, and the measles, mumps rubella, varicella vaccine (MMRV) are some triumphs whereas HIV/ AIDS, Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome and SARS are still some of the challenges that we face.
Smallpox has not occurred anywhere in the world since the year 1977. It has been basically eliminated as a naturally occurring infection in the human beings and this has been made possible by an effective vaccination. Plague caused by rodents harboring bacteria killed about 1/3 of the population of Europe in 14th century which has now been under control.
The MMRV vaccine is a very safe vaccine and is effective in the prevention of measles, mumps, rubella, and varicella. There is no current specific treatment, vaccine or cure for the hantavirus infection, SARS or HIV/AIDS which pose major challenges in healthcare.
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how many markers are necessary to map new genes to an exact location on the chromosomes described below using linkage
Answers
The number of markers necessary to map new genes to an exact location on a chromosome using linkage depends on the size of the chromosome.
Linkage mapping is based on the principle that genes that are close together on a chromosome are more likely to be inherited together than genes that are far apart. By tracking the inheritance patterns of multiple markers, it is possible to determine the relative positions of genes on a chromosome. The more markers that are used, the more precise the mapping will be. In general, two markers are sufficient to determine the relative positions of genes, but more markers are needed to define their exact location. The number of markers required can be estimated based on the size of the chromosome, the frequency of recombination between the markers and the gene of interest, and the desired level of resolution. A rough estimate is that at least 5-10 markers are needed to map a gene to an exact location on a chromosome. However, the actual number may be higher or lower, depending on the specific circumstances.To know more about chromosomes visit:
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The ____ is when genes establish boundaries for environmental influences rather that specifically denoting a particular characteristic.
Answers
The Nature vs. Nurture debate is when genes establish boundaries for environmental influences rather that specifically denoting a particular characteristic.
What is gene?The genotype of an organism is its whole collection of genetic material. The term "genotype" can also refer to an individual's alleles or variants in a certain gene or genetic area. The term "genotype" refers to an organism's genetic composition in general; in other words, it characterizes an organism's whole collection of genes. The three forms of genotypes are homozygous recessive (pp), homozygous dominant (PP), and heterozygous (Pp). Homozygous dominant and heterozygous genotypes have identical characteristics.
Here,
The Nature versus. Nurture dispute occurs when genes provide limits for environmental impacts rather than indicating a specific trait.
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Which of the following is true about genes that are located on different chromosomes? These genes are inherited independently of each other. Only the dominant alleles of these genes tend to be inherited together These genes are always inherited together These genes are more likely to undergo mutation.
Answers
Genes that are located on different chromosomes are inherited independently of each other. The correct answer is A.
Genes that are located on different chromosomes are inherited independently of each other, which means that the inheritance of one gene does not influence the inheritance of another gene located on a different chromosome. The correct answer is A.
This occurs because during meiosis, the chromosomes that carry the genes are separated randomly into different gametes, so the combination of chromosomes and the genes they carry in each offspring is unique.
The independence of gene inheritance means that different combinations of alleles for different genes can be passed on from generation to generation, which contributes to the genetic diversity within populations.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. most specifically, an infant's lack of self-control can be explained by the immaturity of the ___ cortex.
Answers
Most precisely, the prefrontal cortex's immaturity can be used to account for an infant's lack of self-control.
A prefrontal cortex is what?The cerebral cortex encompassing the frontal lobe's portion is called the prefrontal cortex (PFC). This area of the brain has been linked to the organization of complex cognitive behavior, personality expression, decision-making, and social behavior regulation.
This brain area is supposed to function mostly in the orchestration of thoughts and behaviors in order to achieve internal objectives. Executive function is the psychological phrase that best describes the activities that the prefrontal cortex area performs.
Executive function includes the capacity to distinguish between opposing ideas, identify good and bad, better and best, same and different and future effects of current actions. It also includes the capacity to work toward a specific objective, predict outcomes, and set expectations based on actions, as well as the capacity to exercise social "control."
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What is the correct order of proteins in DNA
Answers
The correct order of proteins in DNA is adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), where the nucleotides are arranged in a specific sequence to form the DNA and gene.
What is the significance of DNA and its nucleotides?To form the DNA molecule, nucleotides are arranged in a specific sequence, and these nucleotides are composed of adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), and it is used as a template for protein synthesis.
Hence, the correct order of proteins in DNA is adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T), where the nucleotides are arranged in a specific sequence to form the DNA and gene.
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the life cycle of a product that begins when it is manufactured and ends when it is discarded as solid waste, typically in a landfill or as litter, is called .
Answers
Cradle-to-grave refers to the life cycle of a product, which starts with its creation and ends with its disposal as solid waste, usually in a landfill or as litter.
Cradle-to-grave evaluation takes into account the effects at every stage of a product's life cycle, from the time natural resources are extracted from the earth and processed through each succeeding stage of manufacturing, transportation, product use, and ultimately disposal.
You begin life in the cradle, and you naturally end it in the grave. Cradle to grave is a term used in business to describe a company's view of the environmental impact produced by its products or activities from the start of its life cycle to its end or disposal.
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Which of the following statements is TRUE?
A) Carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and calcium are the most abundant elements of living matter.
B) Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms.
C) All life requires the same essential elements.
D) A patient suffering from a goiter should not consume seafood.
Answers
It is true that "Some naturally occurring elements are toxic to organisms" as not all the elements found in nature are necessarily beneficial to all organisms.
The correct option is option B.
All the living organisms present on Earth are obtain their nutrition from the environment. The elements that are present in nature are important for their growth and functioning.
Some of the naturally occurring elements can be toxic to the organisms. The environment consists of a lot of elements which are toxic to different living creatures. Such chemicals which cause toxicity are formed naturally in our surroundings like mercury, formaldehyde, arsenic, and a lot more. These chemicals can end up causing adverse effects like allergies and infection in the body.
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In the Biosphere 2 experiment, which environmental variable was successfully maintained?
Question 21 options:
the number of biomes present
proportion of oxygen in the air
proportion of carbon dioxide in the air
water quality
Answers
Answer:
the number of biomes present
Which of the following items may be on the laboratory bench top while doing lab work? (Check all that apply) Check All That Apply Cultures (broth tubes agar plates, agar slants) Equipment items specifically needed to complete the lab activity Backpack, purse Pencilor pen Cellphone
Answers
A list of things that should be present on the laboratory bench is.
a) Culture (upon which the experiment is done mainly experiment based on microbes)
b) Equipment and various instruments needed for that experiment to complete it.
d) Pencils or pens to note down your observation of the experiment.
A laboratory bench is a workspace used in a variety of schools, universities, research institutes, medical facilities, food safety institutions, and other places to conduct scientific studies or experiments.
The bench top is solid and resistant to a variety of acids, bases, salts, reagents, and other highly reactive compounds since it is constructed of phenolic resin, a petroleum-based chemical.
The ideal laboratory has a lab bench with a variety of equipment, including test tubes, beakers, pipettes, cylindrical flasks, droppers, bunsen burners, and other items. Additionally, it has a rack that holds numerous chemicals needed in experiments, including HCL, sulphuric acid, acetic acid, barium hydroxide, and others.
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