Hey Guys! Can You Please Help Me In My Math​

Answer:

the area to the kite is sixty-four

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply the width to the height

Answer:

130

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the Vertices of the  Δ  be  A , B ,  and  C

We will follow the Usual Notation for  Δ A B C ,  e.g., the side

opposite to the Vertex  A  will be denoted by  a , m ∠ A = A ,  etc.

In this notation, let us assume that,

a = 32 , b = 35 , & , C = 120 ° & we have to find  c

Using Cosine-Rule for  Δ A B C , we have,  

c²= a²+b² - 2 ab cos C = 32 ²+35² - 2 x 32 x 35 x cos 120° =

1024 + 1225 − 2240  cos ( 180 °− 60 °) = 2249 - 2240(-cos 60°)

2249+ 2240 (1/2)= 2249 + 1120=  3369

Answer: C= √3369 is about 58.04

Answer:  58.043087 (approximate)

===================================================

Explanation:

Refer to the diagram below. We can use the law of cosines to solve for c

c^2 = a^2 + b^2 - 2*a*b*cos(C)

c^2 = 32^2 + 35^2 - 2*32*35*cos(120)

c^2 = 3369

c = sqrt(3369)

c = 58.043087 which is approximate

Round this value however you need to.

Answer:

17311, 17315  

Step-by-step explanation:

Explanation,

List Of CPT Codes For Mohs Surgery

CPT Code 17311 and CPT Code 17313 are the base codes for the range of this surgery. CPT Code 17312, CPT Code 17314, and CPT Code 17315 are the add-on codes for this range.

Description Of CPT Code 17311

Description Of CPT Code 17315 (addon)

CPT Code 17315 may be used to report each block after the first 5 blocks for any single-stage.

Extras

Description Of CPT Code 17312 (addon)

Each additional stage after the first stage, up to 5 tissue blocks (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure)

Description of CPT Code 17313

Moh’s micrographic technique, including removal of all gross tumor, surgical excision of tissue specimens, mapping, color coding of specimens, microscopic examination of specimens by the surgeon, and histopathologic preparation including routine stains(s) (eg. Hematoxylin and eosin, toluidine blue), of the trunk, arms, or legs; first stage, up to 5 tissue blocks

Description Of CPT Code 17314 (addon)

Each additional stage after the first stage, up to 5 tissue blocks (List separately in addition to code for primary procedure).

Answer:

35 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

You add up all of the miles on the chart to get 35 miles. Have a great day! I hope this helped.

Answer:

[tex](f+g)(x) = 3x^2 - 6[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x) = 2x^2 + 1, \ g(x) = x^2 - 7\\\\(f +g)(x) = f(x) + g(x) \\\\(f+g)(x) = 2x^2 + 1 + x^2 - 7 \\\\(f+ g)(x) = 3x^2 - 6[/tex]

Answer:

b^4 / a

Step-by-step explanation:

I have attached the explanation above. hopefully this will help

Answer:

Probability[(X - μ) < 1.1] = 0.6046

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

σ² = 64

Mean μ = 34

Find:

Probability[(X - μ) < 1.1]

Computation:

Standard deviation σ = √σ²

Standard deviation σ = √64

Standard deviation σ = 8

Probability[(X - μ) < 1.1] = Probability[-1.1 < (X - μ) < 1.1]

Probability[(X - μ) < 1.1] = Probability[-1.1/(8/√38) < (X - μ) < 1.1/(8/√38)]

Using z table

Probability[(X - μ) < 1.1] = 0.6046

Answer:

if this is helpful to you...

plz do follow

Answer: h = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

7h-5(3h-8)-56 = -128

7h -15h+40-56 = -128

or, -8h-16= -128

or, -8h = -128 + 16

or, -8h = -112

or, 8h = 112

or, h = 112/8

so, h = 14

Answer:

h = 14

Step-by-step explanation:

We are going to use basic algebra to solve this equation.

First, let's isolate the h variables by moving -56 to the other side:

7h - 5(3h - 8) - 56 = -128

(add 56 to both sides)

7h - 5(3h - 8) = -72

Next, let's distribute the -5 to (3h - 8) by separating it from the equation then adding it back:

7h - 5(3h - 8) = -72

Separation:

-5(3h - 8) --> (-5*3h) + (-5*-8) --> (-15h) + (40)

-15h + 40

Adding it back in:

7h -15h +40 = -72

Next, let's simplify it down by adding like terms, meaning adding 7h & -15h:

7h -15h +40 = -72

(add 7h & -15h)

-8h + 40 = -72

Now we're going to move the 40 to the other side but subtracting 40:

-8h + 40 = -72

(subtract 40 to both sides)

-8h = -112

Finally, we're going to divide both sides by -8

-8h = -112 --> h = 14

The answer is h = 14

(You can double check by plugging 14 into the equation and see if it equals -128, which it does, so it's correct :-) )

Hope it helps (●'◡'●)

Answer:

6.25 gallons

Step-by-step explanation:

If 125 gallon tank in equivalent to 5ft

1 foot is equal to 12inches...

5 ft ×12 =60 inches

So 125 gallon tank= 60 inches

If 60 inches = 125 gallon

3 inches = 125 × 3 / 60

= 375/60

= 6.25 gallons

Answer:

$11.76

Step-by-step explanation:

2.94×4=$11.76

Answer: hello there here is your answer:

7%

Step-by-step explanation:

if you divide the difference between the two numbers it will give you a decimal ....you need to convert that decimal into a percent which is 7%

hope this help have a good day bye

Answer:

the other person is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Q1= 31 AND 28

Q2= 26 AND 26

Q3= 24 AND 21

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n-2)

f(1)=1x

f(2)=1x

Step-by-step explanation:

This is the fibonacci sequence with each term times x.

Notice, you are adding the previous two terms to get the third term per consecutive triples of the sequence.

That is:

1x+1x=2x

1x+2x=3x

2x+3x=5x

3x+5x=8x

So since we need the two terms before the third per each consecutive triple in the sequence, our recursive definition must include two terms of the sequence. People normally go with the first two.

f(1)=1x since first term of f is 1x

f(2)=1x since second term of f is 1x

Yes, I'm naming the sequence f.

So I said a third term in a consecutive triple of the sequence is equal to the sum of it's two prior terms. Example, f(3)=f(2)+f(1) and f(4)=f(3)+f(2) and so on...

Note, the term before the nth term is the (n-1)th term and the term before the (n-1)th term is the (n-2)th term. Just like before the 15th term you have the (15-1)th term and before that one you have the (15-2)th term. That example simplified means before the 15th term you have the 14th and then the 13th.

So in general f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n-2).

So the full recursive definition is:

f(n)=f(n-1)+f(n-2)

f(1)=1x

f(2)=1x

Hello,

Let's x then number of students.

x is divisible by 12,15,18 thus by 180 (lcm)

x=180*k is a square

2²*3²*5*k= a square ==> k=5

x=180*5=900

Proof:

900/12=75

900/15=60

900/18=50

900=30²

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

area of a triangle is  1/2* base * height

1/2* 2.6* 3    is the area of the end of the object , now just multiply by it's length

9*( 1/2* 2.6* 3  )

this looks like choice 3 of the choices  

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

y=3x-2

y=3(2)-2

y=6-2

y=4

Answer:

{2, 6, 14}

Step-by-step explanation:

Using f(x) = 4x + 6 with a domain of {-1, 0, 2 }, find the range.

To get the range, we will substitute the values of the domain into the given function as shown;

when x = -1

f(-1) = 4(-1)+6

f(-1) = -4+6

f(-1) = 2

when x = 0

f(0) = 4(0)+6

f(0) = 0+6

f(0) = 6

when x = 2

f(2) = 4(2)+6

f(2) = 8+6

f(2) = 14

Hence the required range are {2, 6, 14}

Answer:

1×2+1=3

3×2+1=7

7×2+1=15

15x2+1=31

31×2+1=63

40÷2+4=24

24÷2+4÷16

16÷2+4=12

12÷2+4=10

10÷2+4=9

Answer:

23:19

Step-by-step explanation:

This questions is looking for this ratio:

income:savings

Regan's income is $1,380 per month.

Regan's savings is $1,140 per month.

Substitue those numbers in our original ratio, and you'll get this:

1380:1140

However, this question wants the lowest form of the ratio.

To do that, you can find the GCF (greatest common factor) and divide both number's by it, or you can just randomly divide them by small numbers you know both of them are divisible by.

I'm going to use the 2nd method because it's usually quicker for big numbers like these:

1380/10 = 138

1140/10 = 114

138/2 = 69

114/2 = 57

69/3 = 29

57/3 = 19

29 and 19 are prime numbers, so you can't divide them anymore. This is how we know we've reached the lowest terms of these numbers.

So the answer is 29:19

Hope this helps (●'◡'●)

Answer: 23:19

Step-by-step explanation: 1380 and 1140 LCM is 60. 1380/6 = 23 and 1140/6= 19

Therefore, the answer is 23:19

Answer:

The 99% confidence interval for the true mean milk production is between 26.33 kg/d and 29.67 kg/d.

Step-by-step explanation:

We have that to find our [tex]\alpha[/tex] level, that is the subtraction of 1 by the confidence interval divided by 2. So:

[tex]\alpha = \frac{1 - 0.99}{2} = 0.005[/tex]

Now, we have to find z in the Z-table as such z has a p-value of [tex]1 - \alpha[/tex].

That is z with a pvalue of [tex]1 - 0.005 = 0.995[/tex], so Z = 2.575.

Now, find the margin of error M as such

[tex]M = z\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}[/tex]

In which [tex]\sigma[/tex] is the standard deviation of the population and n is the size of the sample.

[tex]M = 2.575\frac{2.25}{\sqrt{12}} = 1.67[/tex]

The lower end of the interval is the sample mean subtracted by M. So it is 28 - 1.67 = 26.33 kg/d.

The upper end of the interval is the sample mean added to M. So it is 28 + 1.67 = 29.67 kg/d.

The 99% confidence interval for the true mean milk production is between 26.33 kg/d and 29.67 kg/d.

The line graph (A) represents the expression 5/2 + 3 the first term is 2 and-a-half units, and the second term is 3 units option (A) is correct.

It is defined as the representation of the numbers on a straight line that goes infinitely on both sides.

We have an expression:

= 5/2 + 3

Here 5/2 = 2.5 = 2 and half

= 2.5 + 3

The first arrow should indicate the 2 and-a-half unit

And the second arrow should represent the 3 unit

The line graph(A) represents the above situation or expression.

Thus, the line graph (A) represents the expression 5/2 + 3 the first term is 2 and-a-half units, and the second term is 3 units option (A) is correct.

Learn more about the number line here:

brainly.com/question/13189025

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Answer:

d) 2m+1

Step-by-step explanation:

for example:

m be 2 then. 2×2+1=5

m be 3 then. 2×3+1=7

Explanation:

For any 30-60-90 triangle, the hypotenuse is always twice as long compared to the short leg. The short leg is always opposite the 30 degree angle.

The length of x is 6.

'A triangle in which one of the interior angles is 90° is called a right-angled triangle. The longest side of the right triangle, which is also the side opposite the right angle, is the hypotenuse and the two arms of the right angle are the perpendicular and the base.'

According to the given problem,

Perpendicular = 3

Hypotenuse = x

We know,

sin∅ = [tex]\frac{perpendicular}{hypotenuse}[/tex]

∅ = 30°

⇒ sin30 = [tex]\frac{3}{x}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{x}[/tex]  [ sin30 = [tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex] ]

⇒ x = 3 * 2

⇒ x= 6

Hypotenuse = 6

Applying Pythagoras theorem:

⇒ Hypotenuse² = Perpendicular² + Base²

⇒ 6² = 3² + Base²

⇒ 6² - 3² = Base²

⇒ Base² = 25

⇒ Base = √25

⇒ Base = 5

Hence, we can conclude the value of x to be 6.

Learn more about right-angled triangle here:

https://brainly.com/question/3770177

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Answer: 99

Step-by-step explanation:

Since the average of all four tests is 94:

[tex]\frac{95+92+90+x}{4} =94\\\\(4)\frac{277+x}{4} =(4)94\\\\277+x=376\\\\x=376-277=99[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]K=-3[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

According to the Factor Theorem, a binomial (x - a) is a factor of a polynomial P(x) if and only if P(a) = 0.

We have the polynomial:

[tex]P(x)=Kx^2-x+2[/tex]

And we want to find the value of K such that (x + 1) is a factor.

We can rewrite our factor as (x - (-1)). Thus, a = -1.

Then in orer for (x + 1) to be a factor, P(-1) must equal 0. Hence:

[tex]P(-1)=K(-1)^2-(-1)+2=0[/tex]

Simplify:

[tex]K+1+2=0[/tex]

Solve for K. Hence:

[tex]K=-3[/tex]

Answer:

20cm

Step-by-step explanation:

a square has 4 equally long sides.

when we know its perimeter, that means we know the sum of all 4 sides.

since all sides are equality long, we only need to divide the perimeter by 4 to get the length of an individual side.

80/4 = 20cm

Answer:

a) 122°

b) 37°

Step-by-step explanation:

a) supplement angle of 58° = 180° - 58° =122°

b) complement angle of 53° = 90° - 53° = 37°