Explain: Why do you think intermediate filaments doesn’t have motor molecules.

Answers

Answer 1

The centimo of intermediate filaments are elongated, not globular, and are related in an antipolar manner.

Why do you think intermediate filaments don’t have a motor?

Vimentin intermediate filaments move bi-route along microtubules in the cell. current work has spotted the microtubule motor cytoplasmic dynein as the stay inward-directed motor that drives this motion. Intermediate filaments are one of the three vital cytoskeletal lattices in eukaryotic cells overall filament has no conflict, and therefore no motor proteins move along intermediate filaments.

Their purpose is mainly mechanical and, as a class, intermediate filaments are less dynamic than actin filaments or microtubules. Intermediate filaments usually work with microtubules, on conditions that strengthen and support the fragile tubulin shape.

So we can conclude that Intermediate filaments are an vital component of the cytoskeleton,

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Related Questions

Determine the possible gametes that could normally be formed from an organism with the genotype AABbCc.

Answers

The plant with the genotype AABbCc produces four gametes.

What types of gametes can the AABbCc genotype produce?

The only gametes produced by a plant with the genotype AABbCC are ABC and AbC. The genotypes present in the cross are calculated using the 3n formula, whereas the phenotype present in the cross is determined using the 2n method.

How many children will result from the union of AaBbCc and AaBbCc?

An F1 hybrid with the AaBbCc genotype is created by crossing the AABBCC and aabbcc genotypes. An organism can create a total of 2n different types of gametes, where n is the total number of heterozygous genes. Because the hybrid AaBbCc is heterozygous for three genes, it can produce a maximum of 23=8 gametes.

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Complete the following sentences about the functional importance of floral structure with the correct terms. symmetry whorls reduction
pollinators secondary metabolites fruits
carpels organs petals developmental primary metabolites chloroplasts pigments sensory
Some important traits that influence the reproductive success of a flower include: the presence or absence of whorls, the fusion of organs to one another, and the overall symmetry of flowers. These traits are important because of their influence on attracting _____ In addition to structure and shape, different ____ can produce different colors in _____which also attract animals.
Another cue, fragrance, is also an effective attractant which uses _____ to get the attention of pollinators. Because human ______ systems are similar to other animals, we are also often attracted to particular flowers.

Answers

Some important traits that influence the reproductive success of a flower include: the presence or absence of petals, the fusion of carpels to one another, and the overall symmetry of flowers.

What is trait?

A phenotypic trait is an evident, observable, and quantifiable property of an organism; it is the visible expression of genes. A phenotypic characteristic is anything like a particular hair color or eye color. A trait is a genetically determined attribute or condition. It is the trait inherited from the parent by the offspring.

Here,

These traits are important because of their influence on attracting pollinators. In addition to structure and shape, different pigments can produce different colors in petals which also attract animals. Another cue, fragrance, is also an effective attractant which uses secondary metabolites to get the attention of pollinators. Because human sensory systems are similar to other animals, we are also often attracted to particular flowers.

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protein synthesis involves an anticodon, a base triplet, and a codon. these are parts of the , , and molecules, respectively.

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Protein synthesis involves an anticodon, base triplet, and codon. These are parts of tRNA, DNA, mRNA and molecules, respectively.

What is meant by anticodon and codon?

Codon is a three-nucleotide or triplet sequence found on mRNA that codes for certain amino acid during translation. Anticodon is a three-nucleotide sequence found on tRNA that binds to corresponding mRNA sequence and amino acid transported by tRNA molecule is determined by anticodon sequence.

Anticodon is a trinucleotide sequence located at one end of a transfer tRNA molecule, which is complementary to corresponding codon in mRNA sequence.

Codons are present on mRNA or DNA and are sequences of three nucleotides that code for specific amino acid.

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ASAP pls I need this quick)

During the 1950's, several scientists were responsible for discovering the structure of DNA. One scientist, Erwin Chargaff, found that in DNA, the ratios of adenine (A) to thymine (T) and guanine (G) to cytosine (C) are always equal. Select the answer choice that was NOT indicated by Chargaff's discovery about the structure of DNA and its impact on replication.
Responses


A If we read the sequence of nucleotides on one strand of DNA, we can identify the complementary sequence on the other strand.If we read the sequence of nucleotides on one strand of DNA, we can identify the complementary sequence on the other strand.


B Adenine pairs with thymine; guanine with cytosine.Adenine pairs with thymine; guanine with cytosine.


C The base pairing facilitates DNA replication and RNA transcription.The base pairing facilitates DNA replication and RNA transcription.


D When pairing nucleotides, you must pair purines with purines and pyrimidines with pyrimidines.

Answers

When pairing nucleotides, you must pair purines with purines and pyrimidines with pyrimidines.

How does the DNA replicate?

DNA replication is the process by which a cell makes a copy of its DNA. It occurs before cell division to ensure that each daughter cell has an exact copy of the genetic material. The process of DNA replication involves the following steps:

Initiation: The replication process is initiated by the unwinding of the double helix structure of the DNA molecule.

Primer synthesis: A small RNA primer is synthesized by the enzyme primase, which provides a starting point for DNA synthesis.

Synthesis of new strands: The DNA polymerase enzyme adds nucleotides to the 3' end of the RNA primer, leading to the synthesis of new complementary strands of DNA.

Elongation: The DNA polymerase continues to add nucleotides to the new complementary strands, leading to their elongation.

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suppose you have a black male rabbit and a black female rabbit each has a dominant gene f for the black fur but the female also has a recessive gene f for white fur what are the chances for white Offspring when these two rabbits mate ​

Answers

If we have a black male rabbit and a black female rabbit each has a dominant gene f for the black fur but the female also has a recessive gene f for white fur then the chances for white offspring when these two rabbits mate ​ is 25 percent.

What is the chance of obtaining recessive offspring from a heterozygous cross?

The chance of obtaining recessive offspring from a heterozygous cross is 25 percent or 1/4 because it depends on the generation of two recessive gametes.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the likelihood of recessive offspring from a heterozygous cross is 25 percent.

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Which of the following double stranded DNA molecules would maintain its double helical structure longer as temperature increases?A. A DNA molecule that has more guanine and cytosine nucleotidesB. Both DNA molecules would be equally stable under conditions of increasing temperatureC. A DNA molecule that has more adenine and thymine nucleotides

Answers

A. A DNA molecule that has more guanine and cytosine nucleotides of the following double stranded DNA molecules would maintain its double helical structure longer as temperature increases

Which DNA double helix bonds are the strongest?

A-T base pairings contain two hydrogen bonds, compared to three for G-C base pairs. As a result, double-stranded DNA with more G-C base pairs will be stronger and more stable, and it will also have a higher melting point.

Van der Waals forces, hydrogen bonds between complementary organic bases (a base pair), and hydrophobic interactions between the nitrogenous bases and the surrounding water sheath all support the shape of the DNA helix.

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DNA and RNA are structurally similar in some ways, but different in others. Identify whether each of the following statements applies to DNA, RNA, both or neither.Please do not give me the answers from other Chegg's question because my question is different from them

Answers

DNA and RNA are structurally similar in some ways, but different in others the answers are 1. both, 2. RNA, 3. DNA, 4. neither, 5. RNA, 6. both, 7. DNA, 8. neither.

1. both

Nitrogen bases with the primary structural components purine and pyrimidine are found in DNA and RNA.Adenine, Thymine, Cytosine, and Guanine are the four nitrogen bases found in DNA.RNA has four nitrogen bases as well. Uracil is present in RNA in place of thymine.Purine bases include adenine (A) and guanine (G). Pyrimidine bases include cytosine (C), thymine (T), and uracil (U).

2. RNA

RNA has four nitrogen bases as well. Uracil is present in RNA in place of thymine.

3. DNA

DNA (Deoxyribonucleic Acid), as its name implies, comprises the sugar deoxyribose.

neither 4.

The percentages of thymine and guanine are not equal in DNA or RNA.

5. RNA

RNA (ribonucleic acid), as its name implies, comprises the sugar ribose.

6. both

The nucleotides are joined to sugar in a beta-N-glycosidic bond in both DNA and RNA.

7. DNA

There are an equal number of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides in DNA.

neither 8.

Sugars are linked together in DNA or RNA by 3'–5'phosphodiester links .

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Describe the change in the percentage of light colored moths and dark colored moths between 1850 and 1900. Please also explain the percentage change between 1950 and 2000.

Answers

Answer: Here you go!

According to Hardy-Weinberg principal, if p and q are unchanging, the population is in equilibrium. Which of the following is NOT a requirement for the population to maintain this equilibrium?

Question 16 options:

the population must not have any natural selection


there must not be any mutations in the gene pool


the population must be small


the population must have random mating

Answers

Explanation:

The population must not have any natural selection is NOT a requirement for the population to maintain equilibrium according to Hardy-Weinberg principal. The Hardy-Weinberg principal states that a population will remain in genetic equilibrium as long as certain conditions are met, which include no mutations, random mating, a large population size, and no gene flow. Natural selection is not one of the conditions for the population to remain in equilibrium according to Hardy-Weinberg principle.

Determine whether the statement is true or false, and why. "It is impossible for any two people to have the same genetic fingerprint."
A. False, it should read "While it is not impossible for two people to have the same genetic fingerprint, it is very unlikely."
B. False, it should read "It is impossible for two people to have the same genetic fingerprint, but it is not difficult for someone to make a fake one."
C. True
D. False, it should read "It is possible for two people to have the same genetic fingerprint, it occurs frequently, and there must be other evidence in order to convict someone."

Answers

False; it should say "There must be other information in favor to convict anyone." It is conceivable for two persons to have the same findings support the hypothesis, and it happens frequently.

What three sorts of fingerprints are there?

However every fingerprint is unique, they always fall into one of three main categories: its whorl, which resembles a whirlpool, loop loop, which resembles a teardrop, and the arch, which resembles a pass of a hill.

Explain what a fingerprint is?

The sinusoidal grooves on the tips of the hands and toes leave a fingerprint impression. Since each person's finger has a different pattern of ridges that does not change with age or growing, fingerprints provide an unfailing method of identity documents.

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Draw an illustration that supports some part of the cell theory

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According to the cell theory, cells are the basic units of life, and structural and physiological unit of living beings. All living beings are made up of cells. The image can show an individual composed of tissues, and those tissues composed of cells, which are the basic units of life.

What is the cell theory?

The cell theory was first proposed by Schwann and Schleiden around 1830. After a few years, Virchow rejected that cells were originated from spontaneous generation and proposed they were the product of other pre-existing cells and originated by cellular division.

Currently, the cell theory states that

All living organisms are made up of cells.The cell is the structural and physiological unit of living beings.Cells are the basic units of reproduction, they originate from the division of pre-existing cells.The cell is the most basic independent unit of life.

And the modern version of the theory adds a few more aspects,

Energy flows within cells.Cells transmit genetic material during cell division to daughter cellsThe chemical composition is basically the same in all cells.

Your illustration can show the image of an individual (a person, for instance) composed of tissues, and those tissues made up of different cells (structural and physiological units).

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Teach a child

How would you explain the following to a child?
1) Neurons
2) Peripheral Nervous System
3) Central Nervous System
4) Endocrine System

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

Neurons:

Neurons are special cells in our body that help us to think, feel, and move. They are like tiny messengers that send signals to our brain to tell us what is happening in our body or around us. They are very important for us to learn new things, remember old things, and feel emotions.

Peripheral Nervous System:

The peripheral nervous system is like a big network of roads that connect different parts of our body to our brain and spinal cord. It is made up of nerves that carry messages back and forth between the brain and the rest of the body. It helps us to sense things like touch, pain, temperature, and pressure.

Central Nervous System:

The central nervous system is like the control center of our body. It includes our brain and spinal cord, which are the main parts of our nervous system. Our brain helps us to think, learn, and feel emotions, and our spinal cord helps us to move and feel sensations. Together, they work to help us control our body and respond to the world around us.

Endocrine System:

The endocrine system is like a group of messengers that help our body to communicate and work properly. It is made up of different glands in our body, such as the thyroid gland, adrenal gland, and pancreas, which produce hormones. Hormones are like special chemicals that travel through our blood to different parts of our body and help to control things like growth, metabolism, and reproduction. They work with our nervous system to help our body stay healthy and balanced.

In which of the following types of endocrine signaling is the hormone transported in the blood? Select all that apply. Paracrine signaling Autocrine signaling Classical endocrine signaling

Answers

Classical endocrine signaling is responsible for endocrine signaling is the hormone transported in the blood

In classical endocrine signaling, the hormone is transported in the blood.

Classical endocrine signaling involves the release of hormones from endocrine glands into the bloodstream, which then carries the hormone to target cells in other parts of the body. Hormones bind to specific receptors on the target cells and trigger a response.

In contrast, paracrine signaling involves the release of signaling molecules that act on nearby cells. These signaling molecules diffuse through the extracellular fluid and bind to receptors on nearby cells, but they do not enter the bloodstream.

Autocrine signaling is similar to paracrine signaling, but the signaling molecule acts on the same cell that produced it. Autocrine signaling molecules are released into the extracellular fluid and bind to receptors on the same cell.

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Which of the following statements about Ulva's haploid stage is true? A) Haploid cells produce gametes by meiosis. B) Haploid cells are produced by meiosis of diploid cells. C) Gametes of the same mating type fuse to produce a diploid zygote.
D) The haploid Ulva cells are genetically identical to their diploid parents.

Answers

The correct option  b) Haploid cells are produced by meiosis of diploid cells.

Ulva alternates between a haploid gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte, two morphologically comparable multicellular adult stages. Haploid zoospores are produced by diploid sporophytes and become gametophytes. Gametophytes that generate haploid gametes are called

What is the haploid process?

DNA replication occurs once in the parent cell, and then there are two independent cycles of nuclear division. Four haploid daughter cells are produced as a result of the procedure, meaning they each have half as many chromosomes as their diploid parent cell.

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Which of the following statements regarding Darwin's theory of adaptation by natural selection are accurate?
A. advantageous traits are passed from parents to offspring
B. organisms must compete for resources with other members of their population
C. populations are made up of individuals that are exactly alike
D. all environments have an infinite ability to support increasing populations
E. if it can survive in a given environment, an organism is evolutionarily successful

Answers

The correct statements regarding Darwin's theory of adaptation by natural selection are:

A. advantageous traits are passed from parents to offspring

B. organisms must compete for resources with other members of their population

E. if it can survive in a given environment, an organism is evolutionarily successful.

A. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection states that beneficial traits that help an organism survive and reproduce are more likely to be passed on to future generations. This process, known as natural selection, leads to the evolution of species over time.

B. Competition for resources is a key aspect of Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection. Organisms must compete for limited resources such as food, water, and mates with other members of their population. Those that are best adapted to the environment and can most effectively compete for resources are more likely to survive and pass on their traits to future generations.

E. Evolutionary success in Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection is determined by an organism's ability to survive and reproduce in its environment. If an organism is able to survive and pass on its traits to offspring, it is considered evolutionarily successful, even if it is not the most fit organism in its environment.

C. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection does not state that populations are made up of individuals that are exactly alike. In fact, genetic variation within a population is an important factor in evolution by natural selection, as it provides the raw material for natural selection to act upon.

D. Darwin's theory of evolution by natural selection does not state that all environments have an infinite ability to support increasing populations. In fact, populations are limited by their environments, and those that grow beyond the carrying capacity of the environment will experience increased competition for resources and a decrease in population size.

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You have screened for several new recessive mutations in a species of wasp.
Wasps homozygous for apricot (aa) have pale orange eyes. (Wild-type eyes are brown.)
Wasps homozygous for blunt (bb) have short wings. (Wild-type wings are long.)
You make a pure-breeding double-mutant (apricot, blunt) line and cross it with wild-type wasps. The F1 is wild-type in appearance.
You testcross the F1 dihybrids with the double-mutant line (the "tester" genotype) and obtain four phenotypes in the testcross progeny:wild typeapricot, bluntapricotblunt
Determine the following for each phenotype in the testcross progeny:
the haploid genotype of the gamete it received from the F1 dihybrid
its full diploid genotype
whether the gamete it received from the F1 dihybrid was recombinant (REC) or nonrecombinant (nonREC).

Answers

Phenotype of wild type, Octopus phenotype, Appropriate examples of a blunt phenotypic include. Recessive mutations are gene changes that only manifest as a phenotype in individuals who are homozygous.

Genetic changes known as recessive mutations only manifest as phenotypes in individuals who carry two copies of the mutant allele. This contrasts with dominant mutations, which result in a phenotype even when the mutant allele is present in a single copy. Only when both parents have the mutant gene may a recessive mutation be transferred from parent to offspring. There is a 25% possibility that a child born to two carriers of a recessive mutation will carry two copies of the mutant allele and manifest the corresponding trait. Genetic illnesses including cystic fibrosis, sickle cell anaemia, and other conditions can result from recessive mutations, which are significant for genetic study and have practical implications for human health and medicine.

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Which of the following is a characteristic that distinguishes viruses from bacteria cells?

Answers

One of the main characteristics that distinguishes viruses from bacterial cells is their size, viruses are smaller than bacteria, the largest being smaller than the tiniest. The correct answer A.

Additionally, viruses are not capable of cellular respiration and are not considered to be living organisms, whereas bacteria cells are alive and can reproduce on their own.

Viruses are composed of a single molecule of genetic material, either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a protein coat. They contain no cellular structures and are parasitic in nature, meaning that they rely on other cells for their replication.

Which of the following characteristics distinguishes viruses from bacterial cells?

A)Viruses are smaller than bacteria, with the largest being smaller than the tiniest.

B)They have only a protein coat and a nucleus of genetic material, either RNA or DNA.

C)Viruses, unlike bacteria, cannot survive without a host.

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Consider a sound wave produced by a tuning fork. Through which materials would the sound travel the fastest? Order the materials shown according to the speed at which a sound wave would travel through them, from slowest to fastest.

(Hot air, cold air, glass, the ocean)

Slowest sound travel material:___
Slower sound travel material:___
Faster sound travel material:___
Fastest sound travel material:___

Answers

1. Cold air

2. Hot air

3. Ocean 

4. Glass

enzymes in pancreas..​

Answers

Answer:

pancreatic enzymes.....

use the information you learned from the dna microarray to write an argument to convince smokers to stop smoking. be sure to reference any differences you saw in gene expression in smokers and nonsmokers studied in the experiment

Answers

Smoking is a dangerous habit that can lead to serious health problems The results of DNA microarray experiments that have been conducted to study the differences in gene expression between smokers and non-smokers.

The results of these experiments clearly show that smoking has a significant impact on gene expression, leading to numerous changes in the body that can increase the risk of disease.

In the experiments, researchers found that there were hundreds of genes that were differentially expressed in smokers compared to non-smokers. This suggests that smoking causes widespread changes in the body at the molecular level, affecting not only the lungs but also other organs and systems. The results also showed that many of the genes affected by smoking play a role in processes such as inflammation, oxidative stress, and cell death, which can increase the risk of diseases such as cancer, heart disease, and lung disease.

In addition to these health risks, the results of the DNA microarray experiments also demonstrate the long-term effects of smoking on gene expression. Even after quitting smoking,

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In 2020, the black bear population in NJ was estimated to be 5,000 bears with about 3/5ths of those living in the northwest counties. On average, NJ black bears have a maximum life span of 10 years and female bears have 3 cubs per year with a 70% survival rate. In 2020, the Governor went against the guidance from the NJ Department of Environment Protection and stopped regulated bear hunting on public lands and in 2021 he cancelled all hunting of black bear in NJ. How would you expect the black bear population to respond to a total hunting ban?

Answers

Given that the black bear population in NJ was estimated to be 5,000 in 2020, a hunting ban could lead to an increase in the black bear population.

Why banning hunting is important?

Without regulated hunting, the population may continue to grow, as there are fewer deaths due to hunting and an increase in the number of cubs surviving to adulthood. On average, female bears have 3 cubs per year with a 70% survival rate, so the number of bears could increase by 2.1 cubs per female per year.

However, there are limits to the black bear population growth, such as food availability and habitat loss. If the habitat can't support a larger population, the population growth may slow or the bears may start to move into areas with more resources, potentially leading to conflicts with humans.

Additionally, disease outbreaks can also impact the black bear population, regardless of hunting pressure.

In conclusion, while a hunting ban could lead to an increase in the black bear population, it is important to consider all the other factors that can impact the population to make accurate predictions.

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How does natural selection impact competition?

Answers

Answer:

it decreases competition

Explanation:

for example, if there are too types of lizards in an area both competing for the same bugs but one breed of lizard can be more easily seen by predators, then those lizards are gonna get eaten, leaving the other lizard breed less competition for food

true/false. contrast hydrogen bonds, electrostatic attractions, van der waal's attractions, and the hydrophobic force in terms of how and when they form and the role they play in cell biology.

Answers

False. Hydrogen bonds form between a positively charged hydrogen atom and a negatively charged atom of nitrogen, oxygen, or fluorine, and play a role in maintaining the three-dimensional structure of biomolecules such as DNA and proteins .

Electrostatic attractions form between positive and negative ions, and play a role in maintaining the stability of ionic bonds in salts and other charged molecules.

Van der Waals attractions form between non-polar molecules as a result of temporary fluctuations in electron distribution, and play a role in the interaction between lipids and other biological molecules.

The hydrophobic force forms between non-polar molecules in an aqueous environment, causing them to group together and exclude water. This plays a role in the formation of cellular membranes and the partitioning of lipids and other hydrophobic molecules in cells.

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Despite the diversity, cells resemble each other to an astonishing degree in their chemistry. For example, the same 20 ________ __________ are used to make proteins.

Answers

Despite the diversity, cells resemble each other to an astonishing degree in their chemistry. For example, the same 20 amino acids are used to make proteins.

What is a cell?

A cell is the basic unit of life. It is the smallest unit of an organism that can perform all the basic functions necessary for life. All living organisms are made up of one or more cells, and the study of cells is called cell biology. Cells come in a variety of shapes and sizes, but all cells have several key features in common, including a plasma membrane that encloses the cell, genetic material in the form of DNA, and the ability to produce energy and carry out metabolic processes. Some cells are simple and single-celled, while others are complex and made up of many specialized cells that work together as tissues and organs to perform specific functions.

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Which of the following is an example of demonstrative evidence?

Gun
Fingerprint
Handwritten note
Model of crime scene

Answers

Answer: Model of crime scene

Explanation:

Table 1 shows the stage and number of cells and chromosomes per cell at the end of the stage in a 2n=24 organism.Table 1. Cell and chromosome count during selected phases of meiosisStage: Number of Cells: Number of Chromosomes per Cell:Prophase I 1 24Metaphase I 1 24Anaphase I 1 24Telophase I 1 24Beginning of Prophase II 2 12Which of the following statements correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I?A) Each daughter cell contains 12 chromatids. Each chromatid is one of two from a single chromosome with the other one of the pair found in the other daughter cell.B) Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Since the chromosomes were randomly divided, one daughter cell may contain both of a pair of homologous chromosomes, while the other cell contains both of another pair of homologous chromosomes.C) Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the other daughter cell.D) Each daughter cell contains 24 separate chromatids. Since every two chromatids were originally joined, forming one homologous chromosome, the number of chromatids is divided by two to determine the number of chromosomes.

Answers

The following statement correctly describes the chromosomes in each daughter cell at the end of meiosis I: Each daughter cell contains 12 chromosomes, each composed of two chromatids. Each chromosome is one of a pair of homologous chromosomes from the parent cell, with the other homologue found in the other daughter cell.

Thus, the correct option is C.

Meiosis I is а type of cell division in which diploid pаrent cell give rise to four hаploid dаughter cells. The meiotic division is а chаrаcteristic of germ cells. Some of the chаrаcteristics of meiosis I аre:

The pаrent cell divides twice to give rise to four hаploid dаughter cells.The number of chromosomes in dаughter cells аre hаlf of the pаrent cell.  Meiotic division tаkes plаce in reproductive cells.

The dаughter cells consist of 12 chromosomes thаt аre composed of two chromаtids. The chromosome in the dаughter cell is а pаir of homologous chromosome from the pаrent cell. the other homologue is found in the other dаughter cell.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.

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Which molecule is the monomer used to build polypeptides or protein polymers? Draw this molecule and label all five parts.

Answers

The monomer used to build polypeptides/proteins are amino acids.


In the amino acid diagram photo, the molecules are:

Left: NH2 = Amino group
Up: Hydrogen atom
Bottom: R variable group
Right = Carboxyl group
Middle = Central carbon atom

What is metabolism?

the chemical reactions that take place in living organisms to provide energy and sustain growth

the chemical processes that take place in living organisms to break down food into glucose

the physical processes that take place in living organisms to burn glucose to power the motion of muscles

the physical processes that take place in living organisms to take in oxygen and bring it to cells

Answers

Answer:

The physical processes that take place in the living organisms to take in oxygen and bring it to the cell.

Dopamine receptors are
A. G-protein coupled receptors that only activate adenylyl cyclase
B. G-protein coupled receptors that can either activate or inhibit adenylyl cyclase
C. Ionotropic receptors that are excitatory
D. G-protein coupled receptors that only inhibit adenylyl cyclase

Answers

Dopamine receptors basically G-protein couples receptors which are able to activate or even inhibit adenylyl cyclase.

The correct option is option B.

G-protein-coupled receptors or GPCRs are basically the largest as well as the most diverse group of membrane receptors which are found in eukaryotes. GPCRs happen to interact with the G proteins that are present in the plasma membrane. Whenever an external signaling molecule happens to bind to a GPCR, it leads to a conformational change in GPCR which consequently triggers the interaction between the GPCR and a G protein present nearby.

The common target of these activated G proteins is adenylyl cyclase which is basically a membrane-associated enzyme which when activated catalyzes synthesis of cAMP. Dopamine receptors are also G-protein couples receptors which are able to activate or even inhibit adenylyl cyclase.

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TRUE/FALSE. oral cavity breaks up food particles and starts enzymatic break down of sugars, proteins but not fatty acids.

Answers

False. The oral cavity does break up food particles, but it does not start the enzymatic breakdown of sugars, proteins, or fatty acids. This process is initiated by the digestive enzymes released in the stomach and small intestine.

What is enzymes?

Enzymes are proteins that act as catalysts in biochemical reactions. They speed up chemical reactions in the body, and are essential for life. Enzymes are involved in virtually every metabolic process, and are also involved in digestion, energy production, and the synthesis of new molecules. Enzymes are highly specific, meaning that they only work with certain molecules. Different enzymes have different functions and can be found in a variety of tissues, organs, and metabolic pathways. Enzymes typically require a specific pH and temperature range to work optimally, and can be affected by factors such as diet, medications, and even stress. Without enzymes, most biochemical processes would take too long to occur, making life impossible.

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Hi guys please explain this question thank you so much If 80% of a number is 560, what will be 70% of that number? AabbcccI have to rewrite that using exponents when an agreement fails to qualify as an enforceable contract, but one of the parties breaches the agreement, the non-breaching party: A.has no remedy. B.may sue for unjust enrichment. C.may sue for reformation. Why is it important to consider these additional processes when planning for web-based reading comprehension according to the nrp algorithm, what are the indicators for ppv? -heart rate less than 100 bpm -cyanosis -tachycardia -apnea -gasping Religiously active people have _______ socially supportive relationships and ________ lifestyles than those who are not religiously active. A) fewer; less healthy B) fewer; healthier C) more; less healthyD) more; healthier write the number 2 equivalent from as a fraction decimal or percent. 0.75 what is the equivalent fraction? which revision fixes the dangling modifier in this sentence? while reading a new mystery book, my dog curled up in my lap and slept. the difference in value between a country's imports and exports is called its balance of trade. true false which process in the hydrologic cycle occurs first when starting with ocean water and ending with rain? question 1 options: condensation infiltration evaporation precipitation During the process of monitoring progress, which question below could be answered by the project schedule?a. Do the deliverables meet the established quality and performance expectations?b. Are we on target to meet the project deadline?c. Are the project requirements being followed?d. Has the project encountered any Which of the following is an impermissible question for job applications and interviews?a. Do you have any disabilities?b. Have you ever been Convicted for a crime?c. What was your major in college?d. What is your full name?e. Can you meet the requirements of the ideas based on selling existing products or services in a new context are called: a. new technology ideas. b. new market ideas. c. new benefit ideas. d. startup ideas. Ty has a 50% chance of answering a trivia question correctly. He wants to know the probability that he will answer 3 of 4 trivia questions correctly. He flips a coin to conduct the simulation shown below.HHTH HHIT THHT HHHH THTTHHT THHT HITH THIT HHHHTHTT THTT HTHT HHTT THTTTTHT HHTH THHT HHIT THTHH represents a correct answer, and Trepresents an incorrect answer. Based on this simulation, what is the probability that he answers at least 3 trivia questions correctly? Which amendment does scenario 4 involve and is it being violated or not? the ghost of christmas present brings scrooge to visit the cratchit home. write a paragraph (3-5 sentences) in which you explain why the ghost takes him there and how the visit changes him. A mapping diagram represents a relationship that contains three different input values and four different output values. Is the relationship a function 5i + 4 = 14 + 4i thanks yall online storage and backup, involves multiple virtual servers that are usually hosted by third parties is called ?