Why is the base of the parallelogram 1/2 the circumference of the circle?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

total meal cost = meal cost + tax cost + tip cost

[tex]\frac{8}{100} *54.65 = cost of sales tax\\\frac{18}{100} * 54.65 = tip cost\\cost of sales tax = .08 * 54.65 = 4.372\\tip cost = .18 * 54.65 = 9.837\\\\total cost = 54.65 + 4.372 + 9.837 = 68.859\\\\since we have 5 members\\\\individual cost = total cost / 5\\=68.859/5\\=13.7718[/tex]

The answer is 10.93

Step by step explanation

Answer:

They will finish packing boxes at the same time after 91 minutes.

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question,

Kaitlin takes 13 minutes to pack a box while Ambrose takes 7 minutes to pack a box. That is,

Kaitlin will finish packing a box after every 13 minutes and Ambrose will finish packing a box after every 7 minutes.

To determine when they will finish packing boxes at the same time, we will list the times they will finish packing boxes

For Kaitlin, she will finish packing box(es) at the following times:

13th minute, 26th minute, 39th minute, 52nd minute, 65th minute, 78th minute, 91st minute, 104th minute etc.

For Ambrose, he will finish packing box(es) at the following times:

7th minute, 14th minute, 21st minute, 28th minute, 35th minute, 42nd minute, 49th minute, 56th minute, 63rd minute, 70th minute, 77th minute, 84th minute, 91st minute, 98th minute, 105th minute etc.

From above, we can observe that, Ambrose and Kaitlin will finish packing boxes at the 91st minute.

Hence, They will finish packing boxes at the same time after 91 minutes.

Answer:B.the height of the candle when it starts to burn

Step-by-step explanation:

The y - intercept is 8. It represents the height of the candle when it starts to burn.

The general equation of a straight line is -

[y] = [m]x + [c]

where -

[m] → is slope of line which tells the unit rate of change of [y] with respect to [x].

[c] → is the y - intercept i.e. the point where the graph cuts the [y] axis.

We have the height (in inches) of a candle, h(t), is modeled by the function h(t) = 8 - t, where t is the amount of time the candle has been burning.

We have -

h(t) = - t + 8

h(t) = - t + 8

Here, the y - intercept is 8. It represents the height of the candle when it starts to burn.

Therefore, the y - intercept is 8. It represents the height of the candle when it starts to burn.

To solve more questions on straight lines, visit the link below-

brainly.com/question/20400984

#SPJ5

Answer:

i kinda see its test or not?

Step-by-step explanation:

you have to divided it.

Answer:

-6/5

Step-by-step explanation:

The first thing that you will do is to remove the absolute value bars. So, it will look like this: 10+7+5x=11

Then, you will combine like terms. So, this is how it will look: 17+5x=11

Next, you will subtract 17 from both sides since it is a positive number, (use the subtraction property of equality) and it will look like: 17-17+5x=11-17

Then you get: 5x=-6

So, from there, you must divide. (use the division property of equality) 5x/5=-6/5

So, your answer is -6/5

Answer: 3362

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on the question, the cost price for the shares will be:

= (850 × 45.20) + 1.5%(850 × 45.20)

= 38420 + 0.015(38420)

= 38420 + 576.3

= 38996.

Selling price will be:

= (850 × 41.9) + 19

= 35615 + 19

= 35634

Net capital loss = 38996 - 35634

= 3362

Answer:

3x and 9x

Step-by-step explanation:

They both are with the variable x

Answer:

-29

Step-by-step explanation:

first do the f function which gets you g(-21)

then do the g function

Answer:

[tex]\frac{n}{6}[/tex] - 1

Step-by-step explanation:

whenever the word than is there (less than, greater than) you have to switch the order so it the words 1 was first or in the beginning of the sentence but since the words less than are there, 1 goes toward the end or after the quotient of a number n and 6.

Answer:

22

Step-by-step explanation:

66 ÷3=22

3= one third

Answer:

Total reduction after 2 years = [tex]16,200[/tex] rupees

Step-by-step explanation:

Current price of a machine [tex](P_0)[/tex] = 45,000 rupees

Rate of depreciation (r) = 20%

Time (t) = 2 years

Price after 2 years = [tex]P_0(1-\frac{r}{100} )^t[/tex]

[tex]=45000(1-\frac{20}{100})^2 \\=45000(1-\frac{1}{5})^2\\ =45000(\frac{4}{5})^2\\ =45000(\frac{16}{25})[/tex]

[tex]=28800\,\,[/tex] rupees

Total reduction after 2 years = [tex]P-P_0=45,000-28,800=16,200[/tex] rupees

Answer:

a

   [tex]P(X <  24 )=  21.186\%  [/tex]  

b

    [tex]x =  19.78 \  months[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that

 The mean is   [tex]\mu  =  26 \  months[/tex]

 The standard deviation is  [tex]\sigma  =  4 \  months[/tex]

 Generally 2 year is  equal to  24 months

Generally the percentage of total production will the company expect to replace is mathematically represented as

      [tex]P(X <  24 )=  P(\frac{X - \mu }{ \sigma} <  \frac{24 - 26}{4}  )[/tex]

Generally  [tex]\frac{X - \mu}{\sigma } =Z (The  \ standardized \  value  \  of  \  X )[/tex]

     [tex]P(X <  24 )=  P(Z <  -0.8  )[/tex]

Generally from the z-table  

       [tex]P(Z <  -0.8) =  0.21186[/tex]

So

       [tex]P(X <  24 )=  0.21186[/tex]

Converting to percentage

      [tex]P(X <  24 )=  0.21186  * 100[/tex]

=>    [tex]P(X <  24 )=  21.186\%  [/tex]  

Generally the duration that should be the guarantee period if  Accrotime does not want to make refunds on more than 6% is mathematically evaluated as

    [tex]P(X <  x) =  P(\frac{X - \mu }{\sigma}  < \frac{x - 26}{4} )= 0.06[/tex]

=> [tex]P(X <  x) =  P(Z < \frac{x - 26}{4} )= 0.06[/tex]

From the normal distribution table the z-score for  0.06 at the lower tail  is

       [tex]z = -1.555[/tex]

So

    [tex]\frac{x - 26}{4} = -1.555[/tex]

=> [tex]x =  19.78 \  months[/tex]  

Answer:

$12.84

Step-by-step explanation:

Start by dividing 12 by 100 to get 0.12 to get 1% of the price of the ant farm.

Then multiply 0.12 by 107 to get the price + tax.

You'll end up with 12.84.

Then just add your units to get $12.84.

Usually dilations have a center of dilation at the origin (0,0). When this occurs all we need to do is multiply each coordinate by the dilation scale. Unfortunately things get a little more complicated when the center of dilation is not at the origin.

In this case the center of dilation is located at F: (3,1)

The first step we must take is to find how many units point F is from vertex A.

In this case, F is 4 unit up and 8 units right of vertex A. (Reference the first image below to see how I found this)

Now we must multiply these dimensions (4 units and 8 units) by the factor of dilation (0.25)

4 * 0.25 = 1

8 * 0.25 = 2

This shows us how many dimensions away point [tex]A^{1}[/tex] is from point F:

1 unit vertically

2 units horizontally

Now how do we know if [tex]A^{1}[/tex] is above or below, left or right from point F? Easy! There has been no translations so the directions will be the same as the original:

Point F: (3, 1) ---> (3-2, 1-1) ---> (1, 0)

Reference the second image to see this

Hopefully this helps and makes sense. Let me know if you need further explanation or clarification.

~Just a girl in love with Shawn Mendes

Answer:

D 1,0

Step-by-step explanation:

credit to the one up above

Answer:

x=-2

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

.....

....,..,.....

Answer:

3.33 m/s

Step-by-step explanation:

speed = [tex]\frac{meters}{seconds} > \frac{20}{6} = 3.33[/tex]

Answer:

The answer is A because the answer to the equation is x^{2}= -6 and the 7 is negative

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps :)

Answer:

they are better because they are cheeper than the other

Answer:

you have to get 15 right so for 60% or above so you can miss 9

Step-by-step explanation:

60% of 24 is 14.4 round it up because if down its below 60% and no longer passing but it rounds to 15

Answer: 7

Step-by-step explanation:

Because if 6 is 75% we can conclude 7 is 71%

Answer:

45°

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok, so, there is one thing I need to point out. 45° is the 'main' value if you assume 0°<A<180°. However, sin,  cos, and tan have different periods which means that there are infinite values of A where tanA = 1. The general notation that you could put is A = 45° + (n*180°) where n is just a number. For example, if n = 1, you would get an angle of 225°. If you plug tan225° into the calculator, you get 1. If you did radians, you could write A = [tex]\frac{\pi}{2} + n\pi[/tex]. But ignore that if you haven't. Basically, the answer would be 45° if you are assuming A is between 0° and 180°. Also, you could have just used your calculator and types inverse tan function ([tex]tan^{-1}[/tex]) and plug in 1 to find the primary answer of 45.

Answer:

function is a straight line, with a y-int of 1, passes VLT and HLT so it is 1:1

Step-by-step explanation:

f(x)= 2x+4

f(-2)= 2(-2)+4 = -4+4 = 0

f(-1)= 2(-1)+4 = -2+4 = 2

f(0)= 2(0)+4 = 0+4 = 4

f(1)= 2(1)+4 = 2+4 = 6

f(2)= 2(2)+4 = 4+4 = 8

idrk the features but i'll guess

Full question attached

Answer and explanation:

Since x = number of true or false questions correct

And y = number of multiple choice questions correct

And each question for x =2 points

each question for y=3 points

since she then needs a total score of more than 93 to pass, we add up total correct questions and

Inequality equation = 2x +3y >93