The heart rate is essential for survival and is the most important finding in Apgar rating. Respiratory examination is required with every newborn interaction since it is the top priority in newborn care.
The Silverman and Andersen index can determine the severity of respiratory distress.
The Apgar score of an infant is one of the earliest assessments. Infants are evaluated for heart and respiratory rates, muscular tone, reflexes, and color one minute and five minutes following birth. This assists in identifying newborns who are having difficulties breathing or have other issues that require more attention.
A complete newborn nursing exam should include weight, length, head circumference, and vital signs. The evaluation should begin with a generalization of the infant's appearance, including posture, movement, color, and respiration.
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The hormone insulin enhances the transport of glucose (sugar) from the blood into most of the body's cells. Its secretion is controlled by a negative-feedback system between the concentration of glucose in the blood and the insulin-secreting cells. Therefore, which of the following statements is correct?
A. A decrease in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn further lowers the blood glucose concentration.
B. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which in turn lowers the blood glucose concentration.
C. A decrease in blood glucose concentration inhibits insulin secretion, which in turn increases the blood glucose concentration.
D. An increase in blood glucose concentration stimulates insulin secretion, which further increases the blood glucose concentration.
E. None of the above
The correct answer is option (B). An increase in insulin production in response to a rise in blood glucose levels lowers blood glucose levels.
The hormone insulin, which is secreted by your pancreas, controls the amount of glucose in your bloodstream at any particular time. Additionally, it helps to store glucose in your liver, fat, and muscles. Finally, it regulates how your body metabolizes proteins, fats, and carbohydrates. Sound important? It turns out that without regular insulin function, your body cannot generate any fat or store glucose in your muscles or liver. Endocrinologist Irl Hirsh, MD, asserts that the fat truly disintegrates and produces keto acids among other things. Diabetic ketoacidosis, a potentially fatal condition, may develop if the concentrations of these acids increase excessively. When a typical person eats, their blood glucose levels rise, causing the pancreas to release insulin, allowing the sugar to be stored as energy for later use. Without that pancreatic competence, people with type 1 diabetes or severe type 2 diabetes may experience dangerously high blood sugar levels or dangerously low blood sugar levels.
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a client at 39 weeks' gestation calls the ob triage and questions the nurse concerning a bloody mucus discharge noted in the toilet after an ob office visit several hours earlier. what is the best response from the triage nurse?
The best response from the triage nurse in the case above is telling the client that a one-time discharge of bloody mucus in the toilet might have been her mucous plug.
A mucous plug is a thick mucus that blocks the opening of the cervix during pregnancy. It's formed by the accumulation of mucus in the cervix. This plug functions as a seal that prevents bacteria and infection from getting into the uterus and reaching the baby.
During pregnancy, the mucus plug usually looks cloudy, thick, and sticky; but it may also look clear. Towards the end of the pregnancy, some blood is released into the cervix which makes the plug become more bloody.
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which of the following statements about obstetrics in the 18th century is true? medical students learned about assisting a birth by helping with 25
In many medication schools, it was seen as inappropriate in all situations for a man to view a woman's genitalia.
How does this medical aid function? What is it?The costs of hospitalization, treatments, and medication are all covered by medical aid for members. Depending on the medical scheme's regulations and the player's medical aid plan type, certain expenses are reimbursed. These regulations make guarantee that members are treated equitably.
By medicine, what do you mean?Medicine refers to the science and practice of diagnosing, treating, and preventing diseases and illnesses using drugs, procedures, and other interventions. It includes a wide range of health practices, including the use of drugs, surgeries, treatments and other medical procedures to improve or maintain the health of individuals and groups.
Medical practice is performed by a variety of health care professionals, including doctors, nurses, pharmacists, and other specialized health care professionals, working together to provide the best possible care for patients. Medicines are sometimes prescribed by health care professionals to treat a variety of conditions, including infections, chronic illnesses, mental illnesses, and many other health problems.
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which emergency department client is most likely demonstrating clinical manifestations of acute stress? a client with:
emergency department client is most likely demonstrating clinical manifestations of acute stress: An acute heightened sense of alertness to surroundings and personnel
What is acute stress?An overwhelming traumatic incident can trigger a strong, unpleasant, and dysfunctional reaction that lasts for shorter than a month. This reaction is known as an acute stress disorder. Post-traumatic stress disorder is diagnosed when symptoms last for more than a month.
Acute stress has a short half-life, and the fight-or-flight response is the autonomic nervous system's reply. Acute stress is transient and one-time only. Arousal, alertness, vigilance, intellect, focused attention, and appropriate aggressiveness is all mediated by neuronal pathways that are made more active in the brain's center. A negative feedback mechanism regulates acute stress circumstances. Components of the system fail when chronic stress persists because they become overly active or exhausted. The other distractions could not be due to "acute stress," but rather to a medical issue.
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The complete question is as follows:
Which of the following emergency department clients is most likely demonstrating clinical manifestations of acute stress? A client with:
a) Muscle impairment and fatigue
b) Inattention to details of the accident with memory issues
c) Negative feedback overactivity resulting in mental instability
d) An acute heightened sense of alertness to surroundings and personnel
while performing shallow, rapid breathing during transition, a client in labor experiences tingling and numbness in her fingertips. the nurse encourages her to breathe into which device?
When a client was in labor, the nurse would advise them to breathe into a birthing or labor ball. An inflatable exercise ball known as a birthing or labor ball can be used by the woman to relieve discomfort and agony while she is giving birth.
The client can assist relieve tension and encourage relaxation by breathing gently and deeply into the ball. This may help to lessen the tingling and numbness in her fingertips.
Furthermore, the physical act of breathing into the ball can assist in helping the mother's concentration be diverted from the discomfort and discomfort, encouraging comfort and relaxation.
Birthing balls can be a useful aid for laboring women, providing them with both physical and psychological support to help them deal with the difficulties of childbirth.
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which finding would be of most concern when the nurse is assessing a client with pulmonary embolism diagnosis who is receiving intravenous heparin ?
The finding most concern when assessing a client with a pulmonary embolism diagnosis is sudden increase in the heart rate.
Pulmonary embolism is a serious medical condition that occurs when an roadway in the lung becomes blocked by a clot that has formed away in the body. This can be if a clot travels through the bloodstream and lodges in a pulmonary roadway. The most common cause of pulmonary embolism is a deep vein thrombosis,
which is a clot in a tone in the leg or arm. Symptoms of pulmonary embolism can include casket pain, difficulty breathing, rapid-fire heart rate, and coughing up blood. opinion of pulmonary embolism is made through medical imaging tests, similar as a CT checkup or pulmonary angiogram.
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to prevent a food borne illness such as listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should not eat the following: (select all the apply)
To prevent a food borne illness such as listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should not eat soft cheese therefore the correct option is A.
These foods can potentially contain Listeria monocytogenes, a bacteria that can beget severe illness in pregnant women and their future child. Soft cheese be defiled with Listeria during the aging process, unpasteurized milk and authorities can harbor the bacteria, and deli flesh and hot tykes can come defiled during processing.
Eating raw sprouts can expose you to Listeria, as can eating seafood that has not been cooked to a safe internal temperature. cooled smoked seafood is also unsafe, as it's frequently labeled as ready to eat, but can still contain Listeria. Pregnant women should also take redundant preventives when handling and preparing these foods.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
To prevent a food borne illness such as listeria monocytogenes, pregnant women should not eat the following: (select all the apply)
a. cheese
b. meat
c. egg
d. fish
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a client who came in through the emergency department with a severely fractured leg will be transported to surgery within the hour. when the client asks how long hospitalization will occur after surgery, what is the appropriate nursing response?
After a surgery for fracture leg The appropriate nursing response to the patient's question about how long hospitalisation will last after surgery is "Because you are having inpatient surgery, you will be at least 1 day after surgery."
After general anaesthesia for leg fracture surgery, it's best to have someone with you for at least the first 24 hours. You might still feel sleepy, and it might take some time for your reflexes and judgement to get back to normal. You won't be able to drive if you're taking opioids for pain until you stop taking them. Resting after surgery is essential for a quick recovery. Complications and infections are possible during any procedure involving anaesthesia or an incision. Around 5% of surgeries result in infections, and up to 33% of abdominal surgeries do as well.
Depending on the procedure, you might need to recover from surgery for two to three weeks or longer. Do not immediately resume your previous activities at your previous pace, even if you begin to feel better. For however long you need to rest easy, heed the advice of your medical team.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below-
A client who came in through the emergency department with a severely fractured leg will be transported to surgery within the hour. When the client asks how long hospitalization will occur after surgery, what is the appropriate nursing response?
a) "With the type of injury you have sustained, you will be in the hospital about 4 days."
b) "The anesthesiologist will be able to give you a better idea of how long you will be hospitalized."
c) "Outpatient surgery patients usually get to go home the same day."
d) "Because you are having inpatient surgery, you will be at least 1 day after surgery."
a client tells the nurse that her mother died of endometrial cancer 1 year ago and that she is afraid she will also develop this same cancer. which risk factor stated by the client after an education session on risk factors indicates that further teaching is needed?
The client may have stated the risk of Late-onset menarche which will indicate to the nurse that further teaching is needed for endometrial cancer.
When a client mentions late menarche as a uterine cancer risk factor, it means that the client still wants more knowledge on uterine cancer risk factors. Menarche that occurs sooner rather than later increases the risk of endometrial cancer. The only risk factors, however, are a high-fat diet, hypertension, and obesity. With early menarche than with later menarche, endometrial cancer risk increases. Only a high-fat diet, high blood pressure, and obesity are risk factors, though. Early menstrual cycles or periods that last through or after menopause have been associated with endometrial cancer. The start of puberty is referred to as menarche late on set. Late-onset menarche is a late stage of beginning puberty.
The complete question is:
A 23-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a Pap smear. After the examination, the client confides that her mother died of endometrial cancer 1 year ago and says that she is afraid that she will die of same cancer. Which risk factor stated by the client after an education session on risk factors indicates that further teaching is needed?
1. Obesity
2. High-fat diet
3. Hypertension
4. Late-onset menarche
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discuss the general guidelines for creating a low-back exercise program. describe three specific exercises that would be a part of such a program, and explain how they benefit back health.
Begin cautiously and build up to a higher level of intensity over time. Put an emphasis on back and core strengthening activities.
Basic Instructions for Designing a Low-Back Exercise Program:
Before and after your workout, make sure you warm up. Pay attention to your body's signals and halt if you feel any pain or discomfort.
Before starting any regimen, speak with a medical expert.
Planks are excellent core-strengthening workouts that support the lower back by strengthening the muscles in those areas.
Supermans: Supermans are excellent for boosting lower back muscle strength, which can ease stress and discomfort. Lift both the arms and the legs off the ground while maintaining a straight posture.
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friends of a patient hospitalized with asthma would like to bring the patient a gift. which gift would the nurse recommend for this patient
As a nurse, I would recommend the following gifts for a patient hospitalized with asthma A humidifier, breathing exercise device, soft and comfortable bedding or healthy snacks. It's always a good idea to ask the patient or their family if they have any specific requests or preferences.
What causes asthma?Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition that is caused by a combination of genetic and environmental factors. Some of the main causes of asthma include environmental triggers, respiratory infections, air pollution, Stress and obesity.
How can patient with asthma lead healthy life?By avoiding known triggers and working with a healthcare provider to manage the condition, individuals with asthma can often lead healthy and active lives.
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after researching the impact of patient outcomes and nursing ratios, what conclusion did you come to?
A smaller staffing ratio is associated with a higher chance of surviving, according to research comparing nursing ratios on patient outcomes.
What is patient or patience?The ability to sit patiently or endure hardship for a protracted duration of time without getting irritated or impatient is referred to as "patience" as a noun. However, "patients," the plural form of the word "patient," refers to someone who receives medical care.
Is patient and patient the same?Homophones are words that, despite having different spellings or meanings, sound the same when pronounced. As we previously discussed, "patient" and "patient" have the same spelling and pronunciation and can only be separated from one another in context.
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a nurse is preparing a class for pregnant women about labor and birth. when describing the typical movements that the fetus goes through as it travels through the passageway, which movements would the nurse include? select all that apply.
The correct options are A, C, and E, that is internal rotation, descent, and flexion are the typical movements that the fetus goes through when it travels the passageway during labor.
A nurse is preparing a seminar on labor and delivery for expectant mothers. When outlining the regular motions the fetus makes as it moves along the channel. There are three steps to the labor process. The first stage begins when labor starts and finishes when the cervical cavity has fully dilated and effaced. The birth of the fetus marks the conclusion of the second stage, which begins with full cervical dilatation. The third stage starts after the placenta and the fetus are delivered and ends with them. Seven motions, referred to as the cardinal movements, help the fetus travel through the birth canal. These include the following: expulsion, engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, and flexion, internal rotation.
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The complete question is:
A nurse is preparing a class for pregnant women about labor and birth. When describing the typical movements that the fetus goes through as it travels through the passageway, which of the following would the nurse most likely include? (Select all that apply.)
A. Internal rotation
B. Abduction
C. Descent
D. Pronation
E. Flexion
the client is recovering from a fractured left femur and has just had the cast removed. which technique is the most appropriate for the nurse to use when assisting this client to ambulate?
Reapplying the weights on the fracture to provide traction should be the nurse's first course of action. The customer should be repositioned in bed after informing the healthcare professional that its weights were on the floor. Both the venous refill time and a small amount of clear fluid leaking are typical.
What nursing care would be given to a patient with a limb in traction as a matter of top priority?A client with a fractured femur is being cared for by a nurse while they are in traction. What nurse intervention is most important Even if all measurements are accurate, determining neurovascular integrity is more important because a decline in this integrity could endanger the limb.
Which nursing interventions should be used as the first line of defense against pain for the patient wearing a cast?Please check all that apply. Explanation: The majority of pain can be reduced by raising the affected area of the body, using cold packs as directed, and taking analgesic medications.
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You approach the scene of a vehicle accident. The driver of one vehicle appears to have been thrown violently against the steering wheel of the car. You suspect that the driver might have a closed chest wound. List five signals this victim might have.
Here are five signals that a victim of a closed chest wound might have:
Difficulty breathing or shortness of breath, Chest pain, Rapid or weak pulse, Coughing up blood, Bruising or swelling in the chest area
1. Difficulty breathing or shortness of breath: This can occur if the lungs are damaged or if there is internal bleeding that is putting pressure on the lungs.
2. Chest pain: This can be a sign of broken ribs or other internal injuries.
3. Rapid or weak pulse: This can be a sign of internal bleeding or shock.
4. Coughing up blood: This can be a sign of internal injuries or damage to the lungs.
5. Bruising or swelling in the chest area: This can be a sign of internal bleeding or broken ribs.
It is important to call for emergency medical assistance if you suspect that someone has a closed chest wound. While waiting for help to arrive, try to keep the person calm and still to prevent further injury.
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top 25 tumor-associated (taa) antigen by the nci based on immunogenicity and differential expression
leading 25 tumor-related The potential to elicit adaptive immune responses, or immunogenicity, has been extensively studied through cancer cell transplantation research.
How many different kinds of tumor antigens exist?Privat antigens and parties shall antigens are the two main categories of tumor antigens that are the focus of T cell immunotherapies. Public shared antigens fall into two types and are shared by many patients: TSAs, or tumor-specific antigens, are only present on cancerous cells.
What other fundamental categories of diagnostic markers are identified in cancers?Circulating histopathological changes and malignant cells markers are the two primary categories of tumor markers. Some cancer patients' breath, urine, bowel movement, or other body fluids may include circulating tumor markers.
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the nurse is providing education about excellent food sources of vitamin a for a client who is deficient in this vitamin. which foods would the nurse include in the teaching? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
The foods the nurse would include in the teaching include carrots, oranges, tomatoes, green leafy vegetables, and yellow/orange veggies which includes Vitamin A.
Your body becomes deficient in vitamin A when it doesn't receive enough of it. Vitamin A insufficiency can be brought on by a vitamin A-deficient diet and several conditions. Vision problems including night blindness are among the symptoms.Taking vitamin A pills is a part of the treatment.
Consuming a lot of vitamin A-containing meals will help you avoid vitamin A deficiency.Including items that contain vitamin A in your diet is the greatest strategy to prevent vitamin A deficiency. Vitamin A is certainly gift in:
- Green veggies like broccoli and leafy greens.
- Veggies that are orange or yellow, such as carrots, squash, sweet potatoes, and pumpkin.
- Oranges, mangoes, cantaloupes, papayas, and other orange and yellow fruits.
- Dairy goods. Beef, chicken, and liver.
- Certain kinds of fish, like salmon.
- Eggs.
- Wheat, soybeans, rice, and potatoes are enriched with vitamin A.
- You can also take a vitamin A supplement if you need to.
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mr. james is an established patient with calculus in diverticulum of bladder. what is the icd-10-cm code?
Mr. James is a known patient who has calculus in his bladder diverticulum; his ICD-10-CM code is N21.0.
What is the ICD-10 code for calcification of the bladder?ICD-10-CM code N21. The ICD-10 code is N13. renal and ureteral calculus blockage and hydronephrosis.
What is the ICD-10 code for malignant neoplasm screening?According to the WHO, the ICD-10 code Z12 for Encounter for screening for malignant neoplasms falls under the category of "Factors influencing health status and interaction with health services." Malignant tumour of the lower third of the oesophagus is classified by the WHO as ICD-10 code C15. 5 and falls under the category of malignant neoplasms.
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a public health nurse has cited a reduction in cancer risk among the many benefits of maintaining a healthy body mass index. which fact underlies the relationship between obesity and cancer?
Inflammation and hormonal changes linked to cancer can be brought on by obesity.
What are the two main causes of the sharp rise in cancer cases in recent decades?Our longer lifespans are the primary factor contributing to the overall increase in cancer risk. And according to the experts that came up with these new numbers, the longer lives we are leading account for around two-thirds of the increase.
What is the one factor that increases the risk of getting cancer the most?The main risk factor for acquiring cancer is getting older for the majority of people. The risk of cancer is highest for those above 65 in general. Younger people are substantially less at risk.
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(BLANK) happens when a person has a chronic illness and the lymph nodes are busy fighting off invaders, while
(BLANK) is more generalized swelling and can happen as a result of cancer treatments, burns, or injuries.
Lymph nodes gates larger when a person has a chronic illness and the lymph nodes are busy fighting off invaders.
What changes happen in the lymph node during infection?
Sepsis is more generalized swelling and can happen as a result of cancer treatments, burns, or injuries.
When more blood cells arrive to ward off an invasive infection, your lymph nodes enlarge. They all sort of converge, putting pressure on the area and enlarging it.
The lymph nodes that enlarge are frequently seen nearby the infection's source. This means that if you have strep throat, your neck's lymph nodes may swell.
Therefore, lymph nodes gate larger when a person has a chronic illness.
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valve overlap is built into the camshaft to help start which stroke?
It is measured in crankshaft rotational degrees. Some camshafts do not overlap. In the event that they do, it occurs at the conclusion of the exhaust stroke and the start of the intake stroke.
What is the purpose of valve overlap is to?The purpose of overlap is to bring a new mixture into the fuel tank by acting like a syphon with the exhaust gas already flowing down the exhaust pipe. Otherwise, a little quantity of burnt gas would still be present in the combustor during the intake stroke, diluting the incoming mixture.
On the exhaust stroke, which valve is open?A portion of the exhaust gas enters the piston rod when the intake valve opens in the discharge side and is pulled back into to the cylinder inside the intake stroke. After TDC, the exhaust valve shuts, allowing some exhaust gas to be drawn back into the cylinder as well.
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which toy would the nurse select as developmentally appropriate for a i-year-old infant? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
Push pull toy would the nurse select as developmentally appropriate for a i-year-old infant therefore the correct option is A.
Developmental concepts toy for a 1- time-old child would depend on the individual child and their preferences. Generally, it's stylish to elect toys that are age-applicable and promote sensitive disquisition, gross motor development, and cognitive development. Some exemplifications of applicable toys for a 1- time-old child
Soft blocks, rattles, mounding toys, shape species, exertion centers, and sensitive toys similar as teething rings and stuffed creatures. numerous of these toys come with bright colors, differing patterns, and intriguing textures to engage the child’s senses and encourage disquisition.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
which toy would the nurse select as developmentally appropriate for a i-year-old infant? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
a. push pull toy
b. Rc toy
c. big toy
d. none
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when providing care for chronically ill older adults with depression, the nurse strives to apply the steps of developmental theory. which listed step needs correcting?
for applying developmental theory to the management of chronically ill, depressed elderly people. Growth, motivation, dedication, then disengagement from goals throughout the course of a lifetime.
How do depression develop?In severe depression, mood and/or motivation (pleasure) are lowered during the bulk of the first two weeks. In times of grieving, self-esteem is often retained. In severe depression, feelings of worthlessness and self-hatred are prevalent.
What mental changes can depression bring about?Depression results in an increase in corticosterone in the hippocampus, which prevents neuronal development in the brain. The shrinkage of brain circuits is directly connected with the loss of function of the injured area.
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a care plan for a bed-ridden patient includes turning every two hours to prevent pressure ulcers. the patient is cooperative, but complains that the process is painful. which action demonstrates the principle of fidelity
the patient that he will be turned in two hours to prevent ulcers, then returning to finish the task on schedule the patient that he will be turned in two hours, then returning to finish the task on schedule
The primary ethical principle that guides carers in keeping their professional commitments is fidelity or faithfulness. Because it is the foundation of the nursing profession, it takes precedence over all other ethical principles. The strict adherence to this principle by hard-core carers allows them to follow the other principles, provide quality care, and establish themselves as successful professionals. This guiding principle enables them to live their lives like contemporary Florence Nightingales and spread joy through caregiving with ease.
The patient's care plan in this instance calls for turning every two hours to prevent pressure ulcers, but the patient complains that it hurts. The best course of action in this situation would be to turn the patient in a way that the patient wouldn't find painful, but would instead appreciate the action of turning without pain. With the aid of contemporary technology and the caregiver's knowledge, this is possible.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below -
a care plan for a bed-ridden patient includes turning every two hours to prevent pressure ulcers. the patient is cooperative, but complains that the process is painful. which action demonstrates the principle of fidelity
A. Telling the patient he will be turned in two hours and returning to complete the task on time
B. Telling the patient he will be turned in two hours and returning to complete the task not on time.
C. Not turning the patient at all.
D. Turning the patient in 8 -10 hrs
which action will the nurse take next when evauluating the patient with an ankle fracture for the outcome patient will be able to walk on crutches after teaching session and the
After the instruction session, the patient with just an ankle fracture should be able to walk with crutches. Stop the treatment strategy.
What course of action can the nurse undertake for a client who isn't performing as expected?When a goal is not achieved, the nurse should reassess that patient, repeat the nursing procedure, and modify the care plan.No matter why a patient's aim wasn't achieved, the nurse would reevaluate the patient.
When utilising crutches, does the patient first move both legs forward before moving both crutches forward?The swing-through-gait is a term used to describe this movement.The client moves both feet PAST the location of the crutches, which is the important indicator that they are using the swing-through gait.If both legs had advanced to the same spot as where the crutches were placed, it would be the swing-to-gait.
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the healthy patient has a heart rate of 60 beats/ minute the nurse expects to have which respiaratory rate
The healthy patient's heart rate is 60 beats per minute, and the nurse anticipates that the patient will breathe 15 times per minute.
An unhealthy heart rate is what?The body's cardiac problems are reflected in abnormal heart rates or heart beats. This can occasionally be lethal if discovered and if untreated. Conditions where the heartbeat exceeds 120–140 beats per minute or drops below 60 beats per minute can be regarded as hazardous, necessitating urgent medical attention.
Is a heart rate of 120 normal?At rest, a heart rate of more than 100 beats per minute is regarded as rapid. Your heart is normal.
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The complete question is: What respiratory rate should the nurse expect to have for a healthy patient with a heart rate of 60 beats/minute?
the nurse is notifying the health care provider that a client at 32 weeks' gestation reports bleeding. how best would the nurse report the data?
The best way for nurses to report data on bleeding experienced at 32 weeks of gestation is to explain the cause of the bleeding and the amount of blood that comes out.
Bleeding during pregnancyPregnant women often feel worried or panicked when they experience bleeding during pregnancy. Bleeding from the vagina during pregnancy does not always indicate a problem. However, there are still some conditions that need to be watched out for, especially if accompanied by other symptoms such as abdominal pain.
Recurrent spotting from the birth canal at 32 weeks of pregnancy is most often caused by problems with the placenta (placenta), for example, placenta previa (low-lying placenta). This condition can be dangerous, but it may not be.
So if there is prolonged bleeding, what must be ascertained is the cause of the bleeding and the amount of blood that comes out.
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(a) Explain why the stability of a person against a toppling force is increased by spreading the legs as
shown in Fig. 1.7. (b) Calculate the force required to topple a person of mass = 70 kg, standing with his
feet spread 0.9mapart as shown in Fig. 1.7. Assume the person does not slide and the weight of the
person is equally distributed on both feet.
Answer:
257.5N
Explanation:
the nurse is teaching pursed-lip breathing to a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). the client asks about the benefit of the exercises . which explanation would the nurse give ?
Pursed lip breathing allows more oxygen into your lungs while expelling more carbon dioxide. Your airways remain open longer, which aids in the removal of stale air from your lungs and airways.
Pursed lip breathing is a method that can help persons with asthma or COPD who have shortness of breath. Pursed lip breathing reduces shortness of breath and is a simple and easy approach to moderate your breathing rate, making each breath more efficient.
Take a normal breath rather than a deep one. It could help to count out loud: inhale, one, two. Pucker or purse your lips as if you were about to whistle or softly flicker a candle flame. Breathe softly out (exhale).
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the nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a patient with thrombocytopenia. which result would concern the nurse the most?
The laboratory value that would concern the nurse the most in a patient with thrombocytopenia is a low platelet count.
Thrombocytopenia is a condition in which there is a deficiency of platelets in the blood. Platelets are responsible for blood clotting and are essential for preventing excessive bleeding. A low platelet count can lead to easy bruising, prolonged bleeding, and an increased risk of hemorrhage.
Therefore, the nurse would be most concerned about a low platelet count in a patient with thrombocytopenia because it could indicate a worsening of the condition and an increased risk of bleeding complications. The nurse would need to monitor the patient closely and take appropriate measures to prevent excessive bleeding.
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