which two rings have approximately the same bond angle in their favored conformations?

Answers

Answer 1

The two rings that have approximately the same bond angle in their favored conformations are cyclopropane and cyclobutane. (options a and b).

The bond angle in a cycloalkane ring is influenced by the number of carbons in the ring. As the ring size increases, the bond angle tends to approach the tetrahedral angle of 109.5 degrees. Cyclopropane has a bond angle of approximately 60 degrees due to the ring strain, which is very different from the tetrahedral angle. Cyclobutane has a bond angle of approximately 90 degrees, which is also significantly different from the tetrahedral angle.

However, both of these rings have similar bond angles in their favored conformations due to the puckering of the ring. This puckering causes the angle between the two carbons on either side of the puckered carbon to be closer to 90 degrees, resulting in a more tetrahedral shape. Therefore, cyclopropane and cyclobutane have approximately the same bond angle in their favored conformations.

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Complete Question:

Which two rings have approximately the same bond angle in their favored conformations?

a. cyclopropane

b. cyclobutane

c. cyclohexane

d. cyclopentane

e. cycloheptane.


Related Questions

Maria pushes a ball, and the ball rolls across the table. She wants to make the ball roll faster.

Maria needs to push the ball
A.
with more strength.
B.
on a different table.
C.
on the other side of the table.
D.
with less strength.

Answers

Answer: A. with more strength

Explanation:

Literally get a pencil or something and push it once normally than another time harder.

(Hopefully you'll see that it rolls faster.)

________ is the process by which nerve cells are coated with insulation that enhances the speed and efficiency of the information traveling through the nervous system.

Answers

Myelination is the process by which nerve cells are coated with insulation that enhances speed and efficiency of the information traveling through  nervous system.

What is myelination?

Nerve fibers are surrounded by insulating, fatty sheath called myelin, which acts to speed up impulses. Impulse can travel much more quickly than if it had to travel along the entire length of the nerve fiber, by jumping from node to node

Myelination process occurs when substance called myelin, which is made up of fatty lipids and proteins, accumulates around nerve cells. Myelin plays an essential role in health and function of nerve cells, brain and the nervous system.

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Pain that radiates to the right lower quadrant from the umbilical area, nausea and vomiting, and lack of appetite are MOST indicative of:
A. pancreatitis.
B. appendicitis.
C. cholecystitis.
D. gastroenteritis.

Answers

The correct answer is option B i.e.  Appendicitis.

What do you understand by Appendicitis?

The symptoms described are those of appendicitis. A common symptom is pain that radiates from the umbilical area to the right lower quadrant. Appendicitis is also associated with nausea, vomiting, and a loss of appetite. Pancreatitis is characterised by upper abdominal pain that can radiate to the back. Cholecystitis is characterised by pain in the right upper quadrant, whereas gastroenteritis is characterized by diarrhoea, vomiting, and abdominal cramps.

Appendicitis is an inflammation of the appendix, a small, thin, tube-like organ in the lower right side of the abdomen attached to the large intestine. The appendix's exact function is unknown, but it is thought to play a role in immune function.

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True/False procedures performed on the female genitalia system may be performing in the endoscopically, laparoscopically,or as an open approach.

Answers

The female genitalia scheme can be treated endoscopically, laparoscopically, or through an open approach. True.

Laparoscopically – what is it?

A surgical technique known as laparoscopy enables a doctor to access the belly tummy and pelvis from the inside without needing to make significant skin incisions.

Although patients often see laparoscopic surgery as simple, it is actually major abdominal surgery with the possibility of serious side effects such as visceral injury and haemorrhage, bowel injury, or bladder injury.

Describe surgery?

An appendectomy is a surgical procedure used to treat acute infection. The appendix is a tiny tube that arises from the big intestine Appendicitis.

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[TRUE or FALSE] selecting the range before you enter data saves time because it confines the movement of the active cell to the selected range.

Answers

True. By limiting the movement of the active cell to the defined range, choosing the range before entering data saves time.

In comparison to the default, the Percent Style might have fewer or more places following the decimal. A reference based on a relative cell location rather than the usual setting is known as a relative cell reference. You must select the complete destination area before pressing the Paste button when pasting cells into a destination region. You may insert several rows or columns at once without using the keyboard. The move command and copy command both achieve the same result.

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biologists often use the term energy source as a synonym for electron donor. True/False

Answers

True. Potential energy necessary for the synthesis of ATP is provided by an electron donor.According to the literature, bacteria and archaea's astounding metabolic variety allows for their incredible ecological diversity.

What is the source of electrons used by some photosynthetic bacteria?

SYNTHETIC BACTERIA IN IMAGES Water cannot be used by photosynthetic bacteria for photosynthesis or as an electron donor.As reductant sources, they instead use any of the many reduced carbon (or sulphur) compounds.

In the electron transport chain, what is an electron acceptor?

Explanation:The final electron acceptor in the transport chain of electrons is oxygen.The proton gradient inside the intermembrane gap is produced by NADH molecules donating electrons that are then transmitted through a number of different proteins.

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Which sequence best describes an interaction between the integumentary and excretory systems that helps maintain homeostasis?

Answers

Sweating refers to a process that involves a connection between the excretory and integumentary systems and aids in the maintenance of homeostasis.

What is integumentary system?

The organ system that comprises the skin, hair, nails, and numerous glands is known as the integumentary system. It protects the body from harm, controls body temperature, and stops water loss by acting as a barrier between the internal organs and the outside world.

a. Sweat glands in the integumentary system produce sweat.

b. Sweat contains water, salts, and urea from the excretory system.

c. Sweat is released through the skin pores, removing excess water, salts, and urea from the body.

d. The excretory system helps regulate electrolyte balance and fluid volume in the body, contributing to overall homeostasis.

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Answer:

J.) Body temperature increases > glands release sweat > body temperature decreases

Explanation:

Sweating is part of both the integumentary and excretory systems.

Step 1: Prepare for the project.
a) Read the entire Student Guide before you begin this project.
b) If anything is not clear to you, ask your teacher for assistance before you begin.
c) Gather the materials you will need to complete this project.
Step 2: Create your questions.
a) Review the lesson and reread the background information.
b) Create three relevant questions that you would like answered or clarified about the role of
DNA and chromosomes. Focus on the following areas as you generate questions:
i. The cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression
ii. Mechanisms of gene regulation
iii. The role of DNA segments that do not code for proteins
c) Make sure your questions are scientific questions, meaning they could be tested by scientists.

Answers

According to the question, there must be questions and answers on the topic of codons, lac operons, and introns and exons.

What is gene regulation?

According to question, there are three questions and the answers are as follows:

What is genetic code?What is lac operon?What is a noncoding region of DNA?

So, the answers are

1. Genetic code is the three latter codes of nitrogenous bases that specify an amino acid.

2.  lac operon is a model to study gene regulation in bacteria.

3. Introns are a non-coding region of DNA, which is spliced out from pre-mRNA.

Therefore, the above information is correctly defined the genetic code, lac operon, and noncoding region of DNA.

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What does aseptic technique mean in microbiology?

Answers

To avoid microbiological contamination, aseptic technique is a methodology that employs target-specific practises and activities under appropriately controlled conditions.

Why do we use the aseptic method in microbiology?

Microbiologists employ the aseptic method for a variety of tasks such as transferring cultures, inoculating medium, isolating pure cultures, and performing microbiological tests. Proper aseptic technique prevents cultures from contamination by environmental microbes.

The purpose of medical aseptic technique is to decrease infection contamination. Sterile techniques are used during invasive procedures such as surgeries or catheterizations to completely eliminate all microorganisms, pathogenic or otherwise.

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What does melanocyte stimulating hormone do?

Answers

An assortment of hormones made by the pituitary gland, brain, and skin cells are collectively referred to as melanocyte-stimulating hormones. The development of pigmentation, the regulation of hunger, and UV radiation protection of the skin are all essential effects.

The physiological functions of melanocyte-stimulating hormone (also known as alpha-melanotropin, MSH) are quite varied. MSH activates two processes: (1) the quick translocation of melanosomes (melanin granules) in dermal melanophores to produce rapid color change, and (2) melanogenesis in both healthy and pathological (melanoma) epidermal melanocytes.

In the majority of vertebrates, the intermediate lobe of the pituitary gland secretes melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH) peptides, which have a variety of minor functions but predominantly contribute to skin darkening.

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thickened regions of circular muscle that function like valves to control the flow of contents at various points in the GI tract

Answers

Sphincters are the thickened areas of circular muscle that act as valves to regulate the flow of contents at different places in the GI tract.

Sphincters are unique circular muscles that may be found throughout the GI system. They operate as valves, regulating the passage of contents between various GI tract areas. Along the digestive system, sphincters may be found in a number of locations, such as the lower esophageal sphincter and the pyloric sphincter. Effective digestion and nutrient absorption are made possible by these muscles, which assist control how food and other substances are moved through the digestive tract.

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A J-shaped curve is called a(n)
d.
logistic growth curve
b.
exponential growth curve
C.
linear growth curve
d
population growth curve

Answers

A J-shaped curve is called a population growth curve.

What do mean by population growth curve?

Two types of population growth patterns may occur depending on specific environmental conditions: An exponential growth pattern (J curve) occurs in an ideal, unlimited environment. A logistic growth pattern (S curve) occurs when environmental pressures slow the rate of growth.

There are two types of growth curves: the j shaped growth curve and the s-shaped growth curve. Both the types of growth curves fit population growth models that have different environmental pressures.

The growth of the population eventually slows nearly to zero as the population reaches the carrying capacity (K) for the environment. The result is an S-shaped curve of population growth known as the logistic curve.

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How would administering a non-hydrolyzable form of gtp to a cell affect its g protein-coupled signal transduction pathways?

Answers

Administering a non-hydrolyzable form of gtp to a cell affect its g protein-coupled signal transduction pathways  would  - The pathways would not turn off.

What makes G protein inactivation in G protein coupled receptors happen?

The inactivated G-protein complex interacts with the receptor when a neurotransmitter binds to a G-protein-coupled receptor. The G-protein complex is then activated as a result of the GDP molecule being converted into a GTP molecule.

How can G protein coupled receptors activate signaling pathways?

Many extracellular signals are detected by G protein coupled receptors (GPCRs), which then transmit these signals to heterotrimeric G proteins, which further transmit these signals intracellular to the proper downstream effectors. These heterotrimeric G proteins play a crucial role in various signaling pathways.

The GTP-bound form is an active conformation that activates the signal transduction, and the hydrolysis of bound GTP to bound ODP is necessary to change the conformation to an inactive form and turn off the signal transduction.

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Excessive vagal stimulation of the heart will result in _______.

Answers

Excessive vagal stimulation of the heart will result in  a decrease in heart rate and, eventually, a temporary cessation of the heartbeat.

What is vagal stimulation ?

The process of stimulating the vagus nerve with electrical impulses is known as vagus nerve stimulation. Currently, epilepsy and depression can be treated using an implanted varus nerve stimulator.

What is heart rate ?

The quantity of heartbeats per unit of time, typically one minute, in medicine. The wrist, side of the neck, back of the knees, top of the foot, groin, and other areas of the body where an artery is near to the skin are among the sites on the body where the heart rate can be felt.

Therefore, Excessive vagal stimulation of the heart will result in  a decrease in heart rate and, eventually, a temporary cessation of the heartbeat.

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Scientists studying the blind cave-dwelling fish Astyanax mexicanus hypothesized that this fish evolved from a surface-dwelling fish. If this is true, which part of the anatomy of A. mexicanus is most likely to be a vestigial structure?

Answers

The eyes, a part of the anatomy of a mexicanus is most likely to be a vestigial structure.

What do you mean by anatomy?

Anatomy is the branch of biology that deals with the structure and organization of living things. It is the study of the physical structure of the body and its parts, including organs, muscles, bones, and tissues.

The eyes of a Mexicanus are most likely vestigial because they do not serve any significant function in the species. Vestigial structures are those that are left over from an ancestor, but are no longer useful in the current species. In the case of the Mexicanus, the eyes may have been beneficial to its ancestor, but they have since been reduced in size and complexity as the species has evolved to no longer require them.

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What organizes the spindle in cell division?

Answers

The spindle is primarily organised in the search-and-capture paradigm by the poleward separation of centrosomal microtubule organising centres (MTOCs). From centrosomes, spindle microtubules "hunt" for kinetochores; once they bind one, they stabilise and put tension on the chromosomes.

The cytoskeletal structure that forms in eukaryotic cells during cell division to partition sister chromatids into distinct daughter cells is known in cell biology as the "spindle apparatus." It is referred to as the meiotic spindle during meiosis, which produces daughter cells that are genetically similar to the parent cell, and as the mitotic spindle during mitosis, which produces gametes with half as many chromosomes as the parent cell. In addition to chromosomes, the spindle machinery is composed of hundreds of proteins. Microtubules make up the vast majority of the machinery's parts.

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How many different codons (triplets) code for the amino acid Proline (Pro)?

Answers

Answer: Four different codons

Explanation:

Case History #1
Jenny is a cancer patient and has had several rounds of chemotherapy. Her blood is always drawn each time she arrives at the clinic for her chemotherapy. They are checking her white blood cell levels. She is told today her blood shows her neutrophils to be at 2,200 per microliter.

1.) Based on the level of neutrophils what do you think the recommendation for chemotherapy will be for today? You must defend your answer. (1 paragraph or less, 2 points possible.)

2.) With a neutrophil count at this level, what would the patient be susceptible to and why? (1-2 paragraphs, 4 points possible)

Answers

Answer:

Based on the neutrophil count of 2,200 per microliter, the recommendation for chemotherapy may be delayed or reduced. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that help fight off infections, and chemotherapy can lower the neutrophil count, making the patient more susceptible to infections. A low neutrophil count is called neutropenia, and a count below 1,500 per microliter is considered severe neutropenia. The decision to delay or reduce chemotherapy will depend on the patient's individual case and the judgment of the healthcare team.

With a neutrophil count at this level, the patient would be susceptible to infections. Neutrophils play a crucial role in the immune system by fighting off bacteria and other pathogens. When the neutrophil count is low, the body is less able to defend against infections, making the patient more vulnerable. Common signs of infection include fever, chills, sore throat, cough, and diarrhea. Patients with neutropenia are typically advised to take precautions to reduce their risk of infection, such as avoiding crowds, washing their hands frequently, and avoiding contact with sick people. In some cases, patients may be prescribed antibiotics to prevent infections.

Answer:

1.) Based on the neutrophil count of 2,200 per microliter, it is likely that the recommendation for chemotherapy will be to postpone or delay it. Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell that play a crucial role in fighting infections. A low neutrophil count, also known as neutropenia, can make a person more susceptible to infections and increase the risk of serious complications. Chemotherapy can further suppress the immune system, which can increase the risk of infections in cancer patients. Therefore, if a patient's neutrophil count is low, it may be necessary to delay or adjust the chemotherapy treatment to reduce the risk of complications.

2.) With a neutrophil count of 2,200 per microliter, the patient would be susceptible to infections. Neutrophils are an important part of the immune system and play a key role in fighting bacterial and fungal infections. When the neutrophil count is low, the body's ability to fight infections is compromised, which can lead to an increased risk of infections. In particular, patients with neutropenia are at an increased risk of developing infections from bacteria that are normally present on the skin and in the gastrointestinal tract. These infections can be serious and potentially life-threatening, especially for cancer patients who are already dealing with weakened immune systems. To reduce the risk of infections, patients with low neutrophil counts may be advised to take extra precautions such as avoiding crowds, practicing good hygiene, and taking antibiotics prophylactically.

Hope this helps!

which materials are broken down by the enzymes during the modification of barley?

Answers

Starch, proteins and nucleic acids  are broken down by the enzymes during the modification of barley.

Firstly the enzymes break down the wall including the proteins that digests the starch by the process called modification. The main factors that affect enzyme activity are temperature and pH as well as moisture and oxygen. Certain factors are required for the rate of reaction like that if  temperature increases, the rate of reaction up to an optimum. This generally varies from enzyme to enzyme. Above that optimum temperature the enzyme is destroyed. Individual enzymes also have variable optimum pH ranges. Optimum pH means that their activity is optimized if there is within this range, and a slight change in pH above and below this range enzymes are inhibited. During the germination stage of malting the formation of many enzymes is promoted. The enzymes are dependent upon the moisture and oxygen content of the barley. In the mash, it is said that Calcium is essential for the stabilization of α-amylase, one of the most important enzymes in the brewing process. When Calcium is present in sufficient amounts the enzyme is stable at above sparging temperatures, only then being finally destroyed in the Copper.

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Microscopic filtering units in the kidney are called _____.

Answers

Nephrons are the basic functional unit of the kidney responsible for filtering waste products from the blood and producing urine. Each kidney contains millions of nephrons, which consist of a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule.

The renal corpuscle is composed of a cluster of capillaries called the glomerulus, which is surrounded by a cup-shaped structure called the Bowman's capsule. As blood flows through the glomerulus, waste products such as urea, creatinine, and excess water and salts are filtered out of the blood and collected in the Bowman's capsule. The filtrate then passes through the renal tubule, which is divided into several sections including the proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, and distal convoluted tubule. As the filtrate passes through these segments, essential substances such as glucose and amino acids are reabsorbed into the blood while excess water and electrolytes are excreted in the urine.

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Ferns, like bryophytes and lycophytes, can only survive in places that are constantly wet.
true or false

Answers

False. Ferns can survive in a range of habitats, including moist and dry environments.

Ferns are a diverse group of vascular plants that have evolved to thrive in a variety of environments. While many species of ferns do grow in damp, shady environments, others have adapted to live in dry, rocky habitats or even in deserts. Some species of ferns are epiphytic, growing on trees and getting their moisture from the air and occasional rains, while others are terrestrial, growing in the ground and relying on soil moisture.

Ferns also have specialized adaptations, such as rhizomes and spores, that allow them to conserve moisture and withstand periods of drought. This adaptability makes ferns an important component of many ecosystems, from tropical rainforests to temperate woodlands.

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1. Based on the passage what is the relationship between chemical energy, motion energy, and heat energy?
2. Based on the passage above draw your biomass pyramid below this time adding arrows to show the flow and relative amounts (%) of energy​

Answers

Our server is super attentive and attentive with our food as well and she said we will not be disappointed

Why is lactase persistence more prevalent in indigenous populations of humans in northern europe and parts of africa than in other regions of the world?

Answers

Answer: Lactase persistence is more prevalent in indigenous populations of humans in northern Europe and parts of Africa than in other regions of the world due to natural selection. In these regions, where dairy farming was a significant part of the local economy and diet, individuals who could digest lactose throughout their lives had a survival advantage over those who couldn't. Over time, the frequency of lactase persistence alleles increased in these populations. This demonstrates how the environment and the pressures it imposes can drive the evolution of traits in a population over time.

Explanation:

What is the chain of transmission of infectious pathogens?

Answers

The chain of transmission of infectious pathogens can be described by the following steps:

Reservoir: The pathogen needs a reservoir to infect susceptible hosts. This can be a person, animal, infected food, water, or surface.

Portal of exit: The infection must escape the reservoir via respiratory secretions, feces, urine, blood, or other body fluids.

Transmission: Reservoir to a susceptible host. This can happen through direct contact, like kissing, indirect contact, such as touching contaminated surfaces, or airborne droplets, like when an infected person coughs or sneezes.

Portal of entry: The infection must enter the vulnerable host through the mouth, nose, eyes, or skin.

Susceptible host: The pathogen must infect a person with a weaker immune system, a person who has not been vaccinated, or a person who has never been exposed to the virus.

Breaking any of these processes can stop infectious disease transmission.

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Mandates the restoration and maintenance of the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the nation's waters

Answers

The Clean Water Act requires that the chemical, physical, and biological integrity of the country's waters be restored and maintained.

What purpose did the Clean Water Act of 1972 serve?

A permit was required under the CWA in order to discharge any pollutant from a point source into navigable waters: Discharges are regulated by the National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) permit program run by the EPA. Distinctive conveyances, such pipes or artificial ditches, are known as point sources.

What is the 1948 Clean Water Act?

The Federal Water Pollution Control Act of 1948 was the first comprehensive federal policy statement expressing interest in clean water initiatives, and it specifically allocated monies for state and municipal governments to address water pollution issues, including research.

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ILL MARK BRAINLIEST PLEASE HELPP

Figure 4 shows an intrusion. An intrusion is something that cuts through layers of rock. This intrusion is magma. Is the intrusion older or younger than the layers of rock?

Answers

an intrusion is always younger than the layers of rock

Jenna made this model to show the processes which resulted in the formation of oceans. (Attachment below)



Which of the following would be the next step in the process?

1. Crust is broken down

2. Earths crust moves

3. Earths plates meet

4. Sea floor spreading

Answers

Based on the model in the attachment, the next step in the process of ocean formation would be option 4, "Sea floor spreading".

What is ocean formation?

Ocean formation refers to the processes by which the world's oceans were created and have evolved over time. The oceans are thought to have formed around 4 billion years ago, as a result of a combination of factors including volcanic activity, outgassing of water vapor from the Earth's interior, and the delivery of water-rich materials such as comets and asteroids. Over time, the oceans have continued to evolve and change due to a variety of processes, including plate tectonics, which has caused the size and shape of the ocean basins to shift and change, as well as the influence of the atmosphere and climate, which has impacted ocean circulation and the distribution of heat and nutrients. Today, the oceans cover more than 70% of the Earth's surface and play a critical role in regulating the planet's climate, providing habitat and resources for countless species of marine life, and supporting a variety of human activities such as fishing, transportation, and recreation. Understanding the processes that have shaped the oceans over time is an important area of research for scientists seeking to better understand the Earth's history and its present-day systems.

Here,

This process occurs at mid-ocean ridges where magma rises up and solidifies to form new oceanic crust. As the new crust is formed, it pushes the older crust away from the ridge, causing the ocean floor to spread and creating new ocean basins. This process is a key mechanism for the continual renewal of the oceanic crust and the growth of the oceans over geologic time.

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what organs transport air from the trachea to the lungs?

Answers

The respiratory system is responsible for the exchange of gases between the body and the environment.

Air is transported from the trachea to the lungs through a series of organs known as the respiratory tract. The respiratory tract consists of several components, including the trachea, bronchi, bronchioles, and alveoli.

The trachea, also known as the windpipe, is a tube that extends from the throat down to the bronchi, which branch off into the left and right lungs. The bronchi further divide into smaller tubes called bronchioles, which ultimately lead to the alveoli, where gas exchange occurs.

The bronchi and bronchioles are lined with cilia and mucus-secreting cells that help to trap and remove foreign particles, such as dust and bacteria, from the air. The alveoli are small sacs where oxygen from the air is absorbed into the bloodstream and carbon dioxide is released from the blood to be exhaled.

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The tissues that cover external and internal body surfaces are ____.

Answers

The tissues that cover external and internal body surfaces are epithelial tissue.

What is epithelial tissue?

The epithelium is а type of body tissue thаt forms the covering on аll internаl аnd externаl surfаces of our body, lines body cаvities аnd hollow orgаns аnd is the mаjor tissue in glаnds. Epitheliаl tissue hаs а vаriety of functions depending on where it’s locаted in our body, including protection, secretion аnd аbsorption.

The orgаns in our body аre composed of four bаsic types of tissue, including:

Epitheliаl.Connective.Musculаr.Nervous.

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Gregor Mendel performed crosses using true-breeding pea plants and observed the traits exhibited by the offspring. He crossed a yellow-seed male plant with a green-seed female plant. He then allowed the offspring (F generation) to self-fertilize, producing offspring (F generation). Based on his results, Mendel concluded that traits can be masked. What evidence best supports Mendel's conclusion?
A. the green color trait was present only in the parent generation
B. the green color trait appeared less pretentious in each successive generation.
C. the green color trait was present in about one quarter of the population of every generation.
D. the green color trait was missing from the F1 generation, but reappeared in the F2 generation.

Answers

Answer:

D. the green color trait was missing from the F1 generation, but reappeared in the F2 generation

Explanation:

This supports Mendel's conclusion that traits can be masked. This observation demonstrated the principles of dominant and recessive traits, with the green trait being recessive and masked in the F1 generation by the dominant yellow trait. The reappearance of the green trait in the F2 generation showed that it was not lost but rather masked in the F1 generation.

Other Questions
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