Which of the following systems is NOT directly aided by the lymphatic system? Endocrine system
Cardiovascular system
Immune system
Digestive system

Answers

Answer 1

The lymphatic system does not aid the endocrine system, as hormones travel in the bloodstream.

What is the endocrine system?

This system is a complex network of glands and organs. It uses hormones to control and coordinate your body's metabolism, energy levels, reproduction, growth and development, and responses to injury, stress, and mood. An integral part of the endocrine system are: Hypothalamus.

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why are emulsifiers important in cooking and baking? multiple choice question. they limit microbial growth. they keep mixtures of oil and water from separating. they enhance the fat-soluble vitamin content of baked goods. they enhance the sweetness of foods when exposed to heat.

Answers

Emulsifiers are important in cooking and baking because they keep mixtures of fat and water from separating.

Emulsifiers are food additives that the Food and Drug Administration has allowed. They aid in the blending of goods that contain immiscible food ingredients, such as oil and water. Many prepackaged and processed foods, such as mayonnaise, margarine, meats, ice cream, salad dressings, chocolate, peanut butter, and other nut butters, shelf-stable icing, cookies, crackers, creamy sauces, breads, baked goods, and ice cream, contain emulsifiers.

Emulsifiers can be created artificially or organically. Hydrocolloids are a class of emulsifiers that are widely utilized nowadays. Hydrocolloids are commonly referred to as "gums" because of the texture and consistency they give food. They act as thickening agents and maintain the structure, texture, flavor, and shelf life of a variety of food products.

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Which of the following are pharmacological factors that help us to understand the drug experience?
a. the individual's genetic make-up
b. the physical environment where the drug is taken
c. the route of drug administration
d. all of these
e. none of these

Answers

ALL of these are pharmacological factors that help us to understand the drug experience so the correct option is D.

In pharmacological effect is an existent's  inheritable make- up can  impact how their body reacts to certain  medicines, and how  snappily or  sluggishly the  medicine is metabolized. The physical  terrain in which the  medicine is taken can also play a  part, as certain environmental variables  similar as temperature and  moisture can affect the  medicine's  immersion rate.

Eventually, the route of  medicine administration can also play a  part, as the  medicine may be metabolized else depending on whether it's taken orally, intravenously, or through another route. All of these factors can  impact the  medicine experience and should be taken into account when determining the stylish course of action for  medicine use.

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Match the name of the taxonomicdivision with its description.FirmicutesGracilicutesMendosicutesTenericutes1)Gram-negative cell walls 2)Gram-positive cell walls3)Lack of cell walls 4) Unusual cell walls and nutritional habits

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Gram-positive cell walls - FirmicutesGram-negative cell walls - GracilicutesLack of cell walls - TenericutesUnusual cell walls and nutritional habits - Mendosicutes

These terms refer to different divisions of bacteria based on their cell wall characteristics and nutritional habits. Firmicutes have a thick layer of peptidoglycan in their cell walls, which gives them a Gram-positive stain in the laboratory. Gracilicutes, on the other hand, have a thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer membrane, which gives them a Gram-negative stain. Tenericutes lack cell walls altogether, which makes them unique among bacteria. Mendosicutes have unusual cell walls and nutritional habits, which sets them apart from other bacterial divisions. These divisions are used to classify bacteria and understand their biology, evolution, and ecology.

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You are reading a surgeon's operative report. During the course of the surgery, she made several incisions. Your job is to read her operative report and determine where the incisions were made. Draw and label the incisions on Figure 1.19. a The first incision was made in the right anterior sternal region, 3 centimeters inferior to the cervical region. The cut extended vertically in an inferior direction, ending 2 centimeters superior to the umbilical region

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According to the surgeon's operation report, the first incision was performed 3 millimeters below the neck area in the right anterior sternal region. The incision was made vertically down.

finishing 2 cm above the umbilical area. Based on the operation report's description, identify the incision on the figure as "Incision 1" and specify its location and direction on the figure. reading a surgeon's operative report. During the course of the surgery ,the first incision was performed 3 millimeters below the neck area in the right anterior sternal region. The incision was made vertically down. she made several incisions. Your job is to read her operative report and determine where the incisions were made. finishing 2 cm above the umbilical area. Based on the operation report's description,  the incision on the figure as "Incision 1" and specify its location and direction on the figure.

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how do yeast cells communicate

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Yeast cells communicate through different ways to one another but the main way is through the release of small molecules called as phermones.

These pheromones can be released from one  incentive cell to another, and can induce changes in the  behaviour of the  entering cell. In addition,  incentive cells can also communicate via direct contact with one another through cell  face receptors.

Eventually,  incentive cells can also communicate through quorum  seeing, which is the capability to  smell the presence of other  incentive cells in the  terrain. This allows them to coordinate their conditioning,  similar as when to switch from  turmoil to respiration. In summary,  incentive cells are  suitable to communicate with one another in a number of different ways, including the release of pheromones, direct contact, and quorum  seeing.

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Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins have high amounts of potential energy. Where is the potential energy found in these energy nutrient classes?A. Between the carbon-carbon bondsB. Between the carbon-oxygen bondsC. Between the oxygen-hydrogen bondsD Between the carbon-hydrogen bonds

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Carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins have high amounts of potential energy. the potential energy found in these energy nutrient classes is between the carbon- hydrogen bond.

Potential energy is found in food. Chemical energy, a subset of potential energy, is what makes up food energy. Through energy metabolism, the chemical energy from food must be transformed into kinetic energy. Utilizing oxygen and/or nutrients, energy metabolism creates energy for each cell process in the body. A crucial aspect of nutrition is the amount of energy a particular food releases. Excessive calorie intake has been linked to a number of chronic conditions, including obesity, diabetes, and cardiovascular disease. To help consumers manage their energy consumption, all food manufacturers are now required to label the energy content of their products.

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What are homologous structures vestigial structures?

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Answer:

Vestigial structures are body parts that have lost their use through evolution. Homologous structures are structures that have a common function and suggest common ancestry. Similar embryos suggest that these animals are related and have common ancestors.

The term "vestigial structures" refers to bodily components that have evolved out of use. Homologous structures are those that act similarly and imply a shared heritage.

Are homologous structures vestigial?

Vestigial structures are similar to fully developed structures that are passed down across related lineages. As a result, they offer solid proof of shared ancestry and can show us where the species with the vestiges of structures first appeared in evolution.

What do vestiges of constructions mean?

A biological structure known as a vestigial structure is one that has significantly diminished in size and lost a significant ancestral function. Famous examples include the tiny wings of kiwis and emus, as well as the eyes of blind cave salamanders and fish.

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In studying the medium ground finch on Daphne Major, the Grants noted that each generation of finches had beaks:A. best suited for their parents' environment.B. best suited for their current environment.C. smaller than those of the previous generation.D. larger than those of the previous generation.

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In studying the medium ground finch on Daphne Major, the Grants found that each generation of finches had beaks D: "larger than those of the previous generation".

The Grants observed a phenomenon of evolution in action while studying the medium ground finch on Daphne Major. They noted that each generation of finches had beaks that were larger than those of the previous generation. This observation supports the theory of natural selection, as the finches with larger beaks were better suited for their environment and were more likely to survive and reproduce, passing on their advantageous traits to their offspring.

Over time, this led to a gradual increase in the size of the beaks in the population. This type of gradual change in a species over time through the accumulation of small, favorable variations is known as microevolution.

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Choose the aldehyde that is the most toxic, limiting its clinical usefulness. ethylene oxidehydrogen peroxideortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA)glutaraldehde formaldehyde/formalin

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The clinical utility of ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA), one of the aldehydes on the list, is constrained because it is thought to be the most poisonous. OPA is a severe irritant that has been linked to irritation of the skin, eyes, and respiratory tract as well as potential cancer-causing effects. .

In healthcare settings, ortho-phthalaldehyde (OPA) is a sterilant and powerful disinfectant. It is renowned for its broad-spectrum effectiveness against spores and germs, including bacterial spores and spores that are very hard to kill, such hepatitis B, hepatitis C, and human immunodeficiency virus. OPA is frequently used to sterilise medical devices that are sensitive to heat because it doesn't call for high temperatures or protracted exposure times. It is also a better option for medical equipment with delicate materials because it is kinder to medical devices than other sterilants and disinfectants. However, OPA is very reactive and can irritate the skin and eyes, thus utilising it requires the appropriate safety clothing.

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If a firm retains the same product for domestic and foreign​ markets, the company is demonstrating which type of product​ strategy?

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A corporation is using a straight extension plan if it keeps the same product for both domestic and international markets. This tactic entails promoting the same product around the globe without altering it in any way.

This strategy is predicated on the idea that the product will continue to appeal to customers in several nations with no modifications. To sell the product in new areas, the corporation depends on its current brand awareness and marketing initiatives. The straight extension approach can help a business enter new markets rapidly and make the most of its current resources, but it may not be appropriate for all goods or markets, and in other circumstances, it may need considerable modifications to be successful.

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Isabella liked to sunbathe. However, after she learned that ultraviolet rays are a cause of environmental mutations, she decided to stop sunbathing.

Another kind of mutation is genetic, and it is caused by small changes in an organism’s DNA. A change in a base pair is a mutation. This can cause the wrong protein to be made during protein synthesis. Which of the following are causes of mutations? Choose three that apply.
A. DNA sequence
B. deletion
C. addition
D. sex-linked
E. substitution
F. expression

Answers

Deletion, addition, and sex-linked are causes of mutation, introducing one or more nucleotides to the gene, an insertion modifies the DNA sequence.

What are the different types of mutations?

The protein produced from the gene might not work effectively, by eliminating at least one nucleotide from a gene, a deletion modifies the DNA sequence.

One of the sex chromosomes, which are the X and Y chromosomes, is how sex-related disorders are inherited.

When one parent's faulty gene can cause an illness while the other parent's identical gene is normal, this is known as dominant inheritance.

Therefore, B, C, and D are correct.

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When nutrients move from a high concentration to a lower concentration this is called?

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Diffusion is the movement of molecules down a concentration gradient from a higher concentration region to a lower concentration region.

Diffusion is defined as the movement of individual molecules of a substance from a higher concentration area to a lower concentration area across a semipermeable barrier.

Diffusion is the spread of particles through random motion from a high concentration area to a low concentration area. A concentration gradient refers to the unequal distribution of molecules.

In microorganisms, plants, and animals, the diffusion of small molecules and macromolecules (e.g., proteins) in aqueous solutions is crucial. Diffusion also plays an important role in food processing and the drying of liquid mixtures and solutions, such as diffusing aroma constituents from solutions during evaporation in fruit juice, coffee, and tea.

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in the year 2000, what was the value of greenhouse gas emissions in co2-equivalent per year?

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In the time 2000, the value of greenhouse gas emigrations in CO2-  fellow was  roughly 6.35 gigatons per time.

This number was calculated from the data  handed by the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change. This number represents a combination of all the  greenhouse  feasts emitted into the atmosphere, including carbon dioxide, methane, nitrous oxide and other  feasts.

These  feasts trap heat in the atmosphere, leading to global warming. As emigrations of these  feasts have increased since the time 2000, the  series of heat trapped in the atmosphere has also increased, leading to a rise in global temperatures.

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when is a patient ordinarily given a stress test rather than a resting ecg? how is the test conducted?

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You should probably have an exercise stress test if you have symptoms of heart disease, such as chest pain, shortness of breath, an irregular heartbeat, or heavy heartbeats.

A stress test demonstrates how the heart responds to physical exertion. A stress exercise test is another name for it. The heart pumps more vigorously and quickly after exercise. A stress test may reveal heart-related blood flow issues. Walking on a treadmill or riding a stationary cycle is typically involved in a stress test. During the test, a medical professional keeps an eye on your blood pressure, breathing, and heartbeat. If a person is unable to exercise, they may be given a medication that mimics the effects of exercise. If you show signs of coronary artery disease or an arrhythmia—an abnormal heartbeat—your doctor could advise you to get a stress test. A stress test may be useful:

orient therapy choices.

demonstrate the effectiveness of heat treatment.

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When French geneticist Lucien Cuénot was unable to obtain a pure- breeding yellow mouse when crossing yellow mice with each other, he had discovered pleiotropy O polydactyly O polygenic inheritance testcross

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French geneticist Lucien was unable to obtain a pure- breeding yellow mouse when crossing yellow mice with each other he discovered polygenic inheritance so the correct option is B.

Polygenic inheritance is a type of  heritage that involves multiple genes. These genes interact with each other and can be passed on from generation to generation. Polygenic  heritage can be used to explain the  heritage of traits  similar as height, weight, and skin color.

Traits like these are determined by multiple genes, as opposed to a single gene. Each gene has a small effect on the  particularity, and the  concerted effect of  numerous genes is  frequently seen in the  particularity.

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describe the pattern of brain development and why it matters.

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The pattern of brain development is a complex process that's largely grounded on genetics and environmental factors. During immaturity and early nonage.

The brain is  fleetly developing, allowing for new chops and  capacities to be acquired. It's during this period that the brain is most vulnerable to environmental influences. This can include nutrition, physical  exertion, as well as social and emotional  relations. As a child grows, their brain continues to develop, allowing them to learn new chops,  

Suppose more abstractly, and form meaningful  connections. It's important to understand the pattern of brain development as it affects an  existent's capability to learn and  serve in day- to- day life.

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what is the genetic relationship between a gametophyte and the gametes it produces?
a. The gametes differ from the gametophyte but not from one another
b. The gametophyte and its gametes are genetically identical
c. The gametophyte and every gamete are each unique
d. Some, but not all, of the gametes are the same as the gametophyte

Answers

The genetic relationship between a 'gametophyte' and the gametes it produces can be described as B: "the gametophyte and its gametes are genetically identical".

In plants, the gametophyte is the haploid (n) stage in the life cycle that produces gametes through meiosis. The gametes produced by the gametophyte are also haploid and genetically identical to the gametophyte. This means that the gametes carry half the genetic information of the gametophyte, but are exact copies of the gametophyte in terms of their genetic makeup.

In other words, the gametes are not different from the gametophyte or from each other in terms of genetics, but are simply reduced versions of the gametophyte. When two gametes fuse during fertilization, they form a diploid (2n) zygote that eventually grows into a mature plant.

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as oxygenated blood leaves the heart, what is the order of vessels it passes through in systemic circulation?

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The order of vessels it passes through in systemic circulation is

Enters the aortaEnters elastic arteriesEnters muscular arteriesEnters arteriolesEnters systemic capillariesEnters venulesEnters veinsEnters either the superior or inferior vena cava

The systemic circulаtion provides the functionаl of blood supply to аll body tissue. It cаrries oxygen аnd nutrients to the cells аnd picks up cаrbon dioxide аnd wаste products. Systemic circulаtion cаrries oxygenаted blood from the left ventricle, through the аrteries, to the cаpillаries in the tissues of the body. From the tissue cаpillаries, the deoxygenаted blood returns through а system of veins to the right аtrium of the heаrt.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can be seen in the Attachment.

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cystic fibrosis results from the misfolding of proteins that never get the chance to properly insert into the membranes of lung epithelial cells and perform their function. this is generally referred to as a

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When cystic fibrosis results from the misfolding of proteins that never get the chance to properly insert into the membranes of lung epithelial cells and perform their function, this generally referred to as a protein folding disorder or a protein misfolding disease.

Cystic fibrosis is caused by mutations in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) gene, which encodes a chloride channel that regulates the movement of salt and water in and out of cells. When the CFTR protein is improperly folded, it is unable to properly insert into the membranes of lung epithelial cells and perform its function, leading to the characteristic symptoms of cystic fibrosis, such as thick and sticky mucus buildup in the lungs, which can lead to infections, lung damage, and respiratory failure.

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2. Pilihan ganda1 minute1 ptQ. Moles are mammals that live underground and eat worms and other insects. The moles locate their food using their sense of smell. Which environmental change would best explain an increase in the number of moles born with a better sense of smell? (Pilihan jawabanMore rainfall makes the soil easier for digging so the moles need to have a better sense of smell to locate the worms.More rainfall makes the soil harder for digging so the moles need to have a better sense of smell to locate the worms.Drought causes the worms to come closer to the surface so the moles need to have a better sense of smell to locate the wormsDrought causes the worms to burrow further underground so the moles need to have a better sense of smell to locate the worms.

Answers

The environmental change which would best explain an increase in the number of moles born with a better sense of smell is the selection of traits that are advantageous to organisms' survival will be aided by natural selection.

If the parents of moles are exposed to a variety of odors over the course of their lives, their offspring will have a better sense of smell. Over time, natural selection will favor this adaptation, which will be passed on to the next generation. Moles will become more sensitive to a particular smell and be better able to detect other smells if they are exposed to a variety of smells. As a result, there ought to be a wide variety of food, each with a distinctive scent, in the environment.

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(Complete question)

Moles are mammals that live underground and eat worms.the moles are adapted to use there sense of smell to locate there food. Which environmental change would most likely allow for an increase in the number of moles born with a better sense of smell.

What is the maximum permissible RF exposure limit for human body?

Answers

The SAR is a worth that compares to the overall bar of RF energy consumed in the top of a client of a small handset. As far as possible public candor from cell phones is a SAR level of 1.6 watts per kilogram.

Openness to exceptionally high RF powers can bring about the warming of natural tissue and an expansion in internal heat levels. Tissue harm in people could happen during openness to high RF levels as a result of the body's powerlessness to adapt to or disseminate the over-the-top intensity that could be produced.

Notwithstanding the appearance of various extra exploration concentrates on RF fields and wellbeing, the main laid out antagonistic wellbeing impacts related to RF field openings in the recurrence range from 3 kHz to 300 GHz connect with the event of tissue warming and nerve excitement (NS) from present moment (intense) openings.

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to maintain the total adult christmas island crab population at 120 million (males females), how many offspring per female must survive to adulthood and reproduce?

Answers

A female red-crab is capable of reproducing to 100,000 eggs, which she stores in her abdominal sac. Females migrate into the ocean when the moon begins to wane.

Australia's Christmas Island is home to red crabs. Strands of rain forest cover most of Christmas Island's central plateau. Both a rainy and dry season are experienced on the island, which has a tropical climate. The Christmas Island rainforest floor is home to more than 120 million red crabs. In deep rock crevices or dirt tunnels, red crabs dwell alone. For the majority of the year, crabs remain in the shadow of their home. Crabs start moving toward the beach in October or November, just before the resumption of the rainy season. Females spend the first 12 to 13 days of this stage incubating their eggs in burrows dug in the ground or on coastal rocks and it is capable of reproducing 100,000 eggs This timeframe is in harmony with both the moon cycle and the tides.

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Place the following steps of polysaccharide chain cleavage by lysozyme into the correct order.
1. Lysozyme and substrate form an enzyme-substrate complex, forcing one sugar molecule into a strained conformation.
2. Glutamic acid donates a proton to one sugar molecule as aspartic acid attack the C1 carbon of a second sugar.
3. A covalent bond is formed between aspartic acid and the sugar molecule, and the sugar- sugar bond is hydrolyzed.
4. The water oxygen attacks the C1 carbon breaking the sugar-aspartate bond.
5. Glutamic acid polarizes a water molecule drawing a proton away from water.
6. Lysozyme and products dissociate.

Answers

The steps of polysaccharide chain cleavage by lysozyme into the correct order is 1,  2, 3, 5, 4, 6. Enzymes known as glycosidase cleave glycosidic bonds with excellent stereocontrol and substrate specificity.

The peptidoglycan GlcNAc ( 1->4) MurNAc repeat linkages (NAG-NAM) in the cell walls of bacteria and the GlcNAc ( 1->4) GlcNAc (poly-NAG) in chitin in the cells walls of certain fungi are cleaved by the lysozyme enzyme, which can be found in the cells and secretions of vertebrates as well as in viruses that infect bacteria.

The correct order in which the lysozyme cleaves the polysaccharide chain: -

1. One sugar molecule is forced into a strained conformation by the enzyme-substrate complex formed by lysozyme and substrate.

2. Aspartic acid attacks the C1 carbon of a second sugar, while glutamic acid donates a proton to one sugar.

3. Aspartic acid and sugar form a covalent bond, and the sugar-sugar bond is hydrolyzed.

4. A proton is removed from the water as a result of glutamic acid polarizing a water molecule.

5. The sugar aspartate bond is broken when the oxygen in the water attacks the C1 carbon.

6. The lysozyme and the product separate.

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xperimental Insight 2.1 describes data on the kernel color distribution of bicolor corn, collected by a genetics class like yours. To test the hypothesis that the kernel color of bicolor corn is the result of the segregation of two alleles at a single genetic locus, the class counted 9882 kernels and found that 7506 were yellow and 2376 were white. Use chi-square analysis to evaluate the fit between the segregation hypothesis and the class results. Calculate the chi-square value for this experiment.

Answers

A chi-square test is a quantifiable test used to split gotten results and the hoped results. The inspiration driving this test is to fix whether a glory between saw information and hoped information relies on ought to risk.

The examination of such two-layered plausibility tables every now and again incorporates testing for the differentiation between the two social occasions using the unmistakable Chi-square (χ2) test and its varieties.

The chi-square test is a hypothesis test expected to test for a quantifiably basic association among apparent and ordinal variables facilitated in a bivariate table. Toward the day's end, it tells us whether two variables are independent of one another.

It is a quantifiable test used to conclude whether a basic relationship is accessible between two variables like the ordinary frequencies and saw frequencies of a general population, assess in case these elements are liberated from one another, and if the model size is palatable.

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In what part of the brain does top-down processing occur?
A. the subcortical structures
B. the brain stem
C. the higher levels
D. the lower levels

Answers

C- Top - down processing occurs in the higher levels.

Top-down computing perceives the world around us by using what we already know to interpret new information (Gregory, 1970).Top -down theories are based on assumptions and emphasize the importance of higher thought processes such as expectations, beliefs, values ​​and social influences.

Throughout our lives we build schemas made up of patterns of experience, prior knowledge, emotions and Expectations exist, and then we use these models to formulate hypotheses after new information arrives. It occurs in the precortex region of the brain that is the frontal lobe.

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The Top - down processing occurs in the higher levels of the brain.

Top-down computing perceives the world around us by using what we already know to interpret new information (Gregory, 1970).Top -down theories are based on assumptions and emphasize the importance of higher thought processes such as expectations, beliefs, values ​​and social influences.

Throughout our lives we have build schemas made up of patterns of experience, prior knowledge, emotions and Expectations exist, and then we use these models to formulate hypotheses after new information arrives. It occurs in the precortex region of the brain that is the frontal lobe.

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A sequence of three consecutive bases in a tRNA molecule which specifically binds to a complementary codon sequence in mRNA is known as_____ a.Triple b.Non sense codon c. Anticodon d.Termination codon

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A sequence of three consecutive bases in a tRNA molecule which specifically binds to a complementary codon sequence in mRNA is known an anticodon.

The particular code in the tRNA that permits it to identify a certain codon is termed ananticodon, and it is again a triplet of nucleotide bases.

The tRNA anticodon is a three-nucleotide sequence that is the complement of the three-nucleotide sequence in the mRNA codon. The anticodon's job is to assist the tRNA in locating the proper amino acid that the mRNA codon indicated.

D anticodon is the right answer. Transfer RNAs (tRNAs) transport amino acids to the ribosome. They serve as "bridges," connecting a codon in an mRNA to the amino acid for which it codes. Each tRNA has a set of three nucleotides known as an anticodon.

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the history and physical examination is a detailed process that attempts to establish a connection between the information provided by the patient about their health and lifestyle with the physical findings from the inspection of each of the eleven body systems. which of ko’s symptoms is paired incorrectly with the body system that might produce that symptom? Sweating; integumentary system.
Shortness of breath; respiratory system.
Feeling feverish; urinary system.
Heartburn; digestive system.

Answers

Heartburn; digestive system. The way patients present varied considerably. There will be many people who are worried.

There are several ways in which something could appear. a quiet patient who can only respond to direct questions with monosyllabic responses. The patient who appears to be overconfident and who reacts to (or increases) their fear by showing up with a bag full of online printouts, worried that they have Von Noodles disease, which might be fatal. The irate patient who has been waiting for their appointment or in the waiting area and has had time to consider the worst-case scenario. Recurring patient who necessitates unending assurance. Each is significant even though the two may not be similar.

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the suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by

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The anterior fontanelle typically closes between 9-18 months of baby age and is an indication of cranial bone growth and brain maturation.

The anterior fontanelle, also known as the anterior fontanel, is a soft spot on the skull of a baby that allows the bones to overlap and allow for the skull to expand during birth.  The suture of the anterior fontanelle is typically closed by the time a baby is 18 to 24 months old, as the skull bones fuse and the fontanelle disappears. The rate of closure can vary from baby to baby, but it typically closes from the center outwards. If the suture is still open after 24 months, a pediatrician may evaluate the baby for any underlying health concerns.

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Fertilizers are classified as which kind of water pollutant?
answer choices
a. organic chemicals
b. inorganic chemicals
c. heavy metals
d. physical agents

Answers

Fertilizers are classified as organic chemicals water pollutant.

Therefore, correct answer will be a. organic chemicals

Organic fertilizers are compounds made from the byproducts or leftovers of living things. The microorganisms in the soil use organic fertilizers to break them down and release the vital nutrients. Phosphorus, nitrogen, and potassium are abundant in organic nutrients, but in different ratios.

Cottonseed meal, blood meal, fish emulsion, manure, and sewage sludge are a few examples of organic fertilizers. There are two types of organic fertilizers: natural organic fertilizers and synthetic organic fertilizers. A typical natural organic fertilizer contains 100% elements that are obtained from nature. Urea is an example of a synthetic organic fertilizer (e.g., fish extract, seaweed and manure, guano, and compost materials).

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legionella, neisseria and pseudomonas are genera of bacteria that are examples of

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Legionella, Neisseria, and Pseudomonas are genera of bacteria that are part of the family Gammaproteobacteria.

They are all gram-negative bacteria, meaning they have a thin outer membrane that makes them resistant to some antibiotics. Legionella is a genus of rod-shaped bacteria that includes the species Legionella pneumophila, which is the cause of Legionnaires' disease. Neisseria is a genus of bacteria that includes the species Neisseria gonorrhoeae, which is the cause of gonorrhea, and Neisseria meningitidis, which is the cause of meningococcal disease. Pseudomonas is a genus of bacteria that includes the species Pseudomonas aeruginosa, which can cause severe infections in the lungs, urinary tract, and skin.

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