The fluoroquinolones, or quinolone drugs, are a group of antimicrobials that inhibitfunctionb) ribosome activitya) nucleic acid structure and/or c) cell wall synthesis d) cell membrane structure and/or function

Answers

Answer 1

The fluoroquinolones, or quinolone drugs, are a group of antimicrobials that nucleic acid structure and/or function.

Fluoroquinolones are both selective and bactericidal because they work by preventing the activity of two DNA topoisomerases that are required for bacterial DNA replication and are absent from human cells. These enzymes are involved in bacterial DNA synthesis. DNA topoisomerases are in charge of dividing the duplex strands of bacterial DNA, putting another strand of DNA through the break, and then re-sealing the initially split strands.

Alterations in the drug target enzymes and changes in access to the drug target enzymes are the two basic processes by which fluoroquinolone resistance arises. Mutations in DNA gyrase and topoisomerase are two subtypes of changes that might occur in the drug target enzymes.

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Related Questions

What are r-selected species give examples?

Answers

R-selected species are species that have a high reproductive rate .

What are R-selected species ?

R-selected species are species that have a high reproductive rate and are adapted to rapidly colonizing changing or unpredictable environments. They typically have a lot of offspring with a low survival rate, and they invest little resources into individual offspring. Examples of R-selected species include some annual plants, insects, and certain species of fish and crustaceans. R-selected species are contrasted with K-selected species, which have a slower reproductive rate, longer lifespan, and typically invest more resources into individual offspring to increase the chances of survival. Examples of K-selected species include large mammals, birds, and many trees.

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neutrophils group of answer choices are responsible for specific defenses. are agranulocytes. are active in fighting bacterial infection. have multiple nuclei. are not phagocytic.

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Neutrophils are agranulocytes that have multiple lobed nuclei and are active in fighting bacterial infection.

Correct answer: letters C and D.

They are not phagocytic, but are responsible for specific defenses such as producing antibodies and releasing substances that can kill bacteria.

They use their chemotactic ability to find and engulf bacteria through phagocytosis. This process involves the recognition of specific molecules on the bacterial surface and the generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) to kill the bacterial cells. In addition to this, neutrophils are also involved in the production of inflammatory cytokines, which play an important role in initiating an effective immune response against the infection.

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When using CODIS, the likelihood that two individuals have the same 13-loci profile is about one in a billion.
A.
B.
True
False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

What reproduction produces genetic variation?

Answers

Reproduction produces genetic variation is Sexual reproduction.

What do you mean by Sexual Reproduction?

Sexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that involves the combination of genetic material from two individuals to produce offspring that inherit traits from both parents. This is in contrast to asexual reproduction, where offspring are produced from a single individual without the fusion of gametes (sex cells). In sexual reproduction, the parents produce gametes (usually sperm and egg) that contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cells. When the gametes unite during fertilization, the resulting zygote has a full complement of chromosomes, which are a mixture of those from both parents. This combination of genetic material leads to genetic diversity among offspring and can increase the chances of survival of a species in changing environments.

Sexual reproduction produces genetic variation. In sexual reproduction, offspring are created through the combination of genetic material from two parents. This process of fusion of genetic material from the two parents results in offspring with a unique combination of genes, leading to genetic variation. Additionally, mutations and genetic recombination during meiosis can also contribute to genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms.

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Which day at a time morphological oh molecular do you think will allow you to create a more accurate Cladogram

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I assumed that the molecular data would enable me to construct a more accurate cladogram since convergent evolution is less common at the molecular level than morphological data. This allows for a more accurate evolutionary picture.

The cladogram is the result of cladistic classification analysis. The cladogram is in the form of a branching diagram which is considered to represent the kinship relationship between hidden organisms or components.

Based on morphological characters, it is still doubtful and tends to be subjective, so the existence of molecular methods is a new study to confirm existing confirmations and classifications. Molecular data analyzes heritable genetic differences, especially in DNA sequences, to obtain information about the evolutionary relationships of organisms.

So, the type of data that is accurate in making cladograms is molecular data.

Correct question writing:

Which data type, morphological or molecular, do you think will allow you to create a more accurate cladogram?

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where does the first stage of cellular respiration occur? A. W
B. X C. Y D. Z

Answers

Answer: B) X C. Y D. Z

Where does the first stage of cellular respiration occur? ANSWER:  B) X C. Y D. Z

the functions of the plasma membrane include

Answers

The plasma membrane or cell membrane protects the cell. It also provides a constant environment inside the cell. And this membrane has various functions. One is to carry nutrients into the cell and toxic substances out of the cell.

Functions of the plasma membrane:

The main function of the plasma membrane is to act as a physical barrier between the external environment and internal organelles. The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable membrane that allows the movement of only certain molecules in and out of the cell.The plasma membrane also plays an important role in both endocytic and exocytotic processes.The plasma membrane also functions by facilitating communication and signaling between cells.

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why is the transporter in the figure considered to be an example of secondary transport?

Answers

1. It is moving two substances.

2. The two transported substances are moving in opposite directions.

3. It is driven by the proton gradient that was created by energy from ATP.

4. It is driven by ATP which was created by energy from a proton gradient.

It is driven by the proton gradient that was created by energy from ATP.

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match the action with the correct method of heat generation or heat exchange. matches can be used more than once, or may not be used at all. question 2 options: heat generated by photosynthesis heat generated by cellular respiration swimming in a lake to cool off on a very hot day sweating warmth of a chair you were sitting on a warm breeze heating up an insect 1. metabolism 2. conduction 3. convection 4. evaporation 5. radiation

Answers

Metabolism is heat generated by cellular respiration, conduction is the warmth of a chair you were sitting on, convection is swimming in a lake to cool off on a very hot day, evaporation is sweating, and radiation is heat generated by photosynthesis, warming up an insect.

Metabolism - refers to the chemical processes that occur within an organism, such as cellular respiration, which generates heat as a byproduct. Conduction - the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects, such as the warmth of a chair you were sitting on.

Convection - the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids, such as air or water. For example, swimming in a lake on a hot day can cool off your body through the transfer of heat from your body to the cooler water through convection.

Evaporation - the process by which a liquid changes into a gas and releases heat. For example, sweating cools off the body as the sweat on the skin evaporates, taking heat away from the body.

Radiation - refers to the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as the warmth of the sun reaching the earth through radiation or the heat generated by photosynthesis in plants. In the case of an insect, it can be warmed up by radiation from the sun.

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how might pinyon pine cone production be affected by increasing late summer temperatures?

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Pinyon pine (Pinus edulis) is a species of pine tree that is native to the southwestern United States and northern Mexico. The production of its cones is an important aspect of the species' reproduction and is influenced by various environmental factors.

Increasing late summer temperatures can have an effect on pinyon pine cone production. Pinyon pine relies on a specific temperature regime for successful cone production, and elevated temperatures in the late summer months can result in reduced cone production or cone abortion.

The exact relationship between temperature and cone production in pinyon pine is complex and influenced by other factors, such as water availability and atmospheric carbon dioxide levels. However, research has indicated that temperatures in the range of 30-35°C can cause significant reductions in cone production.

The impacts of increasing late summer temperatures on pinyon pine cone production are of concern for both the ecological health of pinyon pine populations and for the human communities that depend on the cones for food and cultural uses. Therefore, monitoring the effects of temperature on pinyon pine cone production is an important aspect of management and conservation efforts.

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Please refer to the passage
and image to help you answer
this problem.
What type of selection is
shown in this image?
A. disruptive
B. directional
C. stabilizing

Answers

Answer:

It would probably be b (good luck)

Which of these are characteristics of simple squamous epithelium?a. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found next to free space called the lumen.b. Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of cube-shaped cells.c. Simple cuboidal epithelium frequently forms tubular or spherical structures in the body.

Answers

The characteristics of simple squamous epithelium is C:  "simple cuboidal epithelium frequently forms tubular or spherical structures in the body".

Simple squamous epithelium is a type of epithelial tissue composed of flat, thin cells arranged in a single layer. It serves various functions in the body, including diffusion and filtration. It is commonly found in areas where the primary function is to facilitate exchange of materials, such as in the alveoli of the lungs or the inner lining of blood vessels.

Simple cuboidal epithelium, on the other hand, is composed of cube-shaped cells arranged in a single layer. It is frequently found in areas where the primary function is to provide support and protection, such as in the walls of the renal tubules or the ducts of glands.

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Define “unicellular organism” and “multicellular organism,”
and give two examples of each.

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Answer:

Unicellular organisms are made up of only one cell that carries out all of the functions needed by the organism.

Examples: Bacteria, Protists, and Yeast

Multicellular organisms are composed of more than one cell, with groups of cells differentiating to take on specialized functions.

Examples: Humans, Plants, Animals, and Fungi

Explanation:

You're welcome.

the best ""tool"" for a microbiologist would be a ______.

Answers

Microscopes, slides, test tubes, petri dishes, growth media (liquid and solid), inoculation loops, pipettes, and tips, incubators, autoclaves, and laminar flow hoods are all examples of microbiology equipment.

Which equipment is ideal for a scientist studying bacteria?

There are bacteria everywhere, and because they reproduce quickly, they are simple to examine using only a few basic materials. Petri plates, agar, sterile swabs, or an inoculating needle are all you need.

What instrument is used to quantify bacteria?

A compact, user-friendly tool called the DiluPhotometerTM OD600 is used to measure samples close to the 600 nm wavelength (OD600). It is appropriate for determining the rates of growth of a variety of cell types, including E (cell density, bacterial growth, and yeast growth).

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the most cited criticism against animal research is that

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The most frequently cited criticism of animal testing is that it is morally wrong.

Animal research, also known as animal testing, animal testing, or in vivo testing, is the use of non-human animals in experiments aimed at controlling variables that affect the behavioral or biological system being studied. Harm to animals should not be minimized as they are not considered "human". In summary, animal testing violates animal rights, causes pain to laboratory animals, and should be abolished because other means of testing products for toxicity are available. The most frequently cited criticism of animal testing is that it is morally wrong.

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Which of the following is not a function performed by glial cells ?
A. Remove cellular debris produced by damaged or dying cells
B. Increase the speed of electrical impulses passed down an axon
C. Form the blood - brain barrier
D. Detect internal body conditions

Answers

They create the myelin sheath, which insulates the neurons. By creating a close connection between the blood vessels and the neurons, they also assist in feeding the neurons. However, these cells do not produce neurotransmitters.

What are the four tasks that glial cells perform?

Glial cells have four primary roles: to surround and stabilise neurons; to supply them with nutrition and oxygen; to insulate one neuron from another; and to degrade and remove the remains of dead neurons (clean up).

What does the glial cell Mcq do?

The neurons are supported structurally and with nutrition by glial cells that surround them. The meninges are membranes that surround the spinal cord and brain. The brain and spinal

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A patient is found to have blindness of the right visual field of both eyes. What part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged? Explain your response.
A. Left optic nerve B. Right optic nerve C. Left LGN D. Right LGN

Answers

Information from the right visual field has not yet crossed at the optic chiasm.

What is the visual field?

The visual field is "the spatial array of visual sensations available for observation in introspective psychological experiments". Or simply, the field of view can be defined as the entire area that can be seen when the eye is fixed directly on a point.

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Right LGN is the part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged.

What is vision?
Vision is the ability to see and process visual information. It is a vital sense that connects us to the world around us and helps us make sense of it. Vision is the ability to recognize shapes, detect movement, and observe color and contrast. Our eyes detect light and send information to our brains to be processed. Our brains interpret this information and provide us with an understanding of the world around us. Vision also helps us understand spatial relationships, such as the size, shape, and distance of objects.

The right visual field of both eyes is blind, meaning that the right lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is most likely damaged. The LGN is part of the vision pathway that carries visual information from the retina to the primary visual cortex in the brain. Damage to the LGN can lead to blindness in the corresponding visual field of both eyes.

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which hormone opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?

Answers

Calcitonin is a chemical that the C-cells in the thyroid organ produce and delivery. It goes against the activity of the parathyroid chemical, assisting with controlling the blood's calcium and phosphate levels.

Calcitonin and PTH are alluded to as adversarial chemicals, as their activities are entirely inverse. While calcitonin is discharged when the blood calcium level is incredibly high, PTH is emitted when the blood calcium level is excessively low.

Calcitonin and parathyroid chemical (PTH) are adversarial chemicals. This implies that these chemicals have inverse activities to each other. Calcitonin is discharged by the thyroid organ and is associated with diminishing blood calcium levels.

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How does tubal sterilization work?

Answers

The fallopian tubes typically cut, tied, or obstructed during tubal ligation to completely prevent pregnancy. Your menstruation is not affected by the surgery.

A tubal ligation is what?

A kind of everlasting emergency contraception is tubal ligation, sometimes referred to as having your blood drawn or tubal sterilization. To permanently prevent pregnancy, the reproductive organs are cut, tied, or blocked during tubal ligation. Tubal ligation is not a viable solution for you unless you are confident that you'll never wish to become pregnant.

What age is ideal for a tubal ligation?

It is advised to postpone getting your blood drawn until you are in your 30s. There are several more methods of contraceptive methods if having your tubes closed doesn't work for you. Some 99% application of low solutions.

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biotech international received a formal complaint from its federal regulatory agency in which biotech international believes is based on false claims. biotech can immediately challenge the complaint by:

Answers

The biotech company can challenge the claims using various refute like looking for legal help, and resolving the issue by discussions.

Requesting a meeting with the agency: Biotech International may ask the agency for a meeting in order to discuss the complaint and present proof that the accusation is unfounded.

Making a formal appeal: Biotech International has the option to make a formal appeal of the complaint to the agency. This would cause the complaint and the supporting documentation to be reviewed.

To assist them with the appeals process and to represent them at any meetings or hearings, Biotech International may engage legal assistance.

Getting involved with pertinent industry groups: Biotech International may think about getting involved with pertinent industry organizations to spread the word about the complaint and enlist the aid of other businesses in the sector.

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Why are the oceans considered a large carbon sink?
A. Carbon gets transferred among all the organisms of every food chain.
B. Phytoplankton takes in carbon through cellular respiration.
C. Decomposition rates in the water are far greater than on land.
D. Water absorbs carbon directly from the atmosphere by diffusion.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: D. Water absorbs carbon directly from the atmosphere by diffusion

- is the reason why the oceans are considered a large carbon sink. The ocean has the ability to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through a process called diffusion, where the gas molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. This results in the ocean being able to store large amounts of carbon dioxide, making it a crucial component in regulating the Earth's carbon cycle.

- The ocean also helps to regulate the Earth's climate by absorbing and storing heat, reducing the effects of global warming. This helps to mitigate the impacts of climate change by preventing the Earth's temperature from rising too quickly.

- However, the increased absorption of carbon dioxide by the ocean is also having a negative impact, as it is causing the water to become more acidic, which is harmful to marine life and ecosystems. This highlights the importance of reducing carbon emissions and taking action to address the impacts of climate change on the ocean and the Earth as a whole.

Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? A. CDe/cDe. B. cDE/ce. C. cDE/cE. D. CDe/ce.

Answers

The Caucasian group has the highest prevalence of CDe/CE genotypes. Ninety-eight percent of Caucasians carry the e antigen. For Caucasians, Asians, and Native Americans, the most prevalent Rh haplotype is DCe.

The Dce haplotype is somewhat more prevalent among Blacks (1). A loss of the RHD gene causes the Rh D-negative phenotype in Caucasians. Originally written in alphabetical sequence (CDE), the common Rh antigens D, C or c, and E or e were eventually modified to DCE when it was realised that C and E antigens are inherited together. RhD positive refers to those who express the D antigen, which makes up about 85% of the population; RhD negative refers to people who do not. People who are RhD negative but receive blood that is RhD positive are likely to acquire anti-D antibodies because the D antigen is highly immunogenic.

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what is biology
pls help me​

Answers

Answer:  the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution.

Explanation:

Answer:

the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution.

Explanation: This is the factual definition of BIOLOGY.

which statements are true about neutrophils? multiple select question. they are agranulocytes. their count only rises in response to parasitic infections. they have multi lobed nuclei when mature. they are the most abundant leukocyte.

Answers

The true statements regarding neutrophils are:

They are agranulocytes.They are the most abundant leukocyte.

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that play an important role in the body's immune response. They are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus and agranular cytoplasm. Neutrophils are responsible for identifying and neutralizing harmful pathogens such as bacteria and fungi.

Their count in the bloodstream can increase in response to infections and other inflammatory conditions, serving as a sign of an activated immune response. They migrate to the site of infection, where they engulf and destroy invading microorganisms through a process known as phagocytosis. Thus, neutrophils are critical components of the body's defense against infectious agents.

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what is the difference between the axial portion of the body and the appendicular portion of the body?

Answers

Your neck, back, chest, and head comprise your axial skeleton. The bones that connect (append) to your axial skeleton make up your appendicular skeleton, which is everything else.

The axial section of the body consists of what?The cranium, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are all composed of bones that make up the axial skeleton. The bones of the axial skeleton "append" to the appendicular skeleton (the limbs and girdles).The body's core, which is made up of the head, neck, and torso, is represented by the axial portion. Axial section organs include those found in the cranial, thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic chambers. The axial section's extensions, including the extremities, arms, and legs, are represented by the appendicular portion.Your neck, back, chest, and head comprise your axial skeleton. The bones that connect (append) to your axial skeleton make up your appendicular skeleton, which is everything else.          

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Look at the shampoo advertisement. What message is the advertisement most likely conveying about sex?

A. Same-sex relationships are not normal or socially acceptable.
B. Teenage sexual relationships are unacceptable.
C. Heterosexual relationships are normal and acceptable.
D. Same-sex relationships are acceptable.

Answers

D same sex relationships are acceptable

Which of the following statements is not a part of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. The genotype frequencies in the offspring generation must add up to two.
B. If allele frequencies in a population are given by p and q, then genotype frequencies will be given by p2, 2pq, and q2 for generation after generation.
C. When alleles are transmitted according to the rules of Mendelian inheritance, their frequencies do not change over time.
D. Even if allele A1 is dominant to allele A2, it does not increase in frequency.

Answers

The requirement that the genotype frequencies in the offspring generation add up to two is not included in the Hardy-Weinberg principle. The correct answer is option(a).

The Hardy-Weinberg evenness is a standard declaring that the hereditary difference in a people will wait loyal from individual production to the next in the deficiency of disquieting determinants. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium (HWE) is used to estimate the number of homozygous and heterozygous variant carriers established allure allele commonness in public that is not developing.

The Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium (HWE) is a main fundamental principle of society person's family tree, which states that “genotype recurrences in a people wait for neverending 'tween production in the omission of commotion by outside determinants”.

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The functional unit of the kidney is called ________.
a. the renal hilus
b. the renal corpuscle
c. the nephron
d. Bowman’s capsule

Answers

The nephron is the name of the kidney's functional unit.

One million filtering cells called nephrons make up each of the your kidneys. A nephron is made up of tubule and a filter called the glomerulus. Your blood is the filtered by a glomerulus, and the tubules remove waste while replenishing vital nutrients. The nephrons work in this way.

The nephron produces urine through the processes of the filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion. These are also applicable to many substances. In the filtration process of blood and the production of urine, neurons are crucial players. Uropoiesis is the term for the procedure through which the nephrons make urine. The nephrons are also known as uriniferous tubules as a result.

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in which order will proteins a (55 kda), b (60 d), and c (50,000 da) emerge from the column after size exclusion chromatography?

Answers

Proteins A (55 kDa), B (60 kDa), and C (50,000 kDa) will emerge from the column after size exclusion chromatography in the order of C, B, and A.

Size exclusion chromatography is a type of chromatography which separates molecules based on their size. In this method, a gel with small pores of various sizes is used.

When a mixture of proteins is passed through the gel, the largest proteins are unable to enter the pores and are eluted first, while the smallest proteins enter the pores and are eluted last. In the given case, protein C has the largest size and will be eluted first, followed by proteins B and A.

This technique is used for both qualitative and quantitative analysis of proteins, to identify their size and measure the amount of each protein present in the mixture.

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triglycerides are used as the primary energy source by muscles multiple select question. during low-intensity physical activity. during high-intensity physical activity. when the body is at rest.

Answers

During low-intensity physical activity and when the body is at rest, triglycerides are used as the primary energy source by muscles.

A form of fat called triglycerides is stored in adipose tissue and can be used as an energy source when required. They are essential for energy metabolism because they give the body energy when it is at rest and performing low-intensity physical activity. The body may meet its energy requirements during low-intensity physical activity by utilising the fatty acids that are produced from triglycerides because the energy demands are comparatively modest.

The body's energy requirements rise during high-intensity exercise, and the muscles predominantly rely on glycogen stored in the muscle fibers as an energy source. Triglycerides, however, can still play a little role, particularly when glycogen levels are low.

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what is the hydronium ion [h3o ] concentration of a solution with a ph of 6 ? Macy's starting balance in her checking account was $654.98. She wrote one check in the amount of $321.45 and made adeposit that she forgot to write into her check register. At the end of the month, Macy's ending balance was $452.78. Find theamount of the deposit. $119.25 $114.38 $121.56$116.74 reasons why the drinking age should be lowered to 18? Write a statement that assigns cell_count with cell_count multiplied by 10. * performs multiplication. If the input is 10, the output should be: 100. Bob bought 2 t-shirts at 249. 95 pesos each and a pair of pants for 675. 95. How much change did he get from his 1 000 peso bill?1. What is asked?2. What are given?3. What is/are the hidden question?4. What operations will you use to solve the problem?5. What is number sentence?6. What is the answer?pasagot po tnx I will mark you as brainliest if your answer is good :3 Piston in Water Bath Conceptual Work-Energy ProblemImagine a piston containing a sample of ideal gas in thermal equilibrium with a large water bath. Assume that the piston head is perfectly free to move unless locked in place, and the walls of the piston readily allow the transfer of energy via heat unless wrapped in insulation. The piston head is unlocked and the gas is in an equilibrium state.For each of the actions described below, state whether the work W done on the gas, the heat energy Qtransferred to the gas, and the change in the internal energy ?Eth of the gas are positive (+), negative (?), or zero (0).After each action the piston is reset to its initial equilibrium state.Throughout this item we will assume that the first law of thermodynamics is given by ?Eth=W+Q?.Part AAction: Lock the piston head in place. Hold the piston above a very hot flame.Enter the signs of W, Q, and ?Eth Use +, ?, or 0 separated by commas. For example, if Wis positive, Q is negative, and ?Eth is zero, you would type +,-,0.Part BAction: Very slowly push the piston head down. Keep the piston is in constant thermal equilibrium with a large water bath.Enter the signs of W, Q, and ?Eth Use +, ?, or 0 separated by commas. For example, if Wis positive, Q is negative, and ?Eth is zero, you would type +,-,0.Part CAction: Lock the piston head in place. Plunge the piston into very cold water.Enter the signs of W, Q, and ?Eth Use +, ?, or 0 separated by commas. For example, if Wis positive, Q is negative, and ?Eth is zero, you would type +,-,0.Part DAction: Wrap the piston in insulation. Pull the piston head up.Enter the signs of W, Q, and ?Eth Use +, ?, or 0 separated by commas. For example, if Wis positive, Q is negative, and ?Eth is zero, you would type +,-,0. how deep is a fathom to read signs, you need good ____ . PROBLEM SOLVINGThe area of a door is given by the expression 7x- 14. The door's length is 7 feet.7. Write an expression to represent the 8. Evaluate your expression for for x = 6,width of the door.to find the door's actual width.9. Find the area of the door.10. Find the perimeter of the door. Which factor is most important in predisposing toddlers to frequent infections?a. Respirations are abdominal.b. Pulse and respiratory rates are slower than those in infancy.c. Defense mechanisms are less efficient than those during infancy.d. Toddlers have a short, straight internal ear canal and large lymph tissue. when should you check your scba gauge to see how much air you have left? Given the following probabilities, compute all joint probabilities.P(A) = .9P(B | A) = .4P(AC) = .1P(B | AC) = .7 how much time fo students at your school spend on the internet? you collect sata from the 32 members of your ap statistics class and calculate the mean amount of time that these students spent on the internet yesterday As you are discussing marketing with a client, you try to explain how individuals find sites. Which tool will you explain as the one best used in marketing?tagsmenuspostscategories Object A is an insulator. Object B is a conductor. Object A is neutral. Object B has a positive charge. Object A is touched to the ground. When the ground is pulled away, what charge do the two objects have? Carlos wants to finish a 7.5 mile trialwalking at a constant rate the distance thatCarlos has leftto finish the trial after h hourswalking is represented by the fuction 1h+2d=15 When gammie called dad she asked if he could what? diary of a wimpy kid: the deep end a trial balance has total debits of $37,000 and total credits of $50,000. which one of the following errors would create this imbalance? multiple choice a $6,500 debit to utilities expense in a journal entry was incorrectly posted to the ledger as a $6,500 credit, leaving the utilities expense account with a $7,250 debit balance. a $13,000 debit to salaries expense in a journal entry was incorrectly posted to the ledger as a $13,000 credit, leaving the salaries expense account with a $2,450 debit balance. a $6,500 credit to consulting revenue in a journal entry was incorrectly posted to the ledger as a $6,500 debit, leaving the consulting revenue account with a $14,800 credit balance. a $6,500 debit posting to accounts receivable was posted mistakenly to land. _______ approach looks at human beings as beneficiaries or targets of all development activities.A. Welfare B. Capability C. Income D. Basic needs a company was formed with $60,500 cash contributed by its owners in exchange for common stock. the company borrowed $30,500 from a bank. the company purchased $10,500 of inventory and paid cash for it. the company also purchased $70,500 of equipment by paying $10,000 in cash and issuing a note for the remainder. what is the amount of the total liabilities to be reported on the balance sheet?