Which of the following statements concerning the characteristics of life is FALSE?
A) Reproduction is defined as an increase in the size of an organism.
B) Viruses have some, but not all, of the characteristics of living things.
C) Organisms may not exhibit all of the characteristics of life at all times.
D) Reproduction can occur asexually or sexually in living things.
E) Living things store metabolic energy in the form of chemicals such as ATP.

Answers

Answer 1

A) An organism's size increasing is referred to as reproduction.

Reproduction. Every living creature has the ability to reproduce. The process through which living organisms produce children is called reproduction. It may just take one cell to divide into two daughter cells for a living thing to begin reproducing. The capacity to reproduce, grow and develop, consume energy, maintain homeostasis, respond to their environment, and be adaptable are all characteristics shared by all living creatures. A distinguishing quality is one that all living things ought to display. No living thing can replicate itself. mule, worker bees, and sterile human couples, for instance. Therefore, reproduction is not really a characteristic that distinguishes living things. It is among the most significant traits of the living being.

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Related Questions

Which of these are characteristics of simple cuboidal epithelium?a. Simple cuboidal epithelium frequently forms tubular or spherical structures in the body.b. Simple cuboidal epithelium is always found in regions that permit diffusion.c. Simple cuboidal cells exist only as double-layered sheets.d. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found next to free space called the lumen.e. Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of cube-shaped cells.

Answers

The correct option is E ; Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of cube-shaped cells.

Simple cuboidal epithelium is composed of one layer of cells whose height nearly equals their breadth, resulting in cells that resemble little box-like cubes in sections perpendicular to the surface. In horizontal slice, the cells appear to be a mosaic of polygonal tiles.

Simple cuboidal epithelium is typically differentiated to create gland secretory and ductal parts. They also make up the germinal epithelium, which surrounds the ovary but does not contribute to egg production, and the inside walls of the male testicular seminiferous tubules.

Cuboidal epithelium: Cuboidal epithelial cells have the appearance of a cube, with equal width, height, and depth. Columnar epithelial cells have a columnar appearance, meaning they are taller than they are wide.

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MARK ALL THAT APPLY. Which ions are higher inside of a cell? 1) sodium 2) potassium ✓ 3) chloride 4) calcium

Answers

3) Chloride and 4) Calcium

hope this helps:D

The ions that are higher inside of a cell are: (2) potassium ions.

A cell is the most basic building block of all the living organisms. A single cell is composed of all the components essential for its survival. The cells can be of following two types: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. The eukaryotic cells have further two types: plant cell and animal cell.

Potassium ions are the cations necessary for the maintenance of the resting membrane potential in a cell. It maintains the homeostatic condition of the cell. It also generates the action potential in the nervous system and the heart. The potassium ions can cross the cell membrane with the help of leaky channels.

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How can chromatin structure be modified in eukaryotes?

Answers

Chromatin structure in eukaryotes can be modified through a number of mechanisms, including histone modifications, DNA methylation, and non-coding RNA.

What is DNA methylation?

DNA methylation is a process in which a methyl group is added to the DNA molecule. This modification of the DNA affects the expression of genes, which determines the physical characteristics of an organism. DNA methylation is an epigenetic process, meaning that it does not alter the original DNA sequence but instead affects how the DNA is expressed. During DNA methylation, a single carbon and three hydrogen atoms (CH3) are added to a cytosine nucleotide, which is located next to a guanine nucleotide. This process is catalyzed by enzymes called DNA methyltransferases and can occur on both the DNA strands of the double helix.DNA methylation plays an important role in the regulation of gene expression, which is the process that determines how genes are expressed in an organism.

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The human body utilizes water to balance body temperature. Under what conditions might thermal regulation break down and no longer function correctly?


A.

low water intake and high water output


B.

high water intake and low water output


C.

decreased physical activity


D.

increased digestive activity

Answers

Low water intake and high water output might break thermal regulation and no longer function correctly.

Mammals regulate their internal body temperature carefully and independently of outside conditions through a process known as thermoregulation. To maintain a constant internal temperature necessary for survival, temperature regulation is a form of homeostasis. Endotherms employ thermoregulation to keep their internal body temperature somewhat constant despite changes in their exterior environment, as opposed to ectotherms, which rely on their external environment for heat. All mammals, including people, are endotherms, as are birds. Rectal probe thermometers provide the most precise readings of the average body temperature of a human, which is typically approximately 37 degrees Celsius (98.6 degrees Fahrenheit). The systems of the human body operate at this temperature best. Human existence depends on thermoregulation; if it weren't for it, the body wouldn't keep itself alive. Additionally, the body's reaction to pathogenic diseases involves thermoregulation in an adaptive way.

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The house mouse, Mus musculus, has a diploid chromosome number of 40. How many chromosomes would be found in the following? a. monosomic cell b. trisomic cell c. nullisomic cell d. double tetrasomic cell e. triploid cell f. 4n + 2 cell g. disomic gamete h. nullisomic gamete

Answers

The diploid chromosome number of the house mouse, Mus musculus, is 40. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in the following cells can be determined as follows:

a. Monosomic cell: 40 - 1 = 39 chromosomes

b. Trisomic cell: 40 + 1 = 41 chromosomes

c. Nullisomic cell: 40 - 2 = 38 chromosomes

d. Double tetrasomic cell: 40 + 4 + 4 = 48 chromosomes

e. Triploid cell: 40 x 3 = 120 chromosomes

f. 4n + 2 cell: 40 x 4 + 2 = 162 chromosomes

g. Disomic gamete: 40 / 2 = 20 chromosomes

h. Nullisomic gamete: 40 - 2 / 2 = 19 chromosomes

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which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane? group of answer choices a solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules a bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move a protein bilayer with lipids embedded in a different pattern in different cell types. three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended

Answers

The Correct option is B; A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move .

The phospholipid bilayer, which creates a durable barrier between two aqueous compartments, is the membrane's fundamental structure.

Cell membrane refers to the membrane that surrounds the cell. Only particular molecules or ions can flow through it. As a result, it is known as a selectively permeable membrane. Depending on the conditions inside or outside the cell, the cell membrane can also prevent some molecules from passing through.

As a result, the cell membrane serves two functions: first, as a barrier that keeps cell constituents in and undesired things out, and second, as a gate that allows vital nutrients into the cell and waste products out.

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Full Question ;

Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?

A. A solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules

B. A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move

C. Rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended D. Three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside

E. A protein bilayer with lipids embedded in a different pattern in different cell types.

Why is the Dutch Elm Disease not considered invasive to the Netherlands?

Answers

Answer: It is an invasive species that hurts trees.  

What are three differences between Gram-positive and gram-negative cells?

Answers

The three differences between Gram-positive and gram-negative cells are as follow.

Gram-positive bacteria are characterized by a thick peptidoglycan subcaste in their cell walls, while gram-negative cells have a thin peptidoglycan subcaste. This difference affects the cell’s capability to take up  colorings during the Gram staining procedure,  therefore the name. Gram-positive cells are also  generally  lower than gram-negative cells, The difference in peptidoglycan layers also affects the cell’s permeability. Gram-positive cell walls are more passable than gram-negative cell walls, making them more susceptible to antibiotics. Gram-negative cells also have an  fresh subcaste, the  external membrane, that helps  cover them from antibiotics. Incipiently, gram-positive cells  generally contain less  inheritable material than gram-negative cells. Gram-positive cells have  indirect genomes, while gram-negative cells have direct genomes, allowing them to contain  further  inheritable material.

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which information flow is disrupted when diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells? which information flow is disrupted when diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells? the pancreas is unable to produce enzymes to break down proteins. the body is unable to respond to signals that indicate the amount of glucose in the blood. appetite signals no longer regulate feeding. cells in the bladder are no longer able to send signals when the bladder fills.

Answers

When diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells, the body is unable to send signals that indicate the amount of sugar in the blood.

Thus, B is the correct option.

Insulin is а hormone produced in the pаncreаs by speciаl cells, cаlled betа cells. The pаncreаs is below аnd behind the stomаch. Insulin is needed to move blood sugаr (glucose) into cells. Inside the cells, glucose is stored аnd lаter used for energy.

Under normаl circumstаnces, insulin functions in the following steps:

Your body breаks down the food you eаt into glucose (sugаr), which is your body’s mаin source of energy.Glucose enters your bloodstreаm, which signаls your pаncreаs to releаse insulin.Insulin helps glucose in your blood enter your muscle, fаt аnd liver cells so they cаn use it for energy or store it for lаter use.When glucose enters your cells аnd the levels in your bloodstreаm decreаse, it signаls your pаncreаs to stop producing insulin.

Your question isn't well arranged, but most probably your options were

a. the pancreas is unable to produce enzymes to break down proteins.

b. the body is unable to respond to signals that indicate the amount of glucose in the blood.

c. appetite signals no longer regulate feeding.

d. cells in the bladder are no longer able to send signals when the bladder fills.

Thus, the correct option is  B.

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which of the following statements about fats in food is true? multiple choice fats affect the texture and taste, but not the smell, of foods. fats are the principal form of stored energy in the body. fats provide the major material for cell membranes. fats are a primary source of quick energy

Answers

Fats are the principal form of stored energy in the body. Option 2.

Fats as an energy source

Stored fats represent a major source of energy for cells. According to research findings, a gram of fat contains twice as much energy as a gram of carbohydrate. A gram of fat provides about 9 calories of energy while a gram of carbohydrates provides about 4 calories of energy for cells.

However, fats represent a slower source of energy for cells than carbohydrates. They are slower to digest and can take as much as 6 hours for digestion and transportation to the tissues that are in need of energy.

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how does cellular respiration explain why animals breathe rapidly when they are running?

Answers

Cellular respiration is the process of respiration undertaken by cells of the body to convert the energy obtained from food into adenosine triphosphate (ATP) which is the energy currency of the cell.

When an animal runs, it uses up energy at a faster pace than it normally would. Nearly every part of the body is engaged in the activity of running.

This creates the need to produce more energy. The cells of the body need more oxygen as oxygen is necessary for the process of aerobic respiration and is used to oxidise the nutrients present in food in order to break them down and convert them into the easily usable ATP.

Hence, in order to inhale more oxygen, the breathing rate of the animal increases and the breaths become quicker and/or deeper. The heart rate also increases to enable the heart to pump more blood, in order to transports more of the oxygen to the cells.

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dna repair mechanismss can help the effects of

Answers

DNA repair mechanisms help protect against the damaging effects of harmful substances or mutations that could lead to cellular damage or disease.

DNA repair mechanisms help prevent the effects of mutations and damage to the DNA molecule caused by various internal and external factors such as replication errors. Oxidative stress, exposure to radiation and chemicals, and errors during DNA replication. DNA repair mechanisms include mechanisms such as base excision repair, nucleotide excision repair, mismatch repair, double-strand break repair, and homologous recombination. These mechanisms ensure the maintenance of genomic integrity, preventing the accumulation of mutations that could lead to cancer or other genetic disorders.

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Two students in the debate club are preparing arguments for and against the use of nuclear energy. Each student will have five minutes to present an argument based on scientific evidence.
The student who supports the use of nuclear energy is considered a proponent of nuclear energy.

The student who does not support the use of nuclear energy is considered an opponent of nuclear energy.

The proponent presents his argument first. His argument is based on the following key points.

Nuclear energy does not emit any greenhouse gases.
Nuclear energy does not contribute to global warming.
Next, the opponent presents his argument.

Which pair of key points is the opponent most likely to use in his argument against the use of nuclear energy?

(1 point)
Responses

There is no safe place or method to store nuclear waste.
Nuclear energy creates waste that remains dangerously radioactive for thousands of years.
There is no safe place or method to store nuclear waste. Nuclear energy creates waste that remains dangerously radioactive for thousands of years. ,

Nuclear energy is not a renewable resource.
Nuclear energy releases gases into the atmosphere that deplete the ozone layer.
Nuclear energy is not a renewable resource. Nuclear energy releases gases into the atmosphere that deplete the ozone layer. ,

Nuclear energy contaminates local water supplies.
Nuclear energy impacts climate change.
Nuclear energy contaminates local water supplies. Nuclear energy impacts climate change. ,

Nuclear energy creates acid fog and clouds.
Nuclear waste in the air harms trees.

Answers

The pair of key points that the opponent is most likely to use in his argument against the use of nuclear energy is that

there is no safe place or method to store nuclear waste.Nuclear energy creates waste that remains dangerously radioactive for thousands of years

What is nuclear energy?

The energy found in the nucleus, or core, of an atom, is referred to as nuclear energy.

The following are some advantages of nuclear energy:

One of the lowest-carbon energy sources is it.Its carbon footprint is also among the smallest.One of the solutions to the energy gap is this.It is crucial to how we respond to greenhouse gas emissions and climate change.

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How many times a day should I feed solids to my 6 month old?

Answers

From 6-8 months old, feed your child a portion of a cup of delicate food a few times each day. Your child can eat anything with the exception of honey, which she shouldn't eat until she is a year old.

Babies ordinarily need to eat each 2-3 hours, five to multiple times during the day. It is typical for a child's timetable to change from one day to another, or for infants to eat various measures of food every day. Parental figures can follow a child's prompts, regardless of whether they have laid out a timetable now.

Be that as it may, what happens when your child begins eating strong food: is it conceivable to overload him? The short response is: indeed, on the off chance that you disregard his signals and are not offering the right food varieties. This is an acceptable exhortation en route to forestall overloading your child: Post for prompts and quit taking care of your child when he is full.

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j. w. tutt proposed that ____ of 1 colored peppered moths were more visible to predators on trees without lichens. in contrast, the forms were camouflaged on sooty trees without lichens.?

Answers

J.W. Tutt proposed that light-colored peppered moths were more visible to predators on trees without lichens In contrast, the forms were camouflaged on sooty trees without lichens.

The peppered moth, also known as Biston betularia, is a species of night-flying moth that is native to temperate regions. The majority of its occurrences are in the northern hemisphere, specifically in regions such as Asia, Europe, and North America. The evolution of the peppered moth is an illustration of population genetics and natural selection in action.

Not only do they imitate the shape of twigs, but the peppered moth caterpillars also take on their coloration. Recent studies have shown that caterpillars have the ability to sense the color of their surroundings through their skin and can adjust the color of their bodies to blend in with their surroundings in order to avoid being eaten by other animals.

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At conditions of standard temperature and pressure, determine how many liters of hydrogen gas are produced by completely reacting a zinc nail with a mass of 2. 2g with an excess of hydrochloric acid.

Answers

0.75 liters of hydrogen gas would be produced by completely reacting 2.2 grams of a zinc nail with hydrochloric acid.

The reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid produces hydrogen gas. To determine the number of liters of hydrogen gas produced, we need to know the balanced chemical equation for the reaction and the number of moles of zinc that react.

The balanced chemical equation is:

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Using the mass of zinc, we can calculate the number of moles:

n = m/M

where n is the number of moles, m is the mass of zinc (2.2 g), and M is the molar mass of zinc (65.38 g/mol).

n = 2.2 g / 65.38 g/mol = 0.0337 mol

Since one mole of hydrogen gas has a volume of 22.4 L at standard temperature and pressure (STP), the number of liters of hydrogen gas produced can be calculated:

V = n * 22.4 L/mol = 0.0337 mol * 22.4 L/mol = 0.75 L

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If potassium-40 goes through 3 half lives how many years have gone by and what percentage of the original mass would remain ?

Answers

Potassium-40 have gone by 3.75 billion years and percentage of the original mass would remain at 12.5 %

From the question we have following information :

Potassium-40 goes through 3 half lives

Half life potassium-40 is 1.25 billion years.

If potassium-40 undergoes 3 half-lives, it would have undergone 3 decay events, meaning the original amount of potassium-40 would have reduced to 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8 of its original amount.

3 half-lives would mean 3 * 1.25 billion years = 3.75 billion years have gone by.

In terms of the percentage of the original mass that would remain, it would be 1/8 * 100 = 12.5%.

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a certain gene tends to accumulate mutations at an average rate of about 1 nucleotide base pair per 5 million years over the course of time in a lineage. how many mutations is a given line of descent expected to accumulate compared to the ancestor over 25 million years of evolution?

Answers

For the certain gene over 25 million years the number of mutations will be 5.

Mutations are defined as the changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA. The changes can be limited to 1-base pair or include multiple base pairs . The process can be deletion , addition , amplification , and recombination. The rate of mutation is the probability that a unit length of DNA mutates with time . The rate of mutation in organisms or cells is determined by fluctuations analysis or by mutation accumulation assays . The rate of mutation of bacteria can not be determined based on the number of directly resistance organisms. To overcome this Luria and Delbruck invented fluctuation analysis. Now we have one mutation per 5 million year therefore the rate of the mutation will be 1/5(1 mutation / 5 million year). So therefore for 25 million years the number of mutations is equals to (1 mutation/ 5 million years) × 25 million years = 5 mutations.

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Which two body system when working together give your body shale and allows you to move around

Answers

In the musculoskeletal system, the muscular and skeletal systems work together to support and move the body. The bones of the skeletal system serve to protect the body's organs, support the weight of the body, and give the body shape.

what happens to mRNA after it completes transcription?

Answers

Answer: After the transcription of DNA to mRNA is complete, translation — or the reading of these mRNAs to make proteins — begins.

Explanation: research

In the ear, the process of transduction occurs in theO auditory cortexO outer earO eardum

Answers

In the ear, the process of transduction occurs in the cochlea, which is located in the inner ear.

Auditory transduction starts by converting sound pressure waves into mechanical vibrations of the eardrum and ossicles. These vibrations get transmitted through the middle ear to the cochlea, where they are converted into electrical signals by hair cells.

The inner ear's cochlea is where vibrations are transformed into nerve impulses that are then delivered to the brain. It is also known as the organ of hearing. The cochlea is a small conical structure resembling a snail shell.

The function of cochlea:

The inner ear contains a hollow spiral-shaped bone called the cochlea, which is essential to hearing and takes part in auditory transduction. Electrical impulses are converted from sound waves into distinct sound frequencies by the brain.

Therefore, the process of transduction occurs in the cochlea, which is located in the inner ear.

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examine the strands of dna. what do you observe about the arrow ends of the model

Answers

These arrows in DNA's 2D representation show how the many genres are really employed. The genres are what derive the shape of RNA from DNA.

What is Rna and what does it do?

The informational molecule is DNA. It contains data needed to make proteins, which are other big molecules. These directions are dispersed throughout 46 lengthy chromosome structures that are found within every one of your cells. Numerous smaller pieces of DNA, known as genes make up these chromosomes.

Where is the DNA managed to keep?

cell plasma

The majority of DNA is found in the nucleus (where it is known as nuclear DNA), but there is also a tiny quantity of DNA in the mitochondrial 

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What is DNA, and what does it stand for?

Answers

Deoxyribonucleic acid
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic acid, it is the molecule inside of cells that contains the genetic information for development and function of an organism

What does a white marker with an orange crossed diamond and black lettering mean?

Answers

Answer:

boats must keep out of the area

Explanation:

Black lettering on the buoy or sign gives the reason for the restriction, for example, SWIM AREA. Danger: A white buoy or sign with an orange diamond warns boaters of danger – rocks, dams, rapids, etc.

the children in a family have blood groups a b and o. what are the genotypes of their parents

Answers

If one parent carries a dominant allele, 50% of the offspring will as well. blood type, blood antibodies, substances in the blood, and genotype.

How do genotype and phenotype differ?

The genotype of a human is their own DNA pattern. More specifically, the two genotypes a person acquired for a given gene are referred to using this phrase. This genetic, or phenotypic, manifests itself in a participant's clinical presentation.

How can a genotype be determined?

Punnett triangles may be used to identify a gene. If you are working in a more advanced laboratory, you can use analytical procedures like Pcr assay and nucleic hybrids to determine the types that seem to be present.

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using the protein assay bsa standard curve, you have calculated that you have 20ug/ul of genetically engineered insulin. you now want to run your insulin sample on a gel to confirm its identity and you need to load 100ug/lane on your gel. how much volume from your 20ug/ul will you need?

Answers

It is required 5 ul of the sample having 20ug/ul to load 100ug/lane on the gel since 5 x 20 is equal to 100.

How to calculate the amount of sample for an electrophoresis gel?

The best way to calculate the amount of sample for an electrophoresis gel is based on the concentration of the target molecule (in this case DNA).

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the better manner to calculate the amount of sample in a gel depend on the concentration of DNA we need to observe the band under UV.

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what is the purpose of the iris?

Answers

In the vertical plane at the forefront of the eye, at the front of the lens, is a round, colorful structure known as the iris. Its middle is unbound to enable the pupil to enlarge or decrease.

What does the eye's pupil look like?

Pupillae, singular. Light can reach the retina because of the pupil, a black hole in the centre of the the eye's iris. The reason it seems black is that light rays reaching the pupil either are directly absorbed by the cells within the eye or indirectly absorbed following diffuse reflection within the eye which primarily miss exiting the small pupil.

An easy pupil exam is what?

Student testing. An eye specialist or an aid will examine your pupils and look at your retinas during a standard eye exam.

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the stage of the growth curve where the bacteria are producing molecules necessary for cell division, but not undergoing cell division is called the ___________

Answers

The stage of the growth curve where the bacteria are producing molecules necessary for cell division, but not undergoing cell division is called the lag phase.

The lag phase is a time of adaptation during which the bacteria are becoming used to their new surroundings. Depending on how different the current conditions are from the ones the bacteria originated in as well as the state of the bacterial cells themselves, the length of the lag phase can range significantly. The four phases of a bacterial growth cycle are lag, exponential (log), stationary, and death. The bacterial growth curve shows the evolution of a bacterial population's live cell count over time. The development curve goes through four distinct phases: lag, exponential (log), stagnant, and death.

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which type of membrane protein would likely be most easily removed in a laboratory experiment?

Answers

Answer: Peripheral Proteins

Explanation: Peripheral proteins are easily removable from the membrane in a laboratory experiment by changing the pH or increasing the salt concentration of a given solution

The _______________ period is the first phase, and is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms.

Answers

The incubation period is the first phase, and is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms.

In this period, the disease is asymptomatic although the pathogens are present in our body invading the primary immune system.

What is incubation period?

The incubation period is the time period between the exposure of the pathogen to the body and the appearance of the initial symptoms of the disease.

What are pathogens?

These are microorganisms that cause disease.

What is primary immune system?

The defense system which displayed upon the first contact of the immune system with an infectious agent or pathogen is the primary immune system.

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Which of the following is an outcome typically associated with authoritarian leadership? a. two-way of communicationb. abusive supervisionc.loose hierarchyd. a culture of independent thinkers I have cleaned most of the kitchen, I still need to mop the floors.A) NO CHANGEB) kitchen, so IC) kitchen; ID) kitchen: Iwhat is the right punctuation A flagpole casts a shadow that is 16 feet long. At the same time, a person standing nearby who is 5 feet 6 inches tall casts ashadow that is 44 inches long. How tall is the flagpole? The fastest server in women's tennis is sabine lisicki, who recorded a serve of 131 mi/h (211 km/h ) in 2014. Suppose that the acceleration of the ball was constant during the contact with the racket. HELPPPPPPPPPJasmine wants to use her savings of $1,128 to buy video games and movies. The total price of the movies she bought was $72. The video games cost $43 each. Choose the inequality that would be used to solve for the maximum number of video games Jasmine can buy with her savings.a: 43 + 72x 1,128b: 43 + 72x 1,128c: 43x + 72 1,128d: 43x + 72 1,128 rank the relative nucleophilicity of halide ions in dimethyl sulfoxide solution. one study testing chodorows theory found that, when playing: China's first dynasty was the Shang. Shang kings ruled China from 1750 B.C.E. to 1045 B.C.E. The Shang King was the political, religious and 1) _______ leader of the country. Help Reymond identify the option with the correct formula for the area of a rectangle.a. l + bb. I x bc. I + b + I + b what is the jogger's velocity at t = 35 s ? 4. A movie theater is arranged with 7 seats in the front row, 12 seats in the middle row, and 11 seats in the back row. People enter the movie theater and randomly sit in different spots. What is the probability that the first peron who enter the theater will be in the middle row? naphthalene is a primary component of mothballs; they readily sublime at room temperature. the heat of sublimation for naphthalene, c10h8, is 72.9 kj/mol. how much energy is needed to sublime 15.0 grams of naphthalene? (molar mass Five friend attend a matinee movie and pend $8 per ticket. They alo purchae a mall bag of popcorn each. The friend pend a total of $62. 50. Let x be the price of a mall bag of popcorn what happens if you disconnect a circuit from its positive terminal? biotic and abiotic factors ij the bosque As opposed to automatic processing, ______________ refers to encoding that requires attention and conscious exertion bruce has just graduated from college and decides that instead of paying for insurance, he'll work on building up his emergency fund. this way, if something goes wrong, he can just pay for it using cash. why is this a risky idea? what is the key role of a client-server network in business? management involves coordinating and overseeing the work activities of others so their activities are completed efficiently and effectively. efficiency means that subordinates are ________. what is the first step to performing hardware maintenance?