The nurse's actions may vary depending on the specific patient and the underlying cause of the low respiratory rate. The nurse should always use their clinical judgment.
What should the nurse look out for when recording the rate of breathing?An adult's respiratory rate should be between 12 and 20 breaths per minute. Keep an eye on the rhythm, effort, and utilization of the auxiliary muscles during breathing. Breathing should be effortless and in a regular pattern. Take note of the respiration's depth and whether it is shallow or deep.
Which step should a nurse take after determining a client's breathing rate?Therefore, the nurse should refrain from instructing the patient to breathe regularly or deeply. Count your breaths for 30 seconds while using a watch with a second hand. The respiratory rate per minute can be calculated by multiplying this amount by two.
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a nurse has been assigned a group of clients. which client is at highest risk for developing skin cancer?
D. The client with fair complexion who cannot get a tan is at highest risk for developing skin cancer. Since they lake melanin.
What is the term for skin that doesn't tan?Lack of melanin, a skin pigment, is what promotes vitiligo. Melanin, which gives your skin its colour, is produced by skin cells called melanocytes. Lack of functioning melanocytes prohibits your skin from developing enough melanin when you have vitiligo.
Why do 90% of skin cancers develop?Exposure to the sun triggers more than 90% of skin cancers. Nonmelanoma and melanoma are the mainly two subgroups of skin cancer. The most prevalent malignancies of the skin are nonmelanoma basal cell and squamous cell tumours.
What is the single biggest risk factor for developing skin cancer?The main risk factor for the prevalence of melanomas is assumed to be exposure to ultraviolet (UV) rays.
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A nurse has been assigned a group of clients. which client is at highest risk for developing skin cancer?
A. The African American male who lives in the northeast
B. The elderly Hispanic female who moved from Mexico as a child
C. The client who has a family history of basal cell carcinoma
D. The client with fair complexion who cannot get a tan
blood cholesterol higher than recommended levels increases the chances of cardiovascular diseases and risks of heart attacks and strokes. check all the factors that can contribute to high cholesterol levels.
Cholesterol is a waxy molecule that is found in your bloodstream. Although your body need cholesterol to produce healthy cells, excessive cholesterol levels can raise your risk of heart disease. .
High cholesterol might cause fatty deposits in your blood vessels. High blood cholesterol levels are a significant modifiable risk factor for heart disease, which is the leading cause of death in the United States. A 10% reduction in total blood cholesterol levels can reduce the risk of heart disease by up to 30%.
Evidence strongly suggests that elevated cholesterol might raise the risk of: artery constriction (atherosclerosis) A heart attack has occurred. stroke.
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a 7-year-old child with juvenile arthritis has been prescribed auranofin 0.125 mg/kg/day po. the client weighs 88 lbs. how many mg of auranofin should the nurse administer each day?
It is necessary to convert the client's weight to kilograms: 88 lbs ÷ 2.2 = 40 kg. Add the child's weight to the recommended dosage to determine the recommended daily dose of medication: 0.125 mg x 40 kg equals 5 mg
Which customer is more likely to get hepatotoxicity as a result of acetaminophen use?
Hepatotoxicity, or liver damage from chemicals, is more likely to occur in those who have an underlying liver condition or who regularly drink alcohol.
Why should the nurse advise the patient against using a Nsaid while receiving treatment for their hypertension?
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) can raise blood pressure (BP) and may lessen the effectiveness of a number of antihypertensive medications.
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a nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the surgeon immediately?
The postoperative finding that the nurse report to the surgeon immediately is the Urine output of 20 ml/hour.
Kidney transplantation, also known as renal transplantation, is the transplantation of a kidney into a patient who has advanced kidney disease (ESRD). Depending on the source of the donor organ, kidney transplantation is normally classed as deceased-donor (previously known as cadaveric) or living-donor transplantation. Living-donor kidney transplants are further classified as genetically related (living-related) or unrelated (living-unrelated), based on whether the donor and recipient have a biological link.
A person with ESRD must undergo a complete medical examination before having a kidney transplant to ensure that they are healthy enough to undergo transplant surgery. They can be placed on a waiting list to get a kidney from a dead donor if they are regarded a good candidate.
The complete question is:
A nurse assesses a client shortly after living donor kidney transplant surgery. Which postoperative finding must the nurse report to the surgeon immediately?
Urine output of 20 ml/hourCloudy foul smelling urineCreatinine at 3.9 mg/dLInflammationTo learn more about Kidney transplantation, here
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4. which of the following are involved in regulating neurotransmission via excitation-secretion coupling?a. voltage-sensitive sodium channelsb. voltage-sensitive calcium channelsc. both a and bd. neither a or b
voltage-sensitive sodium channels, voltage-sensitive calcium channels both are involved in regulating neurotransmission via excitation-secretion coupling.
What do calcium channels do in neurons?Calcium (Ca2+) channels mediate numerous important physiological processes, and are abundant in many types of cells [1,2]. In neurons, voltage-gated Ca2+ (CaV) channels are expressed in most plasma membrane compartments and they are involved in regulating cell excitability, gene transcription and synaptic transmission.
What is the role of calcium channel?Calcium channels are the structural components of cardiac cells that provide a mechanism to modulate the force of contraction. One of the ways that this occurs is through beta-adrenergic receptor (b-AR) stimulation to cause a positive inotropic response that is regulated by protein kinase A (PKA).
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Answer: C - both a and b
Explanation:
which instruction to the patient is most likely to result in their placing their foot in dorsiflexion?
Your ankle starts to dorsiflex as soon as you point your toes back towards your shins. The ankle joint flexes and the shinbones contract as you dorsiflex your foot.
What causes dorsiflexion of the foot?Your ankle starts to dorsiflex as soon as you point your toes back towards your shins. The ankle joint flexes and the shinbones contract as you dorsiflex your foot. Additionally, while standing, you can dorsiflex your foot by lifting the ball of your foot off the ground while maintaining your heel firmly planted.
What causes loss of dorsiflexion?For instance, compression of or damage to the peroneal nerve may cause loss of dorsiflexion. afflictions that affect the nerves or muscles in the foot.
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the nurse is performing an assessment on a newly admitted client and understands the importance of validating all data. when is the best time to validate such data?
Validation of data is an important part of the nursing assessment process. Data validation is the process of verifying of such data.
Also the best time to validate data is at the morning of the assessment, when the nurse is first canvassing the client. This is because it helps to insure that the data is accurate and dependable. It also helps to establish a working relationship between the nurse and the client, as the nurse is showing that they're taking the client information.
Seriously and validating it. confirmation of data can also help to identify any implicit disagreement in the data, which can help the nurse to more diagnose and treat the client. Eventually, confirmation of data helps to insure that the nurse is fastening on the right information and not missing any critical details. All of these points make it essential to validate data before beginning an assessment.
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which type of anesthesia is anticipated when the delivery of the fetus must be done quickly due to an emergency situation?
When a spontaneous vaginal delivery is anticipated, single-injection spinal opioids with or without local anesthetics may be utilized to offer effective, albeit temporary, analgesia for labor.
Which kind of anesthetic is applied during childbirth?The most frequent and efficient method of pain management is regional anesthesia, also known as epidural, spinal, or systemic anesthetic. During labor and delivery, regional anesthetic significantly decreases or completely eliminates pain. If a cesarean section is required, it can also be used.
Which type of anesthetic during birth is thought to be the fetus's safest option?There are a few advantages of the spinal injection to think about: Compared to a general anesthetic, it will have a smaller impact on your kid. After birth, spinal anesthesia typically enables instant mother-baby bonding.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
Which type of anesthesia is anticipated when the delivery of the fetus must be done quickly due to an emergency situation?
A. Short acting
B. Regional
C. Local
D. General
at midpoint during pregnancy, you review beginning signs of labor with a client. one of the beginning signs of labor you would review is:
At midpoint during pregnancy, a nurse would review several beginning signs of labor with a client. One of the beginning signs of labor that would be reviewed is Contractions.
What is meant by contractions during labor?Contractions are the rhythmic tightening and relaxing of the uterus that helps to open the cervix and push the baby down the birth canal. In early labor, contractions may be infrequent, last only a few seconds, and be barely noticeable. As labor progresses, contractions become stronger, longer, and closer together.
What is false labor?False labor, also known as Braxton Hicks contractions, is a type of uterine contractions that can occur during pregnancy. Unlike true labor contractions, Braxton Hicks contractions are irregular and often do not increase in intensity or frequency over time.
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an older couple expresses concern because they are easily fatigued during sexual intercourse and cannot reach climax. which strategies to increase sexual stamina will the nurse offer?
The strategies to increase sexual stamina is Avoid alcohol and tobacco, Eat well-balanced meals, and eliminate excess fats and sugars ,Plan sexual activity around a time when the couple feels rested.
What is elimination status?If a disease is eliminated, its transmission is no longer active in a certain area, such as a country. If asked, the WHO can make an official ruling on whether a nation is free of the disease. A country wishing to get this recognition must voluntarily request it through a formal submission process.
What is the concept of elimination?Elimination is the process of getting rid of something, whether it's waste, errors, or the competition. Elimination comes from the Latin word limen, which means threshold.
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a postpartum client is prescribed medication therapy as part of the treatment plan for postpartum hemorrhage. which medication would the nurse expect to administer in this situation?
Answer: oxytocin
Explanation:
o influence an audience to believe that a new medicine is the most effective treatment for a certain illness, the most effective appeal would be to:
The most effective appeal to influence people to believe that the new medicine is effective for a certain illness is to make them aware of the chemical composition of the medicine.
It is observed that people do not want to compromise for their own safety in terms of medical care.
When we have to influence an audience that the new medicine is very effective and it will treat certain illness in the most effective manner, then the best appeal is to simple compare the chemical composition of the medicine with the older one so that people can gave a logical reason to believe that the medicine is actually useful for them.
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which patient living with heart failure is most at risk for exacerbation of the disease? a patient who limits sodium and fluid intake regularly the person with a health history of eczema and cystic fibrosis one who is being discharged home from heart valve replacement surgery the patient who reports not taking amiodarone for one month and is experiencing atrial fibrillation
The patient living with heart failure who is at most risk for exacerbation of the disease is: the patient who reports not taking amiodarone for one month and is experiencing atrial fibrillation.
Heart failure is the condition where the heart muscles do not work properly and thus the heart is unable to pump blood to the body properly. This may be due to deposits of fats in the blood vessels. The symptoms of heart failure are high blood pressure, cardiomyopathy, or an irregular heartbeat.
Amiodarone is the medication used to treat arrhythmia of the heart. Therefore, is the patient does not take the drug for a month his heart beat and blood supply will be irregular.
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which is the minimum age that pharmacokinetic parameters in pediatric clients become similar to those in an adult
1 year is the minimum age that pharmacokinetic parameters in pediatric clients become similar to those in an adult.
How do you explain pharmacodynamics?Pharmacodynamics is the study of how medication concentration so at site of action interacts with the outcome, including the progression and severity of therapeutic and negative effects. A drug's interaction with a receptor at the site of action determines how that drug will behave.
Pharmacodynamic or pharmacokinetic half-life?The period of time it takes for a drug's plasma concentration or overall body quantity to decrease by 50% is known as the elimination half-life, which is a pharmacokinetic parameter. In other words, the drug concentration in the bloodstream will be half of the beginning dose after one half-life.
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The complete question is -
When preparing to administer medications safely to a pediatric client, the nurse would recognize which as the minimum age that pharmacokinetic parameters in pediatric clients become similar to those in an adult?
the nurse is monitoring a client at 36 weeks' gestation who is bleeding. the nurse is preparing to insert a foley catheter. which explanation(s) should the nurse provide the client regarding the need for a urinary catheter? select all that apply.
The Correct option (1,2) "The amount of urine output is an indication of tissue perfusion."
"If urine output is less than 30 ml per hour, it is a sign of hemodynamic instability."
Gestation is the phase of growth that takes place within viviparous mammals during the bearing of an embryo and ultimately a fetus (the embryo develops within the parent). Although certain non-mammals also experience it, it is usual for mammals. Mammals during pregnancy are capable of having one or more gestations concurrently, such as in the case of multiple births.
The gestation period is the duration of a gestation. Gestational age in obstetrics refers to the period of time since the first menstrual period, which is typically the fertilization age + two weeks.
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Full Question : the nurse is monitoring a client at 36 weeks' gestation who is bleeding. the nurse is preparing to insert a foley catheter. which explanation(s) should the nurse provide the client regarding the need for a urinary catheter? select all that apply.
"The amount of urine output is an indication of tissue perfusion.""If urine output is less than 30 ml per hour, it is a sign of hemodynamic instability."assessing the amount and color of the bleedingfetal distress related to hypoxiathe client has a history of breast cancer with reconstructive surgery. the nurse should assess the client for what potential complication?
The nurse should assess the client for potential complications related to her history of breast cancer and reconstructive surgery, including Lymphedema, Implant rupture, Infection, Numbness, or sensory changes.
What do you mean by Lymphedema?Lymphedema is a condition that occurs when there is an accumulation of lymphatic fluid in the tissues, resulting in swelling. In the case of breast cancer, it can occur as a result of damage to the lymphatic system during surgery or radiation therapy.
What if Lymphedema remains untreated?Lymphedema can lead to chronic swelling, skin changes, and an increased risk of infection if left untreated.
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which consideration should be prioritized when choosing a client population during the formulation of a clinical question?
The factor that should be given priority when deciding on a client population during the formulation of a clinical question is the existence of a convincing justification for the choice of patient population.
How should a clinical question be written?These inquiries often address the who, what, where, when, how, and why of conditions, tests, treatments, and other healthcare-related topics. For instance: What menopausal clinical symptoms are there? Why do migraines occur?
What are the four main categories of clinical inquiries?Four categories of clinical questions can be distinguished: therapy, prognosis, diagnostic, and economic/decision analysis. A well-constructed query will cover these four points: Patient or issue, intervention, contrast, and conclusion.
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The given question is incomplete. The complete question is:
Which of the following considerations should be prioritized when choosing a patient population during the formulation of a clinical question?
A. Which of the following considerations should be prioritized when choosing a patient population during the formulation of a clinical question?
B. The population in the clinical question should closely match the demographics of the nurse's geographic region.
C. A specific and defensible rationale should exist for the choice of patient population.
D. The patient population in the clinical question should mirror the populations in prominent studies related to the issue
C. A specific and defensible rationale should exist for
a patient with overactive bladder has been prescribed tolterodine (detrol). while assessing the patient, you discover the presence of the following health problems. for which problem should you contact the prescriber and question the drug order?
An anticholinergic medication called tolterodine (Detrol) can reduce the amount of aqueous fluid that leaves the eye by constricting the angle of the iris.
The intraocular pressure can rise even further in those with closed angle glaucoma, increasing the risk of blindness.A drug called tolterodine is used to treat the signs and symptoms of an overactive bladder. Urinary urgency, which is the sudden, intense, and frequent urge to urinate, is one of these (urinary frequency)
The drug tolterodine belongs to the antimuscarinic drug class. It prevents bladder contraction by relaxing the bladder muscles.
At muscarinic receptors, tolterodine and its active metabolite, 5-hydroxymethyltolterodine, both function as competitive antagonists. Due to this antagonistic relationship, the detrusor pressure decreases, the bladder does not completely empty, and the contraction of the bladder is inhibited.
Tolterodine is used to treat incontinence (lack of bladder control) and frequent urination, both of which are signs of an overactive bladder. The class of drugs known as antispasmodics includes tolterodine. It aids in reducing bladder muscle spasms and the frequent urge to urinate brought on by these spasms.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below-
A patient with overactive bladder has been prescribed tolterodine (Detrol). While assessing the patient, you discover the presence of the following health problems. For which problem should you contact the prescriber and question the drug order?
a. Asthma
b. Glaucoma
c. Hypotension
d. Diabetes mellitus
which is a guideline for health care leaders when being responsible to their organization as per the ache code of ethics?
Guideline for health care leaders when being responsible to their organization as per the ache code of ethics is a - Ensure a safe work enviornment.
Which principle serves as a guide for those who are covered by the ache code of ethics?Additionally, according to the preamble of the ACHE code of ethics, a healthcare practitioner must behave themselves "in a manner that will reflect favorably upon the profession" (ACHE, n.d., p.
What is the healthcare industry's code of conduct?Every stakeholder, including employees, doctors, contractors, and vendors, is urged by a code of conduct to reflect on their actions and the effects of their conduct at work. It offers a comprehensive organizational framework with moral and legal standards that will direct the entity's actions and decision-making.
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a neonate at 34 weeks' gestation is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. the nurse reviews the medical record and obtains the neonate's vital signs. which objective would the nurse designate as the priority?
The goal that must be set by the nurse as a priority in neonates with 34 weeks of gestation is that oxygenation will remain adequate.
Neonates are newborns within the first 28 days of life. Normal neonates are characterized by a weight of 5-9 pounds, length of 48-53 cm, and head circumference of 33-35 cm.
Neonates have a heart rate of 120-160 x/minute, a breathing of 40-60 x/minute, blood pressure at 90/80 mmHg, lanugo is not visible and head hair is fully grown, nails are rather long and limp, APGAR score > 7, reflexes - Reflexes are well formed.
In the vital condition of low blood pressure neonates, oxygen must still be supplied so that vital signs are normal.
Your question is incomplete but most probably your full question was:
A neonate at 34 weeks' gestation is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit. The nurse reviews the medical record and obtains the neonate's vital signs. What objective should the nurse designate as the priority?
Medical Record Vital Signs
Born at 34 week's gestation Temperature: 98° F
Weighs 6 pounds, 10 ounces Apical Heart Rate: 130
Apgar: 4 and 8 Respirations: 58
Blood Pressure: 60/20
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a patient will be receiving biologic dressings. the nurse understands that biologic dressings, which use skin from living or recently deceased humans, are known by what name?
The skin from living or recently deceased humans, are known by name is Homografts .
What medical care will a client with burn injuries initially require as a top priority?A secure airway was created.A: The primary objective in almost any injury is to maintain a patent airway because the body relies on oxygen to keep its tissues functioning.B: A burn damage patient would eventually receive an indwelling catheter during treatment.
A biological wound dressing is what?Tissue from living species is used to make biological dressings.By aiding in the closure of chronic wounds, these dressings help to lessen discomfort and stop the loss of heat, protein, and electrolytes.The ultimate goal is to assist a wound in either self-healing or preparing it for surgery permanent closing.
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The patient is a 43-year-old woman who is sched
a hysterectomy later today. During her preadmission testing,
her vital signs are T = 100, P = 88 with several "skipped" beats,
20, BP 160/148. She is 5'6" and weighs 110 lb. Her
levothyroxine (Synthroid) 200 mcg daily, and aspirin 81 mg
current drugs are metoprolol (Toprol 50 mg) for hypertension,
that her blood pressure problem is being managed and that
daily. When you ask her about her hypertension, she shouts
you should focus on her impending surgery. Then she apolo-
gizes for her behavior and says that she has not been sleeping
well lately, probably because of worrying about the scheduled
surgery.
Enerbilio
1. What type of drug is levothyroxine?
2. What are the side effects of this drug?
3. Which, if any, vital sign abnormalities, patient-reported
signs or symptoms, and observed physical attributes and
behavior(s) could be attributed to this drug? Provide
rationales for your selections.
4. What should you do with this information?
Explanation:
1.Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of the hormone thyroxine, which is normally produced by the thyroid gland. It is used to treat hypothyroidism, a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone.
2.The side effects of levothyroxine can include:
Rapid or irregular heartbeat
Chest pain
Tremors
Nervousness
Headache
Insomnia
Diarrhea
Vomiting
Weight loss
3.The patient's vital sign abnormalities, including an elevated temperature, elevated blood pressure, and skipped beats, are not typically associated with levothyroxine use. However, the patient's reported symptoms of nervousness and insomnia could be side effects of the drug. Additionally, levothyroxine can interact with other medications, including metoprolol, which the patient is taking for hypertension, and could potentially cause or exacerbate blood pressure abnormalities.
4.As a healthcare provider, it is important to take note of all medications the patient is taking, including the dosage and frequency, in order to identify any potential drug interactions or adverse effects. In this case, the patient's reported symptoms of nervousness and insomnia could be related to her levothyroxine use, and the interaction between levothyroxine and metoprolol should be considered. The patient's blood pressure abnormalities should also be monitored closely, and the surgeon and anesthesiologist should be informed of the patient's medications and vital signs prior to the surgery. The patient should also be advised to report any new or worsening symptoms to her healthcare provider.
the parents of a 6-year-old child diagnosed with bilateral genu valgum (knock knees) ask the health care provider when treatment will begin to correct the problem. the best response would be:
the parents of a child of bilateral genu valgum who is six years old. A diagnosis is not required at this time because the child's measurements fall within the permitted evaluation range.
What do you actually mean by diagnosis?the method of diagnosing a condition, injury, or diagnosis using its symptoms and indicators. Testing such as blood tests, imaging studies, and biopsies may be performed in addition to the a medical assessment and health history to help with the diagnosis.
Getting a diagnosis is it useful?The diagnosis can be a useful tool for both you and your doctor. You doctor or therapist will utilize the diagnosis to discuss your treatment choices and any potential health concerns with you.
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mr. williams like to fill his ace inhibitor medication. which one of these medications should you refill?
mr. williams like to fill his ace inhibitor medication enalapril is one of these medications should you refill.
What are medications used for?Medicines are chemicals or compounds used to cure, halt, or prevent disease; ease symptoms; or help in the diagnosis of illnesses. Advances in medicines have enabled doctors to cure many diseases and save lives.
Does drug mean medication?In pharmacology, a drug is a chemical substance, typically of known structure, which, when administered to a living organism, produces a biological effect. A pharmaceutical drug, also called a medication or medicine, is a chemical substance used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease or to promote well-being.
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the pregnant woman complains of being awakened frequently by leg cramps. the nurse reinforces instructions to the client's partner and would tell the client to perform which measure?
Answer:
dorsiflex
Explanation:
a patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing a headache and rates the pain as 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. which nonpharmacological intervention does the nurse implement for this patient while awaiting orders for pain medication from the health care provider? group of answer choices
The intervention implemented by the nurse for the patient experiencing headache rates the pain as 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale while awaiting orders for pain medication from the health care provider will be: (c) Softly plays music that the patient finds relaxing.
A pain scale is a device used by the medical practitioners to find the intensity of pain in any part of the body. The scale ranges from 0 to 10 where 0 means no pain and 10 depicts a very intense pain.
Music is the combination of sounds that arrange to form a melody. Playing music acts as a therapy to soothe the pain as it diverts the attention of the pain-bearer resulting in relaxation of mind.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
A patient arrives at the emergency department experiencing a headache and rates the pain as 7 on a 0 to 10 pain scale. What nonpharmacological intervention does the nurse implement for this patient while awaiting orders for pain medication from the health care provider?
(a) Frequently reassesses the patient's pain scores
(b) Reassures the patient that the provider will come to the emergency department soon
(c) Softly plays music that the patient finds relaxing
(d) Teaches the patient how to do yoga
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which response is appropriate when the family of a patient states we found out that our loved one has end stage hepatitis and we don't know what that means
Sad response is appropriate when the family of a patient states we found out that our loved one has end stage hepatitis.
End stage hepatitis. End stage hepatitis is a serious condition where the liver has been significantly damaged by the hepatitis contagion, and it's no longer suitable to serve duly. This can beget a variety of symptoms, similar as hostility, fatigue, itching, nausea, and abdominal pain. It can also lead to liver failure and death if left undressed.
Treatment options include specifics to manage symptoms, life changes to reduce stress on the liver, and conceivably a liver transplant. I'm then to help answer any questions you may have and give support as you navigate this delicate situation.
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which of the following is not an example of a relaxation technique? question 9 options: deep breathing stretching get a good night's sleep drink an extra cup of coffee
Drinking an extra cup of coffee is not an example of a relaxation technique, thus the correct option is D. Learning how to unwind and manage stress is a key component of leading a healthy lifestyle.
It is possible to use relaxation techniques to activate the body's "relaxation response," which is characterized by slower breathing, lower blood pressure, and a slower heartbeat. In contrast to the stress reaction, the relaxation response occurs. Children and teenagers who experience discomfort, anxiety, or despair, headaches, or trouble with procedures involving needles may benefit from some relaxation techniques. We don't yet have a thorough understanding of the potential advantages, however, as a large portion of the corroborating study was considered to be of low quality. Serious health issues including heart attack, stroke, heart failure, and renal failure can be brought on by high blood pressure. High blood pressure may be avoided by leading a healthy lifestyle.
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the nurse assesses the progress of a client diagnosed with acute glomerulonephritis. which finding most concerns the nurse?
Breathing pattern that is ineffective and connected to the inflammatory process, altered urination due to reduced bladder holding capacity are the major finding done by nurse for acute glomerulonephritis.
What is the most typical glomerulonephritis finding?The quick onset of painless, dark, cola- or tea-colored urine, proteinuria, and cellular casts on urine microscopy are hallmarks of acute glomerulonephritis. The nephritic syndrome is mainly composed of the clinical manifestations of edoema, HTN, and kidney damage.
How is glomerulonephritis treated?Dialysis is used to treat glomerulonephritis due to an infection in patients with acute renal failure. Through dialysis, your blood is processed by a machine that functions like an artificial, external kidney. End-stage renal disease is a chronic kidney disorder that can only be addressed by a kidney transplant or frequent kidney dialysis.
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he nurse planning a community education class on brain tumors and their prevention should include which risk factors in the presentation? select all that apply.
The risk factors to be included in the presentation for teaching about brain tumors and their prevention should include: High dose irradiation exposure; Acquired immune suppression; Polyvinyl chloride exposure.
Brain tumor is the non-cancerous mass of dividing cells that forms on the brain cells. Cancer in any other part of the body whose tumor travels to the brain also causes brain tumor. The non-stop diving of cells can be caused due to high radiation, immune suppression or PCV (chemical) exposure.
Immune suppression is the condition where the body's immune system is not capable enough to fight against the diseases effectively. Thus, when the cells start to divide uncontrollably, the immune system fails to control it.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
The nurse planning a community education class on brain tumors and their prevention should include which risk factors in the presentation? Select all that apply.
-High dose irradiation exposure
-Acquired immune suppression
-Polyvinyl chloride exposure
-Head trauma
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