Pivot joints are the joints that help in rotatory movement in bones.
In pivot joints, two ends of different bones are joined together. In this, a cylindrical and a ring shape are joined to support the rotatory movement of bones.
Pivot joints are present near the elbow and hold the two forearm bones. The movement of the skull is possible because of this joint. This helps in turning the head from side to side or up and down.
Pivot joints help in flexibility and create freedom of movement in the skeleton of the body. Pivot joints allow rotation for both internal and external.
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Pivot joints are the rotational joints.
What are the 3 pivot joints in the body?
1. The radioulnar joint is a pivot joint located between the radius (forearm bone) and the ulna (elbow bone). This joint allows the forearm to rotate around its longitudinal axis, allowing the palm to turn upward and downward.
2. The atlanto-axial joint is a pivot joint located between the atlas (uppermost vertebra of the spine) and the axis (second vertebra of the spine). This joint allows the head to rotate from side to side.
3. The intercarpal joint is a pivot joint located between the carpal bones in the wrist. This joint allows the hand to rotate around its longitudinal axis, allowing the palm to turn upward and downward.
Pivot joints are joints that allow one bone to rotate around another. They are found in several places in the body, including the neck, the radius and ulna in the forearm, and the joint between the first two vertebrae of the spine. Pivot joints enable certain types of movement, such as when you turn your head from side to side, or when you twist your wrist.
Therefore, Pivot joints are the rotational joints.
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after awarding the ball to the opponent what signal do you show next
The signal for awarding the ball to the opponent is often a hand gesture pointing in the direction of the opponent's goal. This gesture indicates which team should take possession of the ball and restart play.
In various games such as soccer, basketball, volleyball, etc., signal awarding the ball to the opponent usually occurs when a violation or foul has been committed, or when the ball goes out of bounds. The official signals this by making a hand gesture towards the opponent's side, which serves as an indication for the players and the spectators to understand the decision. The signal is simple and universally recognized, ensuring clear communication of the decision made by the official.
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The complete question is:
What signal is shown after awarding the ball to the opponent in a game?
dr. reggie gold mentioned that your brain and spinal cord have to last you a life time but that you could destroy _____ of the liver and the body will grow it back.
Dr. Reggie Gold said that the brain and spinal cord need to last a lifetime, but if you destroy two-thirds of your liver, your body will regenerate it.
However, the liver can replace damaged tissue with new cells. In extreme cases, like a Tylenol overdose, up to 50-60% of the liver cells can be killed within 3-4 days. increase. However, the liver can replace damaged tissue with new cells. In extreme cases, like a Tylenol overdose, up to 50-60% of the liver cells are killed within 3-4 days of him, but the liver is fully repaired after 30 days if there are no complications.
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An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with:
A. excessive tearing.
B. moist oral mucosa.
C. bulging fontanelles.
D. absent urine output.
An infant with severe dehydration would be expected to present with: absent urine output.
Dehydration occurs when infants and children lose so much fluid that they cannot function normally. Warning signs include dry skin, tongue, and lips, rapid breathing, less wet diapers, and tearless crying.
A dehydrated baby or toddler has less fluid, which can lead to dry mouth, less urine output, sunken eyes, and less tears when crying.
Signs of dehydration include being thirstier than usual, urinating less frequently, and darker urine. Do not pee. If you are not urinating at all, you are probably severely dehydrated and should seek immediate medical attention.
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How does sickle cell anemia affect the circulatory system?
Answer: Altered hemoglobin becomes sticky and clumps together in the red blood cell, causing the characteristic sickle shape. Sickle red blood cells can block capillaries and restrict blood flow to organs and tissues.
Explanation: Hope this helps :)))
The department of health and human services recommends that the average healthy adult should get how much exercise per week?
Answer:
150 minutes per week.
10. What recommendation would you share with a friend who's working on setting emotional boundaries in her relationship with her partner?
A. Avoid talking about the boundaries you want to set in your relationship with your partner
B. Remember, boundaries don't change Once they're set, you can't adapt them as your relationship develops
C. Stand firm and be consistent. Once you set a boundary, it's up to you to enforce it
OD. It's best to wait until your relationship is well-established to create boundaries
Be steadfast and consistent. It's up to you to uphold boundaries once you've established them. It can be difficult to establish emotional boundaries in a relationship, but doing so is crucial to a lasting one.
How do you comfort a friend who is experiencing mental distress?Let them know politely that it was difficult for you to support them and be a decent friend and that it was stress you out. Instead of placing blame or making them feel guilty for going through a difficult period, take responsibility for your actions and decisions.
What limitations should a friendship have?Relationship boundaries might include things like what is appropriate or inappropriate to say or discuss with someone. Limits on how often and when you can communicate through phone and text are also included. sexual boundaries, such as when, how, and if it's appropriate to touch someone.
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visual examination of the bladder and urethra via a lighted cystoscope
A cystoscopy is a procedure used to examine the bladder and urethra by inserting a lighted instrument called a cystoscope through the urethra.
The cystoscope has a lens for magnifying the bladder and urethra, and a light source to illuminate the area being examined. This procedure is usually performed by a urologist, who will first clean and numb the urethral area before inserting the cystoscope. During the procedure, the doctor will inspect the bladder, urethra, and any surrounding tissue for abnormalities, such as tumors or blockages. The procedure is generally safe and takes only a few minutes, but patients may experience some discomfort or pain during the procedure and after. The doctor will be able to diagnose and treat certain conditions during the cystoscopy or recommend further tests or treatments based on the findings.
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gerianna has been recently diagnosed with bipolar disorder. which drug is her psychiatrist most likely to try first in her treatment?
The first drug that Gerianna's psychiatrist is likely to try is a mood stabilizer such as Lithium.
Bipolar disorder is a mental illness characterized by periods of manic or hypomanic episodes, followed by depressive episodes. The primary aim of treatment for bipolar disorder is to stabilize mood swings and prevent future episodes of mania or depression.
One of the most commonly used medications for treating bipolar disorder is mood stabilizers, which help to balance out extreme highs and lows in mood. Lithium is one of the most well-established mood stabilizers and is often the first line of treatment for patients with bipolar disorder.
Lithium works by impacting the levels of neurotransmitters in the brain that control mood, such as serotonin and norepinephrine. By balancing these chemicals, lithium can help to reduce the frequency and severity of manic and depressive episodes in patients with bipolar disorder.
It's important to note that finding the right treatment for bipolar disorder can take some time and may involve trying multiple medications. Gerianna's psychiatrist will closely monitor her symptoms and adjust her treatment plan as needed to ensure that she is receiving the most effective care for her condition.
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there are many things that you can do to improve or maintain your mental health. which is not one?
The things that one individual can do to improve or maintain mental health include to search support from friends and family, to make physical exercise on a regular basis, etc.
What is the mental cognitive health of an individual?The mental cognitive health of an individual makes reference to the health of the mind, which is fundamental to reaching a wellbeing state.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the mental cognitive health of an individual can be preserved by different activities and also by familiar and or friend supportive relationships.
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sars is classified as a reemerging infectious disease T/F
True. SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) is classified as a reemerging infectious disease. SARS is a highly contagious respiratory illness caused by the SARS coronavirus (SARS-CoV).
SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome) is classified as a reemerging infectious disease, meaning it has reappeared after a period of dormancy. It is caused by a virus and can lead to severe respiratory illness. It first emerged in southern China in 2002 and rapidly spread globally, causing a worldwide outbreak in 2003. After being controlled and contained, SARS has since reemerged in sporadic outbreaks in different parts of the world. This highlights the importance of continuous monitoring and preparation for reemerging infectious diseases, as well as the need for ongoing research and development of vaccines and treatments.
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What is the most common charge against health care workers?
Answer:
The most common charge against healthcare workers is neglect or abuse of patients. This can include failing to provide adequate care, not responding to patients' needs in a timely manner, or intentionally causing harm to patients. Other common charges against healthcare workers include fraud, theft, and violating patient privacy.
Explanation:
The most common charge against health care workers is negligence, which refers to the failure to exercise a reasonable level of care. Examples of negligence in health care include misdiagnosis, medication errors, and surgical mistakes.
Explanation:The most common charge against health care workers is negligence.Negligence is the failure to exercise the level of care that a reasonably prudent health care worker would have in a similar situation. Some examples of negligence in the context of health care include misdiagnosis, medication errors, and surgical mistakes. It is important for health care workers to uphold a high standard of care to ensure patient safety and well-being.
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what treatments are available for the treatment of an acutely diagnosed ischaemic stroke? select all that apply steroids aspirin mannitol hyerventilation surgery alteplase warfarin
The treatments which are available for the treatment of an acutely diagnosed ischaemic stroke are aspirin, hyerventilation surgery, and alteplase.
The most typical kind of stroke is this ischaemic stroke. Unexpected intracranial bleeding is linked to high death and disability rates. In this patient population, hyperventilation is routinely used to momentarily lower an elevated ICP and stop an approaching herniation.
A thrombolytic drug called alteplase, a biosynthetic version of human tissue-type plasminogen activator, is used to treat pulmonary embolism associated with low blood pressure, acute ischemic stroke, acute ST-elevation myocardial infarction, and blocked central venous catheter.
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Threatening to share harmful or embarrassing information (or photos) with a partner's parents, friends, or colleagues is an example of relationship abuse. T/F
Answer: relationship
Explanation:
Threatening to share harmful or embarrassing information (or photos) with a partner's parents, friends, or colleagues is an example of relationship abuse---- True
What does it mean to abuse a relationship?Using violence, disrespect, cruelty, harm, or force against another person is considered abuse. An abusive relationship occurs when one party treats their partner in any of these ways. Physical, sexual, or emotional abuse can occur in a relationship. Or it might be any one of these.
What is the term for relationship violence?A pattern of behavior in any relationship that is used to gain or maintain power and control over an intimate partner can be defined as domestic abuse, which is also known as "domestic violence" or "intimate partner violence."
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a disability elimination period is best described as a
A disability elimination period is a specified time period during which a person must be disabled before their disability insurance coverage takes effect.
The purpose of a disability elimination period is to allow the insurance company to verify the claim and ensure that the disability insurance is a legitimate one before benefits are paid. The length of a disability elimination period varies among insurance policies, but typically ranges from 30 to 90 days. unless they have other forms of insurance that covers the expenses during this time period. In general, the longer the elimination period, the lower the insurance premium, so it is important to consider the length of the disability elimination period when choosing a disability insurance policy.
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experimental psychology began with a psychologist named?
Wilhelm Wundt, a psychologist, pioneered experimental psychology. Wundt is known as the "Father of Experimental Psychology" because he was the first to establish psychology as a distinct scientific discipline from philosophy and biology.
In 1879, he established the first psychology laboratory at the University of Leipzig in Germany, laying the groundwork for the scientific study of human consciousness and behavior. Wundt's approach to psychology was experimental in nature, with objective methods and techniques used to study mental processes and behavior. His work influenced the development of modern psychology and aided in the establishment of psychology as an experimental science.
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Which of the following typically occur(s) during REM sleep?
a
genital arousal
b
bed-wetting
c
night terrors
d
narcolepsy
e
muscular tension
Genital arousal occur(s) during REM sleep.
When people have Rapid Eye Movement (REM) sleep, the following frequently happen:
Genital stimulation
Vivid dreaming, quick eye movements, and modifications in brain activity are just a few of the distinctive physiological characteristics of REM sleep. Temporary muscular paralysis, another hallmark of REM sleep, is thought to keep us from acting out our fantasies. Both males and females frequently experience genital arousal during REM sleep, albeit it is not always connected to sexual dreaming.
Your heart rate increases, your breathing becomes erratic, and your eyeballs move quickly behind your closed eyes during REM sleep. Your brain is quite busy during REM sleep, and your brain waves become more erratic. This is in contrast to other stages of sleep, during which your brain waves settle down.
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emergency restraints or seclusion may be implemented without a physician's order under which condition?
Emergency restraints or seclusion is a last resort measure that is used in emergency situations when a person poses a risk to themselves or others. This measure is only implemented when it is deemed necessary for the safety and well-being of the individual and those around them.
It is important to understand that it is not a decision that is taken lightly and only used when all other alternatives have been exhausted.
In some cases, emergency restraints or seclusion may be implemented without a physician's order. This is usually done in emergency situations where a person is in immediate danger and there is no time to wait for a physician's order. For example, if a person is experiencing a mental health crisis and is acting in a manner that could cause harm to themselves or others, emergency restraints or seclusion may be used to protect them and those around them.
It is important to note that emergency restraints or seclusion should only be used as a short-term solution and must be followed by a comprehensive evaluation of the individual's situation. This evaluation is performed by a team of mental health professionals who will determine the best course of action for the individual's well-being.
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do nurses review newborn lab results they have to report?
Yes, nurses do review newborn lab results.
Nurses play a critical role in newborn care, including monitoring and interpreting lab results. When a newborn has a lab test, the nurse is responsible for collecting the sample and sending it to the laboratory for analysis.
Once the results are received, the nurse reviews them to ensure that they are accurate and within normal ranges. If the results are abnormal, the nurse will inform the physician, who will determine the best course of action.
The nurse also records the results in the baby's medical record and keeps track of any changes or trends over time. It's important for nurses to be knowledgeable about normal and abnormal lab results for newborns, as well as any related health issues, so that they can provide the best possible care.
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Emotional Wellness. PLEASE HELP!!! WILL MARK BRAINLEST!! 50 Points!!!
1. A belief that people should have complete control over their mental and emotional dimensions of wellness is a commonly held notion and this contributes to the stigma associated with mental/emotional illness and is one reason for lack of appropriate treatment.
a) True
b) False
2. Recently (2008) changes in federal legislation require health insurance plans to pay equally for both mental and physical health care services. This parity legislation is an example of which of the strategies suggested in the 1999 Surgeon General's Report on Mental Health?
a) Ensure delivery of state of the art mental health care.
b) Focus on prevention strategies.
c) Allow additional financial support for research into mental health issues
d) reduce financial barriers to treatment
3. The World Health Organization's definition of health includes which of the following?
a) Absence of illness
b) Physical wellbeing
c) Mental and social well-being
d) a,b,c
4. Emotional health can best be described as being able to
a) be self-sufficient and self confident.
b) identify symptoms of psychological problems.
c) adapt to various social conditions.
d) express as well as control feelings.
5. Research by experts in the field of medicine suggest that the general public consistently overestimates the impact of poor mental/emotional health on the quality of human life.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
1 . a (true)
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. a
What are the 3 factors that influence airway resistance?
Answer:
airflow velocity, the diameter of the airway, and lung volume
Explanation:
Multiple factors can influence airway resistance, including airflow velocity, the diameter of the airway, and lung volume. These are some of the most significant contributing factors and will be discussed further on how these variables exert change and why this is important for managing patient airways.
The decrease of lung elastic recoil is what causes the airflow resistance to rise so quickly. The elastic recoil, which serves to maintain the airways open as previously indicated, also decreases with lung sizes.
What factor influence airway resistance?The size of the airway and whether the flow is laminar or turbulent are two important parameters that affect resistance. We shall discuss the physiology and significance of surfactant, as alveolar expansion also depends on it.
Airflow velocity, airway diameter, and lung volume are a few of the variables that might affect airway resistance. These are some of the most essential contributing components, and it will be covered in more detail how they influence change and why it's crucial for patient airway management.
Therefore, The three parameters that affect airway resistance are airflow rate, airway diameter, and lung volume.
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Which of these electronic databases is the most relevant and frequently used source for nursing literature?
a. MEDLINE
b. CINAHL
c. Cochrane Collaboration
d. National Guideline Clearinghouse
B. CINAHL (Cumulative Index to Nursing and Allied Health Literature)
CINAHL is widely considered to be the most relevant and frequently used source for nursing literature. This electronic database provides access to articles and other information resources related to nursing and allied health fields, including journals, conference proceedings, dissertations, and theses. CINAHL covers a wide range of topics, including patient care, nursing research, education, and administration, making it an invaluable resource for both nursing students and practicing nurses. Additionally, CINAHL has a sophisticated search system that allows users to easily find the information they need. Whether looking for evidence-based information for a clinical decision, conducting research, or simply staying current on the latest developments in the field, CINAHL is a trusted source for nursing information.
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A new medical test has been designed to detect the presence of the mysterious brainlesserian disease. Among those who have the disease, the probability that the disease will be detected by the new test is. However, the probability that the test will erroneously indicate the presence of the disease in those who do not actually have it is. It is estimated that of the population who take this test have the disease. Let be the event someone has the disease and (for positive) the event that the new test detects the disease. If the test administered to an individual is positive, what is the probability that the person actually has the disease?.
The probability that the person actually has the disease is 89.74%
This problem can be evaluated by conditional probability.
P(B|A) = [tex]\frac{P(AUB)}{P(A)}[/tex]
From here
P(B|A) is the probability of event B happening, given that A happened.
[tex]P(AUB)[/tex] is the probability of both A and B happening.
P(A) is the probability of A happening.
From the question it is given that the chance of a is positive while the chance of b has the disease.
Therefore the probability of positive test can be calculated as
0.7 * 0.2 ( disease)
0.02 of 100-20 = 80%
p(A) = 0.7*0.2 + 0.02*0.8 = 0.156
Positive test and having the disease as the probability of probability of 3
From this [tex]P(AUB)[/tex] = 0.7 * 0.2 = 0.14
Probability that the person is having actually a disease:
P(B|A) = [tex]\frac{P(AUB)}{P(A)}[/tex]
= 0.14/0.156
= 0.8974 which is 89.74%
Therefore, the probability of a person having the diseases 89.74 percentage.
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The complete question is as follows:
A new medical test has been designed to detect the presence of the mysterious Brainlesserian disease. Among those who have the disease, the probability that the disease will be detected by the new test is 0.7. However, the probability that the test will erroneously indicate the presence of the disease in those who do not actually have it is 0.02. It is estimated that 20 % of the population who take this test have the disease. If the test administered to an individual is positive, what is the probability that the person actually has the disease
For many years, the medically accepted practice of giving aid to a person experiencing a heart attack was to have the person who placed the emergency call administer chest compression (CC) plus standard mouth-to-mouth resuscitation (MMR) to the heart attack patient until the emergency response team arrived. However, some researchers believed that CC alone would be a more effective approach. In the 1990s a study was conducted in Seattle in which 518 cases were randomly assigned to treatments: 278 to CC plus standard MMR and 240 to CC alone. A total of 64 patients survived the heart attack: 29 in the group receiving CC plus standard MMR, and 35 in the group receiving CC alone. A test of significance was conducted on the following hypotheses. H0 : The survival rates for the two treatments are equal. Ha : The treatment that uses CC alone produces a higher survival rate. This test resulted in a p−value of 0.0761.(a) Interpret what this p−value measures in the context of this study.(b) Based on this p-value and study design, what conclusion should be drawn in the context of this study? Use a significance level of α = 0.05.(c) Based on your conclusion in part (b), which type of error, Type I or Type II, could have been made? What is one potential consequence of this error?
The p-value of 0.0761 basically measures the chance of observing a difference among the two given sample proportions and since the p-value is greater than 0.05, the null hypothesis should not be rejected.
The p-value is 0.0761. It measures the chance of observing the difference between the two sample proportions that is as larger or larger than the one that was observed if the survival rates for the two treatments which are the CC alone and the CC + MMR are the same.
Since, the p-value is 0.0761, it is greater than significance level of 0.05 and so the null hypothesis should not be rejected. Therefore we can say that there is not enough evidence to conclude that the treatment of the CC alone produces a much higher survival rate as compared to the standard treatment of CC + MMR.
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What Poses the Highest Risk for Foodborne Illness?
Answer: Raw or undercooked meat or poultry
Explanation: It could get you so sick if you were to eat so much of it.
What drug is indicated for patients with refractory ventricular fibrillation?
Amiodarone is the drug which is indicated for patients with refractory ventricular fibrillation.
Amiodarone should be used for prolonged ventricular fibrillation (Vf) and ventricular tachycardia (VT) in out-of-hospital cardiac arrest patients who are resistant to CPR, defibrillation, and vasopressors. It is advised to use lidocaine instead of amiodarone.
A number of different cardiac dysrhythmias can be treated and prevented with the use of the antiarrhythmic drug amiodarone. This comprises atrial fibrillation, paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia, broad complex tachycardia, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation. Patients who have previously had treatment with other medications that did not function well are given this medication.
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The French parenting style is somewhat different. They believe in maintaining , which means a framework or boundary. Parents draw firm boundaries for children, and they expect children to abide by their rules and regulations. At the same time, they offer some degree of to their children
Allowing them to express themselves and make decisions within the boundaries established by their parents. This method is also known as the "law and grace" method.
French parents believe that having clear boundaries and expectations is essential for a child's development and growth, but they also believe in giving children space and freedom to pursue their own interests and make their own mistakes. The goal is to raise self-sufficient, self-reliant children who understand the consequences of their actions and can make informed decisions. When compared to other parenting styles, the French parenting style is often perceived as more structured and less permissive, but it has proven to be effective in helping children grow into confident and responsible adults.
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A patient gives you a story of having gone out to the movies last night, but who according to family members, has not left the house in years. This condition iscalled? A) ConfabulationB) ApoplexyC) DepressionD) Lying
A patient gives you a story of having gone out to the movies last night, but who according to family members, has not left the house in years. This condition iscalled confabulation (Option A).
Confabulation is a type of memory disturbance in which a person unconsciously fills in gaps in their memory with false information, leading to the creation of false memories. In this case, the patient is recalling a recent event that did not occur and may believe it to be true, despite evidence to the contrary. Confabulation can occur as a symptom of various neurological conditions, such as dementia or head injury, or due to the use of certain medications or substances. It is distinct from lying, which is a deliberate falsehood, or depression, which is a mental health disorder characterized by feelings of sadness and loss of interest in activities. Apoplexy is a medical term used to describe a sudden loss of consciousness, strength, or sensation due to a stroke, so it is not relevant in this scenario.
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medical facilities consider the following to ensure confidentiality of patient records.
Option D is correct. An individual has the right to have their personal and medical information kept secret or confidential.
Such sensitive and private information should only be shared between the patient and his doctor, physician, healthcare provider, or health insurance provider. Keep a note of the information you decide to disclose or not. Aid patients in getting access to their information. Respect patients' legal rights to view their health records and obtain copies of them as well as assist them in exercising such rights. Shred All paper papers, regardless of how important they are, should be locked away while not in use. Only those who require the information should be informed. Have a confidential non-disclosure agreement that is in writing and signed.
The complete question is- Which of the medical facilities consider the following to ensure confidentiality of patient records?
a-locks on medical record rooms.
b-passwords to access computerized records.
c-rules that prohibit employees from looking at records unless they have a need to know.
d-all of the above
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a food handler must be excluded from the operation for which pathogen
Answer:
hepatitis A
Explanation:
Salmonella Typhi exclude the food handler from the operation
funicular myelosis and hyperchromic anemia developed in a man 7 years later after the stomach resection due to ulcer. what pathogenic mechanism of changes in spinal cord is the most possible one?
The development of funicular myelosis and hyperchromic anemia seven years after stomach resection due to an ulcer may indicate a potential pathological mechanism in the spinal cord.
Funicular myelosis is a condition that affects the spinal cord and is characterized by degeneration of the nerve fibers within the cord. This can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, numbness, and difficulty with coordination and balance.
Hyperchromic anemia, on the other hand, is a condition where there is a decrease in the number of red blood cells in the body. This can lead to symptoms such as fatigue, weakness, and shortness of breath.
The most likely pathogenic mechanism of changes in the spinal cord in this case could be Vitamin B12 deficiency. Vitamin B12 is absorbed in the small intestine, and the removal of a portion of the small intestine during the stomach resection may have resulted in malabsorption of Vitamin B12, leading to its deficiency. Vitamin B12 deficiency can cause funicular myelosis and hyperchromic anemia, which are the symptoms the man is presenting with.
In conclusion, the development of funicular myelosis and hyperchromic anemia seven years after a stomach resection may be due to a Vitamin B12 deficiency, which is a result of malabsorption of the vitamin caused by the removal of a portion of the small intestine during the surgery. A proper diagnostic workup and appropriate treatment, such as Vitamin B12 supplementation, should be conducted to manage these conditions.
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