The 21st Amendment to the United States Constitution was ratified on December 5, 1933 and it repealed the 18th Amendment, which had established nationwide Prohibition of alcohol.
To put it simply, the 21st Amendment makes it permissible for individuals and corporations to once again manufacture, transport, sell, and consume alcoholic beverages. This amendment granted each state the ability to regulate and control the sale and distribution of alcohol inside its borders, resulting in a plethora of alcohol-related rules and regulations that differ from state to state.
The 21st Amendment is notable because it, for the first time in US history, reversed a previous constitutional amendment (the 18th Amendment). It also marked the end of Prohibition, a period in which the manufacture, sale, and consumption of alcoholic beverages were forbidden throughout the United States.
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Which of the following acts established a classification of drugs that would be available only by prescription?A) The 1996 Food Quality Protection ActB) The 1938 Food, Drug, and Cosmetic ActC) The 2006 USA PATRIOT ActD) The 1992 Prescription Drug User Fee Act
In the given question, "which act established a classification of drugs that would only be available by prescription", the answer will be The 1938 Food, Drug and Cosmetic Act.
Hence, the correct option is B).
The State took such a decision because, consumers would abuse drugs when they were easily available as well as there was a potential risk associated with is use and did not require a prescription from the doctor.
Through this Act drugs were now being registered and their safety and efficacy was examined by clinical trials.
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pursuant to the substantive due process requirement, which of the following rights protected in the constitution does not bear a substantial relationship to a compelling government purpose?
Under the substantive due process requirement, all rights protected in the Constitution bear a substantial relationship to a compelling government purpose.
What is Substantive due process?Substantive due process is a principle that requires government action to be fair, reasonable, and consistent with established legal principles, including the protection of individual rights.
The requirement applies to all levels of government and applies to all types of government actions, including legislation, administrative rules, and judicial decisions. Therefore, there is no right protected in the Constitution that does not bear a substantial relationship to a compelling government purpose under the substantive due process requirement.
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The power of the states to adopt laws to protect the general welfare of the people is called ex post facto. Ex post facto laws can be adopted by either the states or the national government. The requirement that a business be licensed would be an example of a shared power
The power of the states to adopt laws to protect the general welfare of the people is called ex post facto. This statement is true.
An ex post facto law is one that affects the legal consequences (or status) of actions or relationships that occurred before to the implementation of the legislation.
It may criminalize actions that were legal at the time they were committed; it may aggravate a crime by putting it in a more severe category than it was when it was committed.
It may change the punishment prescribed for a crime, such as by adding new penalties or extending sentences; or it may change the rules of evidence in order to make conviction for a crime more likely than it would have been when the deed was committed.
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Correct question:
The power of the states to adopt laws to protect the general welfare of the people is called ex post facto. Ex post facto laws can be adopted by either the states or the national government. The requirement that a business be licensed would be an example of a shared power. True or False.
which of the following explains why the supreme court ruled in favor of hobby lobby in burwell v. hobby lobby stores?
According to Hobby Lobby, the Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act's contraceptive mandate violates the right to religious freedom of privately held, for-profit businesses. This conclusion was made by the US Supreme Court.
What was the outcome of the Burwell v. Hobby Lobby shops case decided by the Supreme Court?The Supreme Court ruled against birth control access by a margin of 5 to 4, with the majority of the justices finding that Hobby Lobby and other "closely held enterprises" might refuse to provide birth control for their employees. The choice established a new benchmark.
Which side did Hobby Lobby stores take in the Burwell v. Hobby Lobby case?In an opinion for a 5-4 majority issued by Justice Samuel A. Alito, Jr., the Supreme Court determined that the contraceptive requirement violated the legal rights under the RFRA of both the individual plaintiffs and the non-profit businesses they owned.
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Two landowners owned adjacent lots A and B. Both lots were located in State Red, which has a 20-year adverse possession statute. Thirty years ago, the lot A owner married and left State Red to reside in State Blue. The lot A owner did not return to view the property during her period of residence in State Blue. One year after the lot A owner left, the lot B owner built a driveway on his land. The driveway extended three feet over onto lot A. The lot B owner mistakenly believed that this three-foot strip of land was his property. The lot B owner regularly used the driveway and was continuing to use it when the lot A owner, having been widowed, recently returned to State Red. The lot A owner discovered the encroachment on her return.
What are the lot A owner's rights against the lot B owner?
The lot A owner discovered the encroachment on her return. C. The lot A owner has an action against the lot B owner, because the lot A owner had no knowledge of the lot B owner's encroachment.
For the required statutory term, the lot B owner had exclusive, continuous ownership of the three-foot strip. This possession was public and well-known; it was also hostile (adverse).
The misunderstanding made by the lot B owner about possession of the three-foot strip is not determinative. The owner of Lot B has held negatively since his actions look to the community to be a claim of ownership and he is not holding with the owner's approval.
As a result, (D) is inaccurate. (C) is wrong because the open and infamous nature of the lot B owner's possession was enough to notify the genuine owner that a possession adverse to her title had been taken. (B) is an inaccurate legal statement; there is no such presumption.
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Correct question:
Two landowners owned adjacent lots A and B. Both lots were located in State Red, which has a 20-year adverse possession statute. Thirty years ago, the lot A owner married and left State Red to reside in State Blue. The lot A owner did not return to view the property during her period of residence in State Blue. One year after the lot A owner left, the lot B owner built a driveway on his land. The driveway extended three feet over onto lot A. The lot B owner mistakenly believed that this three-foot strip of land was his property. The lot B owner regularly used the driveway and was continuing to use it when the lot A owner, having been widowed, recently returned to State Red. The lot A owner discovered the encroachment on her return.
What are the lot A owner's rights against the lot B owner?
A. The lot A owner has no action against the lot B owner, because the lot B owner's title to the three-foot strip has been established by adverse possession.
B. The lot A owner has no action against the lot B owner, because her prolonged absence from State Red establishes a presumption of abandonment of her rights in the property.
C. The lot A owner has an action against the lot B owner, because the lot A owner had no knowledge of the lot B owner's encroachment.
D. The lot A owner has an action against the lot B owner, because the lot B owner mistakenly thought he owned the three-foot strip.
TRUE/FALSE. a person assumes any risk that is different from or greater than the risk normally carried by an activity.
False, these risks are too enormous for one person to handle, particularly when multiple people are involved. Instead of just one person, both the activity's organizers and the other participants should be responsible for sharing the risks and effects of their actions.
What does it mean to take a risk, exactly?The act of taking on a risk requires acknowledging the inherent dangers of the action actively or knowingly. The individual might also have received comprehensive and accurate information.
Why is it important to recognize assumptions and hazards equally?Risks and assumptions must be recognized in order to assess if the suggested Goals and Activities are feasible and attainable within the given time frame and with the available human and financial resources.
What distinguishes comparative negligence from contributory carelessness, and which standard is the most equitable?If the plaintiff is even somewhat at fault, they are ineligible to receive damages under the doctrine of contributory negligence. On the other hand, a plaintiff may still be awarded damages under comparative negligence. However, damages are typically diminished by the plaintiff's percentage of fault.
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Why doesn't the United States have a unitary form of government?
A federation is a good illustration of a governing structure. The federalist form of government established by the U.S. Constitution divides authorities between the 50 state governments and the federal government in Washington, D.C.
Citizens can anticipate a clear division of authority and prompt crisis management under a unitary system. Another drawback of unitary systems is their tendency to become overly centralized, disconnected from local demands, and authoritarian in nature.
The phrase "Federal Government" is frequently used to refer to the National Government in the United States, while the organization of the 50 state governments is unitary, not federal. An association of independent states is known as a confederation.
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When law enforcement agents arrest individuals, the officers must inform the individuals of their ______ rights; otherwise, any information a defendant offers at the time of the arrest is not admissible at trial.O BailO MirandaO grand juryO bench
When law enforcement agents arrest individuals, the officers must inform the individuals of their trial rights
What is a trial right?
A person has the right to a fair trial when they are accused of a crime or engaged in another legal dispute. This entails a timely, impartial court proceeding that is fair and open to the public.
Different TrialsCivil Case: A trial involving a dispute between two or more individuals or organizations.Criminal Case: A trial in which a defendant is alleged to have committed a felony or misdemeanor offense.A trial that typically involves a youngster under the age of seventeen is referred to as a juvenile case.Learn more about trial right here:
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The most controversial policy enforced by the EEOC was _____ action, designed to right past wrongs.
The EEOC rule that caused the most controversy was affirmative action, which sought to make reparations for prior wrongs. As a result, it is true that the statement "the most controversial policy enforced by the EEOC was an action aiming to correct past wrongs" is accurate.
Affirmative action was introduced during the presidency of President Lyndon Johnson (1963–1969) to expand opportunities for African Americans when civil rights laws abolished the excuses for discrimination.
The federal government was able to put affirmative action policies into place thanks to the momentous Civil Rights Act of 1964 and an executive order from 1965. For businesses receiving federal financing, it was forbidden to use aptitude tests and other standards that frequently inclined to discriminate against African Americans.
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a holistic term that emphasizes the centrality of material (economic) interests in the organization of society and the use of (political) power to protect and enhance these interests i
A political economy that emphasises the use of (political) power to advance and defend these interests as well as the importance of material (economic) interests in determining how society is organised.
The three men widely recognised as the fathers of modern economics are Adam Smith, David Ricardo, and John Stuart Mill. However, they went by the name of political economists, and from the time of its publication in 1848 until the turn of the century, Mill's Principles of Political Economy served as the discipline's foundational text. These pioneering theorists were unable to distinguish between the political and economic spheres.
The political from the economic analysis were separated by two trends. Governments first started to have less direct influence over the economy. Second, new political structures emerged: from largely monarchical to increasingly representative and highly diverse forms of government in Europe. Political science and economics had become distinct fields of study by the early 20th century.
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Italo falcone v. middlesex county medical society 162 a.2d 324, 62 n.j.super. 184, 1960 nj 40212 new jersey superior court, law division. True or False
Answer: False!
Explanation:
False. The case Italo Falcone v. Middlesex County Medical Society is a 1960 case from the New Jersey Superior Court, Appellate Division. The case number is 40212.
Italo Falcone v. Middlesex County Medical Society is a fictional case citation provided by you. Hence the statement is false.
There is no record of this case in the New Jersey Superior Court, Law Division, or any other jurisdiction. Additionally, the citation format you provided does not conform to the standard format used in legal citations.
While it is possible that a case with a similar name exists, the details you provided are not accurate or verifiable. It is important to ensure the accuracy of legal citations when referencing actual cases for legal research or analysis.
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the uniform commercial code is a major source of laws influencing data and privacy. true/false
False. The Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) is a set of laws that governs commercial transactions, including the sale of goods and commercial paper.
What is The Uniform Commercial Code (UCC)?In the United States, commercial transactions are governed by the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), a body of laws. The UCC is not a federal law; rather, it is a model legislation that the state legislatures of every US state have accepted entirely or in part. Regardless of the state in which the transaction occurs, the UCC aims to offer a uniform set of laws and regulations for business transactions.
Letters of credit secured transactions, the sale of products, commercial paper, and other business dealings are all covered by the UCC. It outlines specific guidelines for the creation of contracts, fulfilling contractual obligations, and resolving potential conflicts.
The way the UCC handles the sale of goods is one of its most important clauses. The UCC offers a thorough set of guidelines for the creation and execution of contracts for the sale of products, including the rights and obligations of the buyer and seller as well as the requirements for an agreement to be enforceable. The UCC also offers a framework for resolving disputes that could develop in the course of a sale of goods, including guidelines for the right to inspect items, the right to revoke acceptance, and the right to seek damages.
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What is 28 usc code 1332?
28 U.S.C. § 1332 is a federal law that outlines the jurisdiction of the United States District Courts over civil actions between citizens of different states or between citizens of a state and citizens or subjects of a foreign country.
28 U.S.C. 1332, in particular, requires that the parties to the action be citizens of different states or that the lawsuit involve a citizen of a state and a citizen or subject of a foreign country. Also, the sum in dispute must be greater than $75,000.
The goal of 28 U.S.C. 1332 is to allow parties to file certain sorts of civil cases in federal court rather than state court. This can be helpful for parties who believe that federal court will offer a more favourable conclusion or that federal court will provide a more neutral platform for their dispute.
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What happened in Tennessee v. Garner?
Tennessee v. Garner case was well known for the police officers' deadly action on a suspect.
What is the conflict of Tennessee v. Garner?Tennessee v. Garner is considered a well-known civil case in which the Supreme Court of the United States ruled that an officer in law enforcement could not use excessive force while following a running criminal in accordance with the 4th Amendment.
The Fourth Amendment's guarantee against unreasonable inspections was broken, and the court determined that the statute was unconstitutional as a result of the actions performed by the police on a person in name of inspection.
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what happen to united states v nixon ?
In the court case of the United States v Nixon, a unanimous decision was marked against the favor of President Nixon, and he was asked by the Supreme Court to deliver tape recordings and other critical evidences to the district court.
President Nixon has been heavily recognized as one of the most controversial presidents of the United States of America. During his tenure, he made a few scandals, for which a court case was also run in the Supreme Court. In the verdict made by the court, it became a landmark decision, and the consequences of the same have been mentioned.
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Complete question
What happened in the United States v Nixon?
juan has a poor driving record and has been unable to obtain auto liability coverage from private insurers. auto liability coverage is mandatory in his state. since affordability is a concern, juan wants auto liability coverage only. which one of the following is an option for juan to obtain coverage?
States that Juan has a choice to get coverage through the residual market.
There are numerous different insurance programmes in place all over the United States that help high-risk policyholders who might have trouble finding coverage on the open market. Basic insurance coverage is more easily accessible thanks to so-called residual, shared, or involuntary market programmes. The Fair Access to Insurance Requirements (FAIR) Plans, Beach and Windstorm Plans, and the state-run insurance firms in Florida and Louisiana, Florida Citizens Property Insurance Corp. (CPIC) and Louisiana Citizens Property Insurance Corp., offer property insurance from the residual market at the moment (Louisiana Citizens).
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Complete Question -
juan has a poor driving record and has been unable to obtain auto liability coverage from private insurers. auto liability coverage is mandatory in his state. since affordability is a concern, Juan wants auto liability coverage only. which one of the following is an option for juan to obtain coverage? obtain coverage through:
a. risk retention group
b. fraternal organization
c. states reinsurance pool
d. states residual market
State legislatures are the primary locus of ____________, which is the power to make laws in furtherance of the public health, safety, welfare, and morality.
The police power, which is the authority to enact laws to promote the public's health, safety, welfare, and morality, is primarily vested in state legislatures.
The primary responsibility of the police is to safeguard the public by detecting and preventing crime. The police have both common law and legislative authority to carry out this duty, which has been established in common law (precedents set by court decisions).
Laws governing equal rights and human rights must be compatible with the use of police authority. Each police officer is in charge of making sure their use of authority is proper, reasonable, and required.
Three categories can be used to classify police powers:
the ability to look into crimes - This includes a variety of authorities to gather information necessary to identify suspects and support a fair and efficient trial for them.the ability to stop crime - This includes a variety of authority to preserve public peace, stop antisocial behaviour, and control known criminals or suspects.the ability to "dispose" of criminal cases - Police can use these powers to resolve criminal cases outside of court or to charge suspects so that they can be brought to justice.Learn more about " police powers " to visit here;
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[TRUE or FALSE] : internal control components are built on the foundation of the tone established by top management in its control environment.
It is completely appropriate to be mentioning that the foundation of the tone by the top-level management in the control environment is the one upon which the internal control components are being built. Thus, the given statement is to be held as true.
The management of each of the organizational environments is further divided into levels of management, i.e., top-level, subordinate-level, and lower-level. The main focus of the top-level management is always to take care of the control environment by establishing the ideal foundation of its tone.
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What is Expo Facto law?
An Ex Post Facto Law may be understood as the law that is subject to change with a given change in the legal consequences of an action that was committed by the individual under question.
An ex post facto law can be generally taken into interpretation for better understanding as the laws that change with a given change in actions committed by a defendant, which is well before the law was actually brought into an enactment, so that a decision can be made. Thus, it often leads to formation or change in the existing laws.
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complete question
What is an ex post facto law?
the fourteenth amendment’s equal protection clause requires that everyone be treated equally. (true or false)
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
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what is one reason for a general pressure to conform in american society during the 1950s?
After the events of the Second World War, there was a sense of uniformity in American society as a series of socially accepted patterns of behavior were introduced during this time due to the war.
Subsequently, Similarity, which is the way of behaving of acting as per the overall guidelines set by society showed up. With respect to economy, the nation was going through a significant phase of development which expanded the abundance of the normal American resident, driving mentalities like realism. As an end, it was extremely hard to simply "acting naturally" during the 1950s.
In a post bellum period, a great many people simply needed to carry on with calm lives. The loss of socialism required a brought together society. In a time of Cold Conflict pressures, debate was deterred.
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What does the United States Census Bureau do?
federal judges are appointed to __________ terms.
In the White house, as per Article three of the Constitution, Federal judges are generally appointed to life terms.
The resolution of cases brought before US federal courts are the main responsibility of federal judges. Due to their restricted jurisdiction, most federal courts only take matters into consideration when doing so is permissible by either federal legislation or the country's Constitution. These judges are appointed for life, as specified in Article three of the American Constitution. Being elected, they serve until they die, quit, are removed from office and found guilty, or decide to retire.
The goal of the lifetime appointment is to protect the court from shifting political tides and ensure that federal judges may make decisions without being subjected to political pressure. A judge's decisions may have an impact long after they have retired from the bench, and fresh nominations to the bench may cause the balance of power in the courts to gradually shift over time.
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what is the main goal of policymakers in regard to the business cycle?
The major objective of policymakers with regard to the business cycle is to reduce the size of both recessions and booms in order to lessen the volatility of the business cycle.
Objectives of policymakersA variety of measures are put in place to "smooth out" the business cycle, minimize the severity of recessions, and rein in excessively powerful expansions. The short-term oscillations in the business cycle can be managed by the government through the employment of either fiscal policymakers or monetary policy.
Fiscal policy refers to changes to the budget deficit. Monetary policy is the term used to describe changes made to short-term interest rates by the Federal Reserve.
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Sujin must send an email about longer working hours and salary increase to all the employees who work in her organization. Which organizing strategy should she use in conveying this message?
She should answer all the questions the employees are likely to have in the email.
She should end the email by giving importance to the message and not the employees.
She should place the good news at the end of the message and the bad news in the middle of the message.
She should not present the bad news in a positive way, as it might confuse the employees.
She should answer all the questions the employees are likely to have in the email is organizing strategy should she use in conveying this message.
Option A is correct.
A strategic plan that outlines how your company will allocate resources (such as time, money, and inventory) to support all of its activities is known as an organizational strategy. It is typically developed by the leadership team. Examples of general business activities include: acquiring or creating stock to satisfy market demand.
In strategic management, what exactly is organizing?The management function of organizing involves allocating human resources and creating an organizational structure to ensure the achievement of goals. The framework within which effort is coordinated is the organization's structure.
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A gang member determined that he needed to avenge a recent shooting of his friend by killing a member of the rival gang responsible for the shooting. He drank heavily to build up his courage and then went to t eh home of the rival with a loaded gun and knocked on the door. When the rival opened the door, the gang member pointed the gun at the rival and pulled the trigger. However, due to being intoxicated, he had forgotten to release the safety, so the gun did not discharge. He was easily disarmed by the rival and arrested by the police. At his trial, he testified that he was so intoxicated that he did not remember anything that happened at the rival's house.
If the gang member's testimony is believed, what is the most serious crime of which the defendant may be convicted?
The gang member's testimony is believed, then most serious crime of that may be convicted is Attempted Murder.
The most serious crime of which the defendant may be convicted depends on the specific laws and circumstances of the case, as well as the decision of the judge or jury. However, if the gang member's evidence that he was so intoxicated that he didn't recall anything that happened at the competitor's residence is believed, he could be convicted of attempted murder or attempted manslaughter because his acts show the desire to kill the rival. The fact that the gun did not discharge, on the other hand, may be taken into account and result in a lesser charge or a reduced punishment. The court must finally decide the proper charges and sentencing based on the facts given.
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Which of the following is true about the duty of care?
a. Breach of duty of care is not actionable unless the plaintiff suffers injury or injury to his or her property.
b. The damages recoverable for breach of the duty of care are independent of the effect of the injury on the plaintiff's life or profession.
c. Reasonable person standard is used to determine the amount of damages that a defendant owes a plaintiff.
d. A firefighter who refuses to put out a fire when his safety is not at stake does not breach his duty of care.
The given statement "A firefighter who refuses to put out a fire when his safety is not at stake does not breach his duty of care" is correct.
Hence, the correct option is d.
Option d is true because a firefighter who refuses to put out a fire when their safety is not at stake does not breach their duty of care. This is known as the public duty doctrine, which provides that firefighters and other emergency responders have a duty to the general public as a whole, rather than to individual citizens.
As such, they are generally not liable for damages resulting from their failure to provide assistance in a specific situation, as long as they did not create the danger themselves.
Option a is partially true because a breach of the duty of care may not be actionable unless the plaintiff suffers injury or damage to their property.
Option b is false because the damages recoverable for breach of the duty of care are not independent of the effect of the injury on the plaintiff's life or profession.
Option c is also false because the reasonable person standard is used to determine whether a defendant has breached their duty of care, not the amount of damages owed to the plaintiff.
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the _____ of the first amendment prohibits congress and the federal government from establishing a national religion.
The Establishment clause of the first amendment prohibits congress and the federal government from establishing a national religion.
The First Amendment to the U.S. Constitution ensures that individuals in the United States can practice their own religion or choose not to practice any religion. The Establishment Clause bars the government from promoting or endorsing any specific religion. The government cannot provide financial assistance to any religious group.
The Establishment Clause was enacted to prevent the establishment of a national church and has also been made applicable to the states. Its purpose is to prevent the government from displaying favoritism towards a particular religion over others or towards religion over non-religion. state governments are forbidden from creating an official state religion.
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Constitutional checks and balances, especially applied to the president are designed to:
A. Provide for a balanced budget
B. Ensure that the states do not become too powerful
C. Ensure efficient government
D. Minimize the threat of tyranny from any branch of government
The correct option is D,Minimize the threat of tyranny from any branch of government.
The indigenous checks and balances especially those applied to the chairman are intended to minimize the threat of despotism from any branch of government. These checks and balances include the separation of powers among the legislative, administrative, and judicial branches of government, with each branch having a specific set of powers and liabilities. The chairman powers are also limited through colorful mechanisms similar as the demand for Senate blessing of presidential movables and covenants as well as the power of Congress to stamp a presidential proscription.
These checks and balances insure that no single branch or existent has too important power precluding the eventuality for abuse of power and maintaining a balanced system of government.
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To show breach of duty, a plaintiff may rely on evidence of any of the following except:A. Res ipsa loquiturB. Violation of a statuteC. A "Good Samaritan" lawD. Custom or usage
To show breach of duty, a plaintiff may rely on evidence of any but not a "Good Samaritan" law.
Hence, the correct option is C.
A "Good Samaritan" law has nothing to do with breach of duty, it is a statute that exempts licensed doctors and nurses, who can voluntarily render emergency treatments, due to liability of ordinary negligence in an emergency or clash. In order to prove the breach of duty it must be show facts of case, and (based on these facts) that the defendant acted unreasonably. Proof of what happened may be established by either direct or circumstantial evidence. A Good Samaritan law is a legal protection provided to those who helped the victim of any accident from legal interventions.
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