Use the Well-Ordering Principle to prove that given a > 0, a^n > 0 for every positive integer n

Answer:

The temperature difference relative to the high temperature is -2°F.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that the temperature started at 35°F. The temperature went down 4°F and then up 2°F.

Firstly, the original temperature = 35°F

Now, it is stated that the temperature went down 4°F, this means that the temperature decreases by this amount.

So, the new temperature = 35°F - 4°F = 31°F

Now, the temperature went up by 2°F, this means that the temperature increases by this amount.

So, the final temperature = 31°F + 2°F = 33°F

Now, the final temperature difference relative to the high temperature is given by = 33°F - 35°F = -2°F.

{Here, the maximum temperature is 35°F}

Answer:

Value of [tex]x[/tex] is $15$ degrees and measure of a vertical angle is $105$°

Step-by-step explanation:

These are vertically opposite angles which are congruent and hence equal.

Thus,

[tex]x+90=7x\\

\implies 90=6x\\

\implies x=\frac{90}{6}=\frac{30}{2}=15^o[/tex]

Find the measure of a vertical angle by putting the value of $x$ as $15$

Answer:

Distance = 8

[tex]Formula =\\\sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_2)^2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex](17,3)=(x_1 , y_1 )\\ (17,-5)=(x_2,y_2)\\\\d = \sqrt{(x_2-x_1)^2+(y_2-y_1)^2} \\\\d = \sqrt{(17-17)^2+(-5-3)^2}\\\\ d = \sqrt{(0 )^2+(-8)^2}\\\\d = \sqrt{0 +64}\\\\ d = \sqrt{64} \\\\d = 8[/tex]

Answer:

$1,250

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

Loan to value ratio;LTV = 80% = 0.8

Appraised value of property = $72,250

Selling value of property = $73,500

Now, the formula for Loan to value ratio is;

LTV = Loan amount/Appraised value of property

0.8 = loan amount/72250

Cross multiply to get;

Loan amount = 0.8 × 72250 = $57,800

Now,we are told that he has saved $14,450.

Thus, total money raised including loan = $57,800 + $14,450 = $72,250

Since the selling value = $73,500, then,

Amount left for him to save in order to make down payment = $73,500 - $72,250 = $1,250

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Hi my lil bunny!

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Let's simplify step-by-step.

[tex]Log (5) + (3 log (2)) - \frac{log(4)}{log(10)}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.69897 + 3(log (2)) - \frac{log (4)}{log (10)}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.69897 + (3) (0.30103) - \frac{log (4)}{log(10)}[/tex]

[tex]= 0.69897 + 0.90309 - \frac{log (4)}{log(10)}[/tex]

[tex]= 1.60206 - \frac{log(4)}{log(10)}[/tex]

[tex]= 1.60206 - \frac{1.60206}{log (10)}[/tex]

[tex]= 1.60206 - \frac{1.60206}{1}[/tex]

[tex]= 1.60206 - 0.60206[/tex]

[tex]= 1[/tex]

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●✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎❀✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎✴︎●

Have a great day/night!

❀*May*❀

Answer:

5 Games

Step-by-step explanation:

Step 1: State what is known

We know for every 5 games the win they lose 1 game

They won 5 games

Step 2: Define your variables

Let x represent how many games the Basketball team lost

Step 3: Create equation

[tex]\frac{5}{1}=\frac{25}{x}[/tex]

Step 4: Solve for 'x'

Cross multiply to solve for 'x'

[tex]5x=25[/tex]

[tex]x=\frac{25}{5}[/tex]

x = 5

Therefore the will have lost 5 games

Answer:

(x² + 6)(3x² - 4)

Step-by-step explanation:

factor out (x² + 6)

(x² + 6)(3x² - 4)

Answer:

12√3 inches or 20.785 inches.

Step-by-step explanation:

A regular hexagon can be defined as a polygon with 6 sides.

The formula for the perimeter of a regular hexagon =

6 × the length of the sides of the hexagon.

From the above question, we are told that there is an inscribed circle I'm the hexagon with a diameter of 4√3 inches long

Step 1

Find the radius of the circle

Radius of the circle = 4√3/2 = 2√3 inches

Step 2

The radius of the inscribed circle = Length of one of the sides of a regular hexagon.

Hence, the perimeter of the regular hexagon = 6 × 2√3

= 12√3 inches

= 20.784609691 inches.

Approximately 20.785 inches

=======================================================

Explanation:

The plane needs to go up 29,000-8,000 = 21,000 feet

It does so at a rate of 3500 ft per min

So it needs 21000/3500 = 6 minutes to get to the proper height.

---------

You can think of it like the equation

3500x = 21000

where x is the number of minutes needed. Dividing both sides by 3500 solves to x = 6.

-----------

Or you could think of it like this

1 minute = 3500 feet

1/3500 minute = 1 foot (divide both sides by 3500)

1 foot = 1/3500 minute

21000 feet = 21000/3500 minute (multiply both sides by 21000)

21000 feet = 6 minutes

This shows that to go up 21000 feet, the plane needs 6 minutes to do so.

Answer:

the answer 18 because:

40=2X+4

Answer:

(x + 1)(x + 1) = 0  OR  (x + 1)^2 = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

First, we need to get the trinomial x^2 + 2x = -1 all on one side of the equation.

x^2 + 2x = -1

x^2 + 2x + 1 = -1 + 1

x^2 + 2x + 1 = 0

Now that the trinomial is on the left-hand side, let's factor the equation.

x^2 + 2x + 1 = 0

(x + 1)(x + 1) = 0

We can simplify this factored trinomial further to be:

(x + 1)(x + 1) = 0

(x + 1)^2 = 0

Cheers.

Answer:

0.7176

Step-by-step explanation:

We solve this question, using z score formula.

Z score formula = (x - μ)/σ

where x is the raw score

μ is the population mean

σ is the population standard deviation.

For z1, where x1 = 2.8, μ = 4, σ = 0.5

z score formula = (2.8 - 4)/0.5

= -2.4

We find the probability of the z score using the z score table.

P(x = 2.8) = P(z = -2.4)

= 0.0081975

For z2, where x2 = 4.3, μ = 4, σ = 0.5

z score formula = (4.3 - 4)/0.5

= 0.3/0.5

= 0.6

We find the probability of the z score using the z score table.

P(x = 4.3) = P(z = 0.6)

= 0.72575

The probability that an item will take between 2.8 and 4.3 hours to move through the assembly line is calculated as:

= 2.8 < x < 4.3

= P(z = 0.6) - P(z = -2.4)

= 0.72575 - 0.0081975

= 0.7175525

Approximately ≈ 0.7176

Therefore, the probability that an item will take between 2.8 and 4.3 hours to move through the assembly line is 0.7176

Answer:

[tex]0+6\sqrt{2}i[/tex]

or just [tex]6\sqrt{2}i[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\sqrt{-72}[/tex] does not have a real part, it is a pure imaginary number.

Let's simplify.

First step:

[tex]\sqrt{-1}=i[/tex] is the imaginary unit.

So we have that we can write [tex]\sqrt{-72}=i \sqrt{72}[/tex].

Second step:

Let's simplify the factor [tex]\sqrt{72}[/tex] by looking for perfect squares of [tex]72[/tex].

[tex]72=2(36)=2(6^2)[/tex]

So [tex]36[/tex] is a perfect square because it can be written as [tex]6^2[/tex].

[tex]\sqrt{-72}[/tex]

[tex]i \sqrt{72}[/tex]

[tex]i \sqrt{2 \cdot 6^2}[/tex]

[tex]i \sqrt{2} \sqrt{6^2}[/tex]

[tex]i \sqrt{2} 6[/tex]

[tex]6 \sqrt{2}i[/tex]

We could write this as [tex]0+6\sqrt{2}i[/tex].

Answer:

(x - 3)mph * > 2x

Step-by-step explanation:

KC's total rides in hours = 2x

KC's average speed = x

David's average speed :

3 mph less than KC's average speed = (x - 3)mph

David's total ride in hours in a month is more than KC's, that is ( >2x)

From the equation:

Speed = distance / time

Distance = speed * time

Total distance of miles David rides each month:

(x - 3)mph * > 2x

Greetings from Brasil...

Using sine, we will be able to find the value of X

SEN 17 = X/47

X = 47 · SEN 17

X = 47 · 0,29237

X = 13,741

Answer: 2y + 5x + 16 = 0

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this you need to understand the principle/ conditions for parallelism and perpendicularity.

for two lines to be parallel to each other, their gradients or slopes (m) must be equal, that is  m₁ = m₂

Now from the given equation,

5x + 2y = 14 , we need to rearrange it to conform to the equation of a straight line so that the gradient could be established. ie

y = mx + c where m is the gradient

 2y = -5x  + 14

   y = -5x/2  + 14/2

   y = ⁻⁵ˣ/₂  + 7 , therefore , m₁ = ⁻⁵/₂ and m₂ = ⁻⁵/₂ ( parallelism Rule )

The next step is to find the value of C using the coordinate ( -2, -3 )

  -3 = ⁻⁵/₂ ˣ ⁻² + C,

  -3 =  ¹⁰/₂  + C

  -3 =  5 + C

   C = -8.

Now to find the equation of the line that passed through the coordinate

  y = mx + c

  y = ⁻⁵ˣ/₂  - 8

  2y = -5x - 16

  2y + 5x + 16 = 0.

Answer:

The coordinates of A would be (-1, 2)

Step-by-step explanation:

In order to find this, use the mid-point formula.

(xA + xB)/2 = xM

In this, the xA is the x value of point A, xB is the x value of point B, and xM is the x value of M. Now we plug in the known information and solve for xA.

(xA + 5)/2 = 2

xA + 5 = 4

xA = -1

Now we can do the same using the midpoint formula and the y values.

(yA + yB)/2 = yM

(yA + 10)/2 = 6

yA + 10 = 12

yA = 2

This gives us the midpoint of (-1, 2)

Answer:

it has a 1% chance.

Step-by-step explanation:

Because of the whole there is one chip in it that has a 2 on it so it has a 1% chance out of 100%

Answer:

| and |V only

Step-by-step explanation:

4, 25, and 32 are Counting numbers, while 0 is a whole number B)

Answer:

871 and 1/2 feet is correct

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: A=276.52 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the surface area of the figure, we can find the surface area of the rectangular prism and hemisphere. Then we would add them together.

Rectangular Prism

A=2(lw+hl+hw)

Since we are given the length, width, and height, we can directly plug them into the equation and solve.

[tex]A=2((10*5)+(4*10)+(4*5))[/tex]

[tex]A=2(50+40+20)[/tex]

[tex]A=2(110)[/tex]

[tex]A=220 cm^2[/tex]

The surface area for the rectangular prism is 220 cm².

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Hemisphere

A=2πr²

This formula above is derived from the formula for surface area of a sphere.

The surface area of a sphere is A=4πr². Since the picture displays half of a sphere, we divide that by 2. This gives us A=2πr².

Since we have the radius, all we have to do is plug it in.

[tex]A=2\pi (3)^2[/tex]

[tex]A=2\pi (9)[/tex]

[tex]A=18\pi[/tex]

[tex]A=56.52 cm^2[/tex]                             *Note I used 3.14 instead of π.

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Now that we have the surface area of the hemisphere and rectangular prism, we add them together to find the surface area of the entire prism.

A=220+56.52=276.52 cm²

Answer:

64

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

b< -76

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer is any number smaller than -76

Answer:

Answer:

b< -76

Step-by-step explanation:

8 - 1/4 b > 27         ⇒ add -8 to both sides

-1/4b > 27 - 8      

-1/4 b > 19              ⇒ multiply both sides by -4

b < - 4*19               ⇒ change inequality sing to opposite due to multiplication to negative number

b < - 76                  ⇒ answer

Answer is any number smaller than -76

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

  104°

Step-by-step explanation:

The marked angles have the same measure, so ...

  (4x +10) = (7x -11)

  21 = 3x . . . . . . . . . . . add 11-4x

  7 = x . . . . . . . . . . . . . divide by 3

Then angle C is ...

  C = (4x +10)° = (4(7) +10)° = 38°

The measure of angle A is 180° -2(38°) = 104°.

_____

That angle will have the same measure whether the pennant is rotated or not.

Answer:

5 days

Step-by-step explanation:

You subtract $610 from $1800. You should get 1190.

Then divide 1190 with 238.

The answer you get should be 5.

Answer:

5 days

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

EF, FG, GH, EG, FH, EH

Step-by-step explanation:

These are all the ones under def. line segment.

See the attachment. It will be helpful.

This is equivalent to x = z/8 + h or x = (1/8)z + h

=================================================

Work Shown:

z = 8(x-h)

z = 8x-8h ... distribute

8x-8h = z

8x = z+8h .... adding 8h to both sides

x = (z+8h)/8 .... dividing both sides by 8

x = z/8 + 8h/8

x = z/8 + h

x = (1/8)z + h

Answer:

Option C: Do free market economies create problems for workers?

Step-by-step explanation:

There was a law called Say's law which states that capitalist production generates its own markets, and therefore, there can't possibly be any gluts or overproduction of goods in relation to market demand.

Now, keynes and marx rejected this say's law because they both believed that gluts or overproduction may likely occur.

They believed that this law would make capitalists own nothing but the right to sell their labor in exchange for wages.

That due to the capitalists competition with themselves for profits, it would squeeze as much work as possible out of the working class people at the lowest possible price and that this competition would cause some capitalist firms to fail, and thereby increasing unemployment among the working class.

Thus, it's clear this was an answer to the question on whether free market economies create problems for workers.

Answer:

A.Should government take total control over economies

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

(a) The sample space is {00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30}.

(b) If the wheel is spun 1,000 times, it is expected about 31 of those times to result in the ball landing in slot 3.

(c) If the wheel is spun 100 times, it is expected about 47 of those times to result in the ball landing in an odd number.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that in the game of roulette, a wheel consists of 32 slots numbered 00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30.

To play the game, a metal ball is spun around the wheel and is allowed to fall into one of the numbered slots.

(a) The sample space is {00, 0, 1, 2, . . . , 30} which means the metal ball can land on any of these numbers.

(b) As we know that there is an equal probability of the metal ball landing on any of the slots marked in the sample space.

Total number of slots = 32

Number of slots marked with 3 = 1

So, the probability that the metal ball falls into the slot marked 3 is given by =  [tex]\frac{1}{32}[/tex]  = 0.031 or 3.1%

This means that if the wheel is spun 100 times, it is expected about 3.1 of those times to result in the ball landing in slot 3.

So, if the wheel is spun 1,000 times, it is expected about 31 of those times to result in the ball landing in slot 3 because (0.031 [tex]\times[/tex] 1000) = 31.

(c) As we know that the odd slot in the given sample space is {1, 3, 5,......, 29}.

Total number of slots = 32

Number of odd slots = 15

So, the probability that the metal ball lands in an odd slot is given by =  [tex]\frac{15}{32}[/tex]  = 0.47 or 47%.

This means that if the wheel is spun 100 times, it is expected about 47 of those times to result in the ball landing in an odd number.

Answer:

Three point one seven is your answer.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope it will help you:)