the north american flying squirrel and the draco lizard of southeast asia have both evolved a membrane between their limbs that allows them to glide between trees in their habitats. given that the species do not share a recent common ancestor, which of the following patterns of evolution would explain the development of this anatomical structure in both organisms? parallel evolution divergent evolution convergent evolution a. i only b. ii only c. iii only d. i and ii only

Answers

Answer 1

The following patterns of evolution would explain the development of this anatomical structure in both organisms (the north american flying squirrel and the draco lizard of southeast asia have both evolved a membrane between their limbs that allows them to glide between trees in their habitats. given that the species do not share a recent common ancestor) is convergent evolution (option c. iii only )

Sugar gliders are related to kangaroos and koalas, while squirrels are related to flying lemurs. The similarities between the three types of gliders are the result of convergent evolution, which occurs when similar adaptations evolve independently in different groups.

So, over thousands of years, the Draco lizard has removed the ground from the equation by developing the ability to fly.

These so-called flying dragons have elongated ribs that can be extended and retracted. Between these ribs are folds of skin that, when not in use, rest flat against the body but act as wings when unfurled, allowing the Draco to catch the wind and glide. The lizards steer themselves with their long, slender tails, and each sortie can carry them up to 30 feet.

As a result, despite their distant evolutionary relationship, the flying squirrel and Draco lizard have both evolved an anatomical structure for gliding between trees.

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Related Questions

Two students in the debate club are preparing arguments for and against the use of nuclear energy. Each student will have five minutes to present an argument based on scientific evidence.
The student who supports the use of nuclear energy is considered a proponent of nuclear energy.

The student who does not support the use of nuclear energy is considered an opponent of nuclear energy.

The proponent presents his argument first. His argument is based on the following key points.

Nuclear energy does not emit any greenhouse gases.
Nuclear energy does not contribute to global warming.
Next, the opponent presents his argument.

Which pair of key points is the opponent most likely to use in his argument against the use of nuclear energy?

(1 point)
Responses

There is no safe place or method to store nuclear waste.
Nuclear energy creates waste that remains dangerously radioactive for thousands of years.
There is no safe place or method to store nuclear waste. Nuclear energy creates waste that remains dangerously radioactive for thousands of years. ,

Nuclear energy is not a renewable resource.
Nuclear energy releases gases into the atmosphere that deplete the ozone layer.
Nuclear energy is not a renewable resource. Nuclear energy releases gases into the atmosphere that deplete the ozone layer. ,

Nuclear energy contaminates local water supplies.
Nuclear energy impacts climate change.
Nuclear energy contaminates local water supplies. Nuclear energy impacts climate change. ,

Nuclear energy creates acid fog and clouds.
Nuclear waste in the air harms trees.

Answers

The pair of key points that the opponent is most likely to use in his argument against the use of nuclear energy is that

there is no safe place or method to store nuclear waste.Nuclear energy creates waste that remains dangerously radioactive for thousands of years

What is nuclear energy?

The energy found in the nucleus, or core, of an atom, is referred to as nuclear energy.

The following are some advantages of nuclear energy:

One of the lowest-carbon energy sources is it.Its carbon footprint is also among the smallest.One of the solutions to the energy gap is this.It is crucial to how we respond to greenhouse gas emissions and climate change.

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Why is the Dutch Elm Disease not considered invasive to the Netherlands?

Answers

Answer: It is an invasive species that hurts trees.  

which type of membrane protein would likely be most easily removed in a laboratory experiment?

Answers

Answer: Peripheral Proteins

Explanation: Peripheral proteins are easily removable from the membrane in a laboratory experiment by changing the pH or increasing the salt concentration of a given solution

the children in a family have blood groups a b and o. what are the genotypes of their parents

Answers

If one parent carries a dominant allele, 50% of the offspring will as well. blood type, blood antibodies, substances in the blood, and genotype.

How do genotype and phenotype differ?

The genotype of a human is their own DNA pattern. More specifically, the two genotypes a person acquired for a given gene are referred to using this phrase. This genetic, or phenotypic, manifests itself in a participant's clinical presentation.

How can a genotype be determined?

Punnett triangles may be used to identify a gene. If you are working in a more advanced laboratory, you can use analytical procedures like Pcr assay and nucleic hybrids to determine the types that seem to be present.

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In the ear, the process of transduction occurs in theO auditory cortexO outer earO eardum

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In the ear, the process of transduction occurs in the cochlea, which is located in the inner ear.

Auditory transduction starts by converting sound pressure waves into mechanical vibrations of the eardrum and ossicles. These vibrations get transmitted through the middle ear to the cochlea, where they are converted into electrical signals by hair cells.

The inner ear's cochlea is where vibrations are transformed into nerve impulses that are then delivered to the brain. It is also known as the organ of hearing. The cochlea is a small conical structure resembling a snail shell.

The function of cochlea:

The inner ear contains a hollow spiral-shaped bone called the cochlea, which is essential to hearing and takes part in auditory transduction. Electrical impulses are converted from sound waves into distinct sound frequencies by the brain.

Therefore, the process of transduction occurs in the cochlea, which is located in the inner ear.

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How many times a day should I feed solids to my 6 month old?

Answers

From 6-8 months old, feed your child a portion of a cup of delicate food a few times each day. Your child can eat anything with the exception of honey, which she shouldn't eat until she is a year old.

Babies ordinarily need to eat each 2-3 hours, five to multiple times during the day. It is typical for a child's timetable to change from one day to another, or for infants to eat various measures of food every day. Parental figures can follow a child's prompts, regardless of whether they have laid out a timetable now.

Be that as it may, what happens when your child begins eating strong food: is it conceivable to overload him? The short response is: indeed, on the off chance that you disregard his signals and are not offering the right food varieties. This is an acceptable exhortation en route to forestall overloading your child: Post for prompts and quit taking care of your child when he is full.

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How can chromatin structure be modified in eukaryotes?

Answers

Chromatin structure in eukaryotes can be modified through a number of mechanisms, including histone modifications, DNA methylation, and non-coding RNA.

What is DNA methylation?

DNA methylation is a process in which a methyl group is added to the DNA molecule. This modification of the DNA affects the expression of genes, which determines the physical characteristics of an organism. DNA methylation is an epigenetic process, meaning that it does not alter the original DNA sequence but instead affects how the DNA is expressed. During DNA methylation, a single carbon and three hydrogen atoms (CH3) are added to a cytosine nucleotide, which is located next to a guanine nucleotide. This process is catalyzed by enzymes called DNA methyltransferases and can occur on both the DNA strands of the double helix.DNA methylation plays an important role in the regulation of gene expression, which is the process that determines how genes are expressed in an organism.

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White-tailed deer are seasonal breeders. Female white-tailed deer begin their reproductive cycle in the fall. Rising testosterone levels in male white-tailed deer cause them to start their breeding season around the same time. Offspring are born the following spring and summer. What is the most likely explanation for white-tailed deer having a seasonal breeding cycle instead of a monthly breeding cycle like many domesticated animals?
answer choices
O Male and female deer come into contact with each other only in the fall
O Large predators are not found in deer habitats during the spring and summer months
O Giving birth only in the spring and summer ensures that offspring are born when food is most available
O Deer give birth in the spring and summer in order to avoid being pregnant during the hot summer months.

Answers

Only giving birth in the spring and summer guarantees that the young are born when there is the greatest supply of food. the most plausible explanation for white-tailed deer mating cycles, which are seasonal rather than monthly like many domestic animals.

The seasonal mating cycle of white-tailed deer serves to guarantee that young are born when food is most plentiful, which is the most plausible reason for it. The food supply in the locations where white-tailed deer reside can fluctuate significantly from season to season. The moms may give birth to their children at a time when food is plentiful by only giving birth in the spring and summer. The chances of the children surviving and flourishing are increased as a result. The seasonal breeding cycle also gives moms enough time to recuperate from childbirth prior to the arrival of winter and the ensuing decline in food supply.

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The house mouse, Mus musculus, has a diploid chromosome number of 40. How many chromosomes would be found in the following? a. monosomic cell b. trisomic cell c. nullisomic cell d. double tetrasomic cell e. triploid cell f. 4n + 2 cell g. disomic gamete h. nullisomic gamete

Answers

The diploid chromosome number of the house mouse, Mus musculus, is 40. Therefore, the number of chromosomes in the following cells can be determined as follows:

a. Monosomic cell: 40 - 1 = 39 chromosomes

b. Trisomic cell: 40 + 1 = 41 chromosomes

c. Nullisomic cell: 40 - 2 = 38 chromosomes

d. Double tetrasomic cell: 40 + 4 + 4 = 48 chromosomes

e. Triploid cell: 40 x 3 = 120 chromosomes

f. 4n + 2 cell: 40 x 4 + 2 = 162 chromosomes

g. Disomic gamete: 40 / 2 = 20 chromosomes

h. Nullisomic gamete: 40 - 2 / 2 = 19 chromosomes

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which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane? group of answer choices a solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules a bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move a protein bilayer with lipids embedded in a different pattern in different cell types. three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended

Answers

The Correct option is B; A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move .

The phospholipid bilayer, which creates a durable barrier between two aqueous compartments, is the membrane's fundamental structure.

Cell membrane refers to the membrane that surrounds the cell. Only particular molecules or ions can flow through it. As a result, it is known as a selectively permeable membrane. Depending on the conditions inside or outside the cell, the cell membrane can also prevent some molecules from passing through.

As a result, the cell membrane serves two functions: first, as a barrier that keeps cell constituents in and undesired things out, and second, as a gate that allows vital nutrients into the cell and waste products out.

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Full Question ;

Which of the following correctly describes the structural organization of the cell membrane?

A. A solid, rigid layer of phospholipid with loosely bound protein molecules

B. A bilayer of phospholipid molecules in which protein molecules are embedded and can move

C. Rigid layers of protein molecules in which carbohydrate molecules are suspended D. Three layers; lipid on the inside, protein in the middle, and carbohydrates (and polysaccharides) on the outside

E. A protein bilayer with lipids embedded in a different pattern in different cell types.

What is DNA, and what does it stand for?

Answers

Deoxyribonucleic acid
DNA stands for Deoxyribonucleic acid, it is the molecule inside of cells that contains the genetic information for development and function of an organism

If potassium-40 goes through 3 half lives how many years have gone by and what percentage of the original mass would remain ?

Answers

Potassium-40 have gone by 3.75 billion years and percentage of the original mass would remain at 12.5 %

From the question we have following information :

Potassium-40 goes through 3 half lives

Half life potassium-40 is 1.25 billion years.

If potassium-40 undergoes 3 half-lives, it would have undergone 3 decay events, meaning the original amount of potassium-40 would have reduced to 1/2 * 1/2 * 1/2 = 1/8 of its original amount.

3 half-lives would mean 3 * 1.25 billion years = 3.75 billion years have gone by.

In terms of the percentage of the original mass that would remain, it would be 1/8 * 100 = 12.5%.

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Which of these are characteristics of simple cuboidal epithelium?a. Simple cuboidal epithelium frequently forms tubular or spherical structures in the body.b. Simple cuboidal epithelium is always found in regions that permit diffusion.c. Simple cuboidal cells exist only as double-layered sheets.d. Simple cuboidal epithelium is found next to free space called the lumen.e. Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of cube-shaped cells.

Answers

The correct option is E ; Simple cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of cube-shaped cells.

Simple cuboidal epithelium is composed of one layer of cells whose height nearly equals their breadth, resulting in cells that resemble little box-like cubes in sections perpendicular to the surface. In horizontal slice, the cells appear to be a mosaic of polygonal tiles.

Simple cuboidal epithelium is typically differentiated to create gland secretory and ductal parts. They also make up the germinal epithelium, which surrounds the ovary but does not contribute to egg production, and the inside walls of the male testicular seminiferous tubules.

Cuboidal epithelium: Cuboidal epithelial cells have the appearance of a cube, with equal width, height, and depth. Columnar epithelial cells have a columnar appearance, meaning they are taller than they are wide.

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which information flow is disrupted when diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells? which information flow is disrupted when diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells? the pancreas is unable to produce enzymes to break down proteins. the body is unable to respond to signals that indicate the amount of glucose in the blood. appetite signals no longer regulate feeding. cells in the bladder are no longer able to send signals when the bladder fills.

Answers

When diabetes destroys insulin-producing cells, the body is unable to send signals that indicate the amount of sugar in the blood.

Thus, B is the correct option.

Insulin is а hormone produced in the pаncreаs by speciаl cells, cаlled betа cells. The pаncreаs is below аnd behind the stomаch. Insulin is needed to move blood sugаr (glucose) into cells. Inside the cells, glucose is stored аnd lаter used for energy.

Under normаl circumstаnces, insulin functions in the following steps:

Your body breаks down the food you eаt into glucose (sugаr), which is your body’s mаin source of energy.Glucose enters your bloodstreаm, which signаls your pаncreаs to releаse insulin.Insulin helps glucose in your blood enter your muscle, fаt аnd liver cells so they cаn use it for energy or store it for lаter use.When glucose enters your cells аnd the levels in your bloodstreаm decreаse, it signаls your pаncreаs to stop producing insulin.

Your question isn't well arranged, but most probably your options were

a. the pancreas is unable to produce enzymes to break down proteins.

b. the body is unable to respond to signals that indicate the amount of glucose in the blood.

c. appetite signals no longer regulate feeding.

d. cells in the bladder are no longer able to send signals when the bladder fills.

Thus, the correct option is  B.

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Some organisms that exist today have been on Earth for millions of years, but they have evolved over time. Some of their traits have differed from their ancestors. Which of these is NOT a reason for why an organism would evolve?

A. new traits appearing in their DNA
B. the death of a single group of a species
C. shifts in the continents
D. changes in climate
Please explain why you chose this answer

Answers

The death of a single group of a species is not a reason why an organism would evolve. Hence, option B is correct.

What is evolution?

Evolution is the shift in a biological population's heritable traits over successive generations. These traits are the expressions of genes, which are passed down through reproduction from parent to offspring.

Populations are thought to evolve mostly through natural selection. However, there are a number of additional mechanisms of evolution, such as gene flow, genetic drift, and mutation.

Therefore, option B is correct.

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can you identify the steps in which the lagging strand is synthesized? to review dna replication, watch this microflix animation: dna replication. part a - lagging strand synthesis drag the labels onto the diagram to identify the stages in which the lagging strand is synthesized.

Answers

Yes, I can identify the steps in which the lagging strand is synthesized. DNA replication is essential for the storage and transmission of information to progeny cells.

In cells, DNA performs two fundamental tasks: the "blueprint" function and information storage and transmission (genes can be replicated and passed on to children)..

Components of  replicating DNA strands.

A.Parental DNA

B. DNA polymerase

C. Leading strand

D. Lagging Strand

E. DNA ligase

F. Replication Fork

Here are the stages in which the lagging strand is synthesized.

1. By incorporating nucleotides into a brief RNA segment, DNA polymerase starts to synthesize the lagging strand.

2. Each component of the lagging stand is freed from DNA polymerase once it has been finished.

3. The RNA segments are replaced with DNA by a separate DNA polymerase.

4. DNA ligase fills in the spaces between the fragments to create a continuous strand.

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how does cellular respiration explain why animals breathe rapidly when they are running?

Answers

Cellular respiration is the process of respiration undertaken by cells of the body to convert the energy obtained from food into adenosine triphosphate (ATP) which is the energy currency of the cell.

When an animal runs, it uses up energy at a faster pace than it normally would. Nearly every part of the body is engaged in the activity of running.

This creates the need to produce more energy. The cells of the body need more oxygen as oxygen is necessary for the process of aerobic respiration and is used to oxidise the nutrients present in food in order to break them down and convert them into the easily usable ATP.

Hence, in order to inhale more oxygen, the breathing rate of the animal increases and the breaths become quicker and/or deeper. The heart rate also increases to enable the heart to pump more blood, in order to transports more of the oxygen to the cells.

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What are three differences between Gram-positive and gram-negative cells?

Answers

The three differences between Gram-positive and gram-negative cells are as follow.

Gram-positive bacteria are characterized by a thick peptidoglycan subcaste in their cell walls, while gram-negative cells have a thin peptidoglycan subcaste. This difference affects the cell’s capability to take up  colorings during the Gram staining procedure,  therefore the name. Gram-positive cells are also  generally  lower than gram-negative cells, The difference in peptidoglycan layers also affects the cell’s permeability. Gram-positive cell walls are more passable than gram-negative cell walls, making them more susceptible to antibiotics. Gram-negative cells also have an  fresh subcaste, the  external membrane, that helps  cover them from antibiotics. Incipiently, gram-positive cells  generally contain less  inheritable material than gram-negative cells. Gram-positive cells have  indirect genomes, while gram-negative cells have direct genomes, allowing them to contain  further  inheritable material.

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which of the following statements about fats in food is true? multiple choice fats affect the texture and taste, but not the smell, of foods. fats are the principal form of stored energy in the body. fats provide the major material for cell membranes. fats are a primary source of quick energy

Answers

Fats are the principal form of stored energy in the body. Option 2.

Fats as an energy source

Stored fats represent a major source of energy for cells. According to research findings, a gram of fat contains twice as much energy as a gram of carbohydrate. A gram of fat provides about 9 calories of energy while a gram of carbohydrates provides about 4 calories of energy for cells.

However, fats represent a slower source of energy for cells than carbohydrates. They are slower to digest and can take as much as 6 hours for digestion and transportation to the tissues that are in need of energy.

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MARK ALL THAT APPLY. Which ions are higher inside of a cell? 1) sodium 2) potassium ✓ 3) chloride 4) calcium

Answers

3) Chloride and 4) Calcium

hope this helps:D

The ions that are higher inside of a cell are: (2) potassium ions.

A cell is the most basic building block of all the living organisms. A single cell is composed of all the components essential for its survival. The cells can be of following two types: prokaryotic and eukaryotic. The eukaryotic cells have further two types: plant cell and animal cell.

Potassium ions are the cations necessary for the maintenance of the resting membrane potential in a cell. It maintains the homeostatic condition of the cell. It also generates the action potential in the nervous system and the heart. The potassium ions can cross the cell membrane with the help of leaky channels.

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At conditions of standard temperature and pressure, determine how many liters of hydrogen gas are produced by completely reacting a zinc nail with a mass of 2. 2g with an excess of hydrochloric acid.

Answers

0.75 liters of hydrogen gas would be produced by completely reacting 2.2 grams of a zinc nail with hydrochloric acid.

The reaction between zinc and hydrochloric acid produces hydrogen gas. To determine the number of liters of hydrogen gas produced, we need to know the balanced chemical equation for the reaction and the number of moles of zinc that react.

The balanced chemical equation is:

Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl2 + H2

Using the mass of zinc, we can calculate the number of moles:

n = m/M

where n is the number of moles, m is the mass of zinc (2.2 g), and M is the molar mass of zinc (65.38 g/mol).

n = 2.2 g / 65.38 g/mol = 0.0337 mol

Since one mole of hydrogen gas has a volume of 22.4 L at standard temperature and pressure (STP), the number of liters of hydrogen gas produced can be calculated:

V = n * 22.4 L/mol = 0.0337 mol * 22.4 L/mol = 0.75 L

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what happens to mRNA after it completes transcription?

Answers

Answer: After the transcription of DNA to mRNA is complete, translation — or the reading of these mRNAs to make proteins — begins.

Explanation: research

a certain gene tends to accumulate mutations at an average rate of about 1 nucleotide base pair per 5 million years over the course of time in a lineage. how many mutations is a given line of descent expected to accumulate compared to the ancestor over 25 million years of evolution?

Answers

For the certain gene over 25 million years the number of mutations will be 5.

Mutations are defined as the changes in the nucleotide sequence of DNA. The changes can be limited to 1-base pair or include multiple base pairs . The process can be deletion , addition , amplification , and recombination. The rate of mutation is the probability that a unit length of DNA mutates with time . The rate of mutation in organisms or cells is determined by fluctuations analysis or by mutation accumulation assays . The rate of mutation of bacteria can not be determined based on the number of directly resistance organisms. To overcome this Luria and Delbruck invented fluctuation analysis. Now we have one mutation per 5 million year therefore the rate of the mutation will be 1/5(1 mutation / 5 million year). So therefore for 25 million years the number of mutations is equals to (1 mutation/ 5 million years) × 25 million years = 5 mutations.

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using the protein assay bsa standard curve, you have calculated that you have 20ug/ul of genetically engineered insulin. you now want to run your insulin sample on a gel to confirm its identity and you need to load 100ug/lane on your gel. how much volume from your 20ug/ul will you need?

Answers

It is required 5 ul of the sample having 20ug/ul to load 100ug/lane on the gel since 5 x 20 is equal to 100.

How to calculate the amount of sample for an electrophoresis gel?

The best way to calculate the amount of sample for an electrophoresis gel is based on the concentration of the target molecule (in this case DNA).

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the better manner to calculate the amount of sample in a gel depend on the concentration of DNA we need to observe the band under UV.

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examine the strands of dna. what do you observe about the arrow ends of the model

Answers

These arrows in DNA's 2D representation show how the many genres are really employed. The genres are what derive the shape of RNA from DNA.

What is Rna and what does it do?

The informational molecule is DNA. It contains data needed to make proteins, which are other big molecules. These directions are dispersed throughout 46 lengthy chromosome structures that are found within every one of your cells. Numerous smaller pieces of DNA, known as genes make up these chromosomes.

Where is the DNA managed to keep?

cell plasma

The majority of DNA is found in the nucleus (where it is known as nuclear DNA), but there is also a tiny quantity of DNA in the mitochondrial 

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the stage of the growth curve where the bacteria are producing molecules necessary for cell division, but not undergoing cell division is called the ___________

Answers

The stage of the growth curve where the bacteria are producing molecules necessary for cell division, but not undergoing cell division is called the lag phase.

The lag phase is a time of adaptation during which the bacteria are becoming used to their new surroundings. Depending on how different the current conditions are from the ones the bacteria originated in as well as the state of the bacterial cells themselves, the length of the lag phase can range significantly. The four phases of a bacterial growth cycle are lag, exponential (log), stationary, and death. The bacterial growth curve shows the evolution of a bacterial population's live cell count over time. The development curve goes through four distinct phases: lag, exponential (log), stagnant, and death.

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What does a white marker with an orange crossed diamond and black lettering mean?

Answers

Answer:

boats must keep out of the area

Explanation:

Black lettering on the buoy or sign gives the reason for the restriction, for example, SWIM AREA. Danger: A white buoy or sign with an orange diamond warns boaters of danger – rocks, dams, rapids, etc.

what is the purpose of the iris?

Answers

In the vertical plane at the forefront of the eye, at the front of the lens, is a round, colorful structure known as the iris. Its middle is unbound to enable the pupil to enlarge or decrease.

What does the eye's pupil look like?

Pupillae, singular. Light can reach the retina because of the pupil, a black hole in the centre of the the eye's iris. The reason it seems black is that light rays reaching the pupil either are directly absorbed by the cells within the eye or indirectly absorbed following diffuse reflection within the eye which primarily miss exiting the small pupil.

An easy pupil exam is what?

Student testing. An eye specialist or an aid will examine your pupils and look at your retinas during a standard eye exam.

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The _______________ period is the first phase, and is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms.

Answers

The incubation period is the first phase, and is the time from initial contact with the infectious agent to the appearance of the first symptoms.

In this period, the disease is asymptomatic although the pathogens are present in our body invading the primary immune system.

What is incubation period?

The incubation period is the time period between the exposure of the pathogen to the body and the appearance of the initial symptoms of the disease.

What are pathogens?

These are microorganisms that cause disease.

What is primary immune system?

The defense system which displayed upon the first contact of the immune system with an infectious agent or pathogen is the primary immune system.

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The human body utilizes water to balance body temperature. Under what conditions might thermal regulation break down and no longer function correctly?


A.

low water intake and high water output


B.

high water intake and low water output


C.

decreased physical activity


D.

increased digestive activity

Answers

Low water intake and high water output might break thermal regulation and no longer function correctly.

Mammals regulate their internal body temperature carefully and independently of outside conditions through a process known as thermoregulation. To maintain a constant internal temperature necessary for survival, temperature regulation is a form of homeostasis. Endotherms employ thermoregulation to keep their internal body temperature somewhat constant despite changes in their exterior environment, as opposed to ectotherms, which rely on their external environment for heat. All mammals, including people, are endotherms, as are birds. Rectal probe thermometers provide the most precise readings of the average body temperature of a human, which is typically approximately 37 degrees Celsius (98.6 degrees Fahrenheit). The systems of the human body operate at this temperature best. Human existence depends on thermoregulation; if it weren't for it, the body wouldn't keep itself alive. Additionally, the body's reaction to pathogenic diseases involves thermoregulation in an adaptive way.

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Note:When solving for k, round to fourdecimal places. A country's population in 1995 was 23 million. In 2001 it was 25 million. Estimatethe population in 2013 using the exponentialgrowth formula. Round your answer to thenearest million. P=AektEnter the correct answer Its a given transformations apply to figure with image be congruent to the pre-image? Place an x in the table to show whether each information result in an image that is congruent or not congruent to the pre-image what is the formula of the compound forming the reaction when someone reacts oxygen with carbon The density of mercury is 13. 6 g/cm3. What approximate mass of mercury is required to fill a 4. 0 ounce bottle? an ounce is approximately 30 cm3. Triangle XYZ with vertices X(5, 4), Y(3, -1) and Z(0, 2) is translated so that X' is at (3, 1). Choose the coordinates of Y'and Z'.a. Y'(5, 2) and Z'(2, 5)b. Y'(0, -3) and Z'(-3,0)c.d.OAOBOCODY'(1,-4) and Z'(-2, -1)Y'(11, 4) and Z'(8, 6)Please select the best answer from the choices provided A tank filled with manure, water and unused crop plant residues but which minimizes oxygen content could be used toA) produce biogas.B) produce biogas if the oxygen levels were adjusted to very high concentrations.C) burn unused parts of crop plants to generate heat for homes.D) collect and store carbon dioxide in underground wells. a country lead by a army Question 2 of 10During Shakespeare's time, audiences would have held the witchesresponsible for which events in Macbeth?O A. Plot twists that led to murderO B. Events involving the kingO C. Strange or unnatural eventsOD. Historically accurate eventsSUBMIT you make a 100 ml solution by dissolving 5g of a solid solute in water. the molar mass of the solute is 110 g/mol.What is the molarity? IDENTIFYING CAUSES What political and social factors likely contributed to Reich presidentHindenburg's motivations for issuing the emergency decrees? Assignment: Create a claim sentence about the shift and write two supporting sentences that provide an example and an explanation of the shift. The claim can be anything Help me asap pls i need it quick Which of the airport indexes below may have three apparatuses as a requirement option? (There may be more than one correct answer.)Index AIndex DIndex CIndex B Explain your reasons for characterizing the audience the way you do (i.e., What's your evidence for your conclusions?). in lines 57-60 on page 358, juliet says "O, break, my heart! Poor bankrout, break at one! to prison, eyes; neer look on liberty! vile earth, to earth resign, end motion here. and thou and romeo press one heavy brier" what literary device is being used here Magic Company adds materials at the beginning of the process in Department A. The following information on physical units for Department A for the month of August is available. Work in process, August 1 (57% complete with respect to conversion) 16,800 Started in August 121,100 Completed 121,100 Work in process, August 31 (78% complete with respect to conversion) 16,800 Required: a. Compute the equivalent units for materials costs and for conversion costs using the weighted-average method. b. Compute the equivalent units for materials costs and for conversion costs using the FIFO method what crosses the line between campus safety and invasion of privacy What is the value of x in this system of equations? Express the answer as a decimal rounded to the nearest tenth.Negative 5 x minus 12 y = negative 8. 5 x + 2 y = 48 Based on what you learned about atoms, select all of the correct statements from the following list. The number of neutrons determines the isotope of an atom. Neutral atoms have the same number of protons as electrons. Electrons surround the nucleus. The nucleus is completely composed of neutrons. Protons are positively charged. Gaining or losing protons produces different ions What is the Viscosity of Water?