The distance from point A to point B is known as wavelength. The correct option is D.
What is wavelength?The distance between any two identical points or the adjacent crests in the adjacent cycles of a waveform signal that is conveyed in space or along a wire can be referred to as the wavelength. In wireless systems, the wavelength is typically expressed in meters (m), centimeters (cm), or millimeters (mm) (mm).
The Greek letter lambda () is typically used to represent wavelength. A wave's wavelength is determined by dividing its speed (v) by its frequency (f) in a given medium:
λ = v/f
Therefore, the correct option is D) wavelength.
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The missing options are:
A) amplitude. B) frequency. C) pitch. D) wavelength.
Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are found on all seven continents. Their survival in harsh environments is aided by
The correct option is C ; Mycorrhizae , True mosses, like liverworts and hornworts, connect to their substrate by rhizoids and have a gametophyte-dominated life cycle.
Mosses reproduce by fertilized spores, similar to liverworts, hornworts, and seedless vascular plants. Moss. Green vegetative microphylls with sporagium emerging (which hold the sexual spores). Mosses, liverworts, and hornworts are together known as bryophytes.
They are non-vascular plants, meaning they lack roots and vascular tissue and instead take water and nutrients from the air via their surface (e.g., their leaves). Moss rhizoids are multicellular, whereas hornwort and liverwort rhizoids are unicellular. The sporophytes of mosses and hornworts have real stomata (breathing pores), whereas liverworts do not.
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Full Question ;
Liverworts, hornworts, and mosses are found on all seven continents. Their survival in harsh environments is aided by:
a. long roots.
b. tracheids.
c. mycorrhizae.
d. dispersal by fungi.
e. a thick cuticle.
HELPPPP ME ASAPPPP PLSSS SOMEONE DRAW IT. DUE TODAY.
The models of aerobic and anaerobic respiration are found n the attachment.
What is aerobic and anaerobic respiration?Aerobic respiration is a chemical reaction that converts carbohydrates into energy using oxygen. It is also known as oxygen metabolism, aerobic metabolism, and cell respiration.
Anaerobic respiration is respiration that does not use the molecule oxygen as an electron donor. The procedure still employs a respiratory electron transport chain even though oxygen is not the ultimate electron acceptor.
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In this activity, you will distinguish the theories of spontaneous generation and biogenesis.
For each of the following statements, determine whether it refers to the theory of spontaneous generation or to biogenesis.
Drag the appropriate items to their respective bins.
Spontaneous generation
Living cells can arise from nonliving matter under favorable conditions.Life can arise spontaneously from nonliving matter.Vital forces in nonliving matter can lead to new life.
Biogenesis
Living cells can arise only from preexisting living cells.Microorganisms present in nonliving matter can lead to new microorganisms.Life can arise as a result of microorganisms present in nonliving matter.
Unplanned generation - If the circumstances are right, live cells can develop from non-living substances. Nonliving substances can spontaneously develop life. Non-living materials can acquire new life through vital forces.
Biogenesis -
Only already existing live cells can give rise to new living cells. Non-living substance containing germs can produce new microorganisms. The presence of microbes in nonliving substances can lead to the emergence of life. The term "biogenesis" refers to any process by which a lifeform can give rise to other lifeforms and is based on the idea that life can only emerge from other life. Consider a chicken that lays eggs, which hatch into young chickens.
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some proteins are involved in gene expression and include a protein which assists in synthesizing rna from dna called __________
Answer:
RNA polymerases
Explanation:
Some proteins are involved in gene expression and include a protein which assists in synthesizing rna from dna called RNA polymerases.
which of the following did mitochondria evolve from, according to the hypothesis of serial endosymbiosis?
According to the serial endosymbiosis hypothesis, the following did mitochondria evolve is from free-living procryotics.
The endosymbiosis theory is a theory that states that eukaryotic organisms originated from the evolution of single-celled prokaryotic organisms. The single-celled prokaryotic organisms that turn into mitochondria are aerobic bacteria.
Mitochondria are the cell's energy-producing organelles with a two-layer, indented inner membrane and a broad, smooth membrane. The endosymbiosis theory explains that aerobic bacteria which are prokaryotic cell types are swallowed by large organisms but are not digested and live in the host cell. So aerobic bacteria enter into symbiosis by transferring their DNA to the host cell and live inseparably. The bacteria then turn into mitochondria in the eukaryotic cell body.
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4) Many tiny plants can be seen developing asexually along the edge of the mother-of-thousands
plant leaf, as shown in the photo below. The tiny plants eventually drop to the ground and grow
into new plants of the same species.
One way this form of reproduction differs from sexual reproduction is
(1) more genetic variations are seen in the offspring
(2) there is a greater chance for mutations to occur
(3) the offspring and the parents are genetically identical
(4) the new plants possess the combined genes of both parents
(3) the offspring and the parent are genetically identical.
In asexual reproduction, the offspring are produced by a single parent and are identical to the parent in their genetic makeup. They do not receive genetic material from a second parent, as is the case in sexual reproduction. This results in a lack of genetic diversity among the offspring, as they are all essentially clones of the parent plant.
FILL IN THE BLANK. The _______ is best described as a result of the selective permeability of the neuronal membrane and the uneven distribution of ions inside and outside the cell.
Select one:
a. action potential
b. threshold
c. local potentials
d. resting membrane potential
The d. resting membrane potential is best described as a result of the selective permeability of the neuronal membrane and the uneven distribution of ions inside and outside the cell.
What is the resting membrane potential in the cell?The resting membrane potential in the cell makes reference to the process of entry and out of ions in the cell in order to generate a difference in the potential.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that resting membrane potential in the cell is associated with a potential difference between the cell and its environment.
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choose all that are features of lymphatic vessels. multiple select question. they resist moderate to high pressure valves are present smooth muscle is present in the vessel wall a tunica interna is present they have thick walls
There is a tunica interna. There is smooth muscle in the vessel wall.
There are valves.
What features do lymphatic vessels have?The main characteristic of lymphatic veins is their overlapping configuration and thin endothelial walls. This shows that a person any tissue fluid to reach the cells. Deep within the body, the lymph vessels eventually combine to form a much massive group of veins.
What three purposes do lymphatic vessels serve?The lymphatic system has three main purposes: initially, it keeps the body's fluid levels balanced; second, it makes it easier for dietary lipids to enter the bloodstream to metabolism or storage; & third, it strengthens and supports the immune system.
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Which one of the following statements correctly characterizes human population size throughout history?
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer choices
The human population grew slowly before the Black Death, then plateaued after the Industrial Revolution.
The human population has gotten larger over time, with declining growth rates after the Industrial Revolution.
The rate of population growth has been increasing consistently throughout human history, only dipping during the Black Death.
The human population size grew gradually until the Black Death and then grew rapidly after the Industrial Revolution.
With dwindling growth rates following the Industrial Revolution, the human population has increased over time.
What is an illustration of a population?The complete student body of a school is an example of a population. At the moment of data collection, it would comprise every student accepted in that organization. Each of these pupils' data is gathered, depending on the issue statement.
What is the most accurate way to define a population?A population is defined as the quantity of the same species of organisms that are present in a given location at the same time and have the ability to interbreed. Individuals need to be able to mate with any other people in the population and have fruitful offspring for interbreeding to happen.
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A wound healing assay shows that expression of high GDI levels produces defects in cell migration. To assess actin organization in these cells, you perform immunofluorescence microscopy analysis with antibodies to actin and an appropriate secondary antibody. This experiment shows that actin organization at the leading edge of the cell is normal, but that there are significantly fewer stress fibers in the cell body and towards the trailing edge of the cell.
Which of following answer is most consistent with your observation?
A. GDI overexpression reduces the cytosolic concentration of G-actin ATP so that F-actin is rapidly depolymerized
B. GDI overexpression stimulates the activity of Rho, which then binds to the actin nucleation protein formin to nucleate linear actin filaments
C. GDI prevents a chemoattractant in the medium to bind to the receptor so that migration cannot occur
D. GDI sequesters the small GTPase Rho in the cytosol so that it cannot be activated by its GEF
E. GDI blocks the activation of Rac at the leading edge of the cell.
Option D. GDI sequesters the small GTPase Rho in the cytosol so that it cannot be activated by its GEF is most consistent with the given explanation of the wound healing process.
The wound healing test is a quick and inexpensive technique. This assay can be used to evaluate cell migration in a controlled in vitro environment, albeit it does not exactly replicate the circumstances of a wound. By making a hole in a confluent cell monolayer, the method imitates wounding. It comprises of four basic processes, which are covered in more detail below. Confluent cell monolayer culture serves as the test's initial step. This monolayer simulates the tissue's in vivo conditions just before injury, such as an intact epithelium. The monolayer is most typically formed by epithelial and endothelial cells, particularly cell types capable of sheet movement.
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1) In some species very few eggs are
produced by the females. Which
reproductive pattern is most
characteristic of these species?
In the case of species where very few eggs are produced by the females the reproductive pattern that is most characteristic of these species is Internal fertilization followed by internal embryonic development.
What is the process of internal fertilization followed by internal embryonic development?Internal fertilization and internal embryonic development make reference to a type of sexual reproduction involving fertilization within the body of the female,
Therefore, with this data, we can see that internal fertilization and internal embryonic development are crucial reproductive phenomena which are used by different species in order to generate offspring.
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fill in the blank. when a plant is illuminated from one side, auxin is transported to the___side of the shoot, where it stimulates cells to___, causing the shoot to bend toward the light.dark; expandlight; dividelight; expanddark; divide
The correct option is 1; Dark; expand , When a plant is lighted from one side, auxin is carried to the shoot's Dark side, where it encourages cells to expand , causing the shoot to bend toward the light.
When light strikes one side of the coleoptile, phytotropins become more active on that side, forcing auxin to flow down the shaded side.
A scientist extracts cells from a plant stem that are not actively generating auxin. She maintains the cells alive by placing them in a culture plate with a growth media. The cells begin generating more cellulose when she adds auxin to the dish.
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Full Question ;
When a plant is illuminated from one side, auxin is transported to the _______ side of the shoot, where it stimulates cells to _______, causing the shoot to bend toward the light.
1. dark; expand
2. dark; divide
3. light; expand
4. light; divid
which of the following best explains how the pattern of dna arrangement in chromosomes could be used, in most cases, to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or a eukaryote?
Prokaryotic DNA ---> Single circular chromosome : Eukaryotic DNA ---> Multiple linear chromosomes
How to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or eukaryote?Pattern of DNA arrangement in chromosomes can be used to determine if an organism is prokaryote or eukaryote because prokaryotes and eukaryotes have different types of chromosomes. In prokaryotes, DNA is arranged in a single and circular chromosome whereas eukaryotes have multiple and linear chromosomes.
Prokaryotes lack nucleus, so the DNA is not enclosed within nuclear membrane. Instead, DNA is found in the cytoplasm, as a single, circular chromosome and this chromosome is referred to as the bacterial chromosome.
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Note: The question given on the portal is incomplete. Here is the complete question.
Question: Which of the following best explains how the pattern of DNA arrangement in chromosomes could be used, in most cases, to determine if an organism was a prokaryote or a eukaryote?
Prokaryotic DNA--> Single circular chromosome; Eukaryotic DNA--->Multiple linear chromosomes
Prokaryotic DNA--> have multiple, linear chromosome ; Eukaryotic DNA--->DNA is arranged in a single, circular chromosome
Prokaryotic DNA--> distinct nucleus,; Eukaryotic DNA--->no nucleus
what level of classification do 2 organisms have to be in to be able to reproduce successfully
When populations of organisms cease to successfully breed (called reproductive isolation) they are then considered separate species.
species According to the most widely used species definition, the biological species concept, a species is a group of organisms that can potentially interbreed, or mate, with one another to produce viable, fertile offspring.
During the oxidation of glucose, which of the following reactions ultimately produces the greatest number of ATP molecules? Glycolysis Oxidative phosphorylationKrebs cycle pyruvate dehydrogenase reaction
Most ATP molecules are eventually generated during the glucose oxidation process by oxidative phosphorylation.
By substrate-level phosphorylation, the cytoplasmic metabolic process of glycolysis generates a net of 2 ATP molecules. By substrate-level phosphorylation, the Krebs cycle, which occurs in the mitochondria, generates two ATP molecules for every glucose molecule. Although it connects glycolysis with the Krebs cycle, the pyruvate dehydrogenase process does not directly generate ATP molecules.
In contrast, during glucose oxidation, the bulk of ATP is produced via oxidative phosphorylation, which also occurs in the mitochondria. The electron transportation chain and the chemiosmotic production of ATP are both involved in this process. The electron transport chain creates a proton gradient within the mitochondria by electron transfer from NADH and FADH2 to oxygen. The ensuing proton motive force propels ATP synthase to produce ATP.
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light from the sun travels in electromagnetic waves.which of these statementsdescribe electromagnetic waves? choose the three that apply. a. consist of transverse wave patterns b. can move through a vacuum c. caused by a vibration in a medium d. consist of longitudinal wave patterns e. requires a medium, such as air, to travel f. made of vibrating electric and magnetic fields
Electromagnetic waves are made up of transverse wave patterns; b) can pass through a vacuum; c) are made of electric and magnetic fields that are moving.
Option A ,B , C are correct.
Electromagnetic waves:All communication devices use electromagnetic waves as a propagating medium to transmit data (messages) from the sender's device to the receiver's device. Light and radio waves are typically the electromagnetic wave technologies in telecommunications that are utilized the most frequently. Electromagnetic waves carry light from the sun.
The following statements describe electromagnetic waves:I. It is made up of patterns of transverse waves.
II. It is capable of traversing vacuums.
III. It is made of electric and magnetic fields that are moving.
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Type several paragraphs describing how your models showed the effect of the rotation of Earth on day and night and the effect of Earth's tilt on seasons and regional climates. Discuss all components of your model, what you observed about darkness and light with your model, and what you discovered about the seasons and regional climates.
To show the effect of the rotation of Earth on day and night, a model could consist of a globe placed on a stationary object or a rotating platform to simulate the rotation of Earth on its axis, a light source for the sun would be present, and after rotating the model, all of these phenomena would be explained.
What is an "Earth model"?To make the model, different equipment is needed, such as a globe to represent the earth and a light source to represent the sun, so while rotating on its axis, the globe receives light at different places while other parts remain dark, and this makes for different time such as day and night, on earth due to the revolution around sun seasons are happened.
Hence, a model could consist of a globe placed on a stationary object or a rotating platform to simulate the rotation of Earth on its axis, a light source for the sun would be present, and after rotating the model, all of these phenomena would be explained.
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which of the following describes the amount of organic material that is available for transfer to the next trophic level after subtracting material used for respiration?(1 point)
The following describes amount of organic material that is available for transfer to next trophic level after subtracting material used for respiration : Net Primary productivity.
What is meant by net primary productivity?Gross primary productivity minus the rate of energy loss to metabolism and maintenance is called net primary productivity. It is the rate at which energy is stored as biomass by plants or other primary producers and made available to the consumers in ecosystem.
Net Primary Productivity is equal to all of the carbon taken by vegetation through photosynthesis which is called Gross Primary Production minus carbon that is lost to respiration; NPP = GPP - respiration.
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Note: The question given on the portal is incomplete. Here is the complete question.
Question: Which of the following describes the amount of organic material that is available for transfer to the next trophic level after subtracting material used for respiration?
-Gross Primary productivity
-Biomass
-Net Primary productivity
0r
-Primary productivity
A gene has a base sequence that begins with TAA CTA TGA CGT CG. Answer
the following questions using the codon table from question #5.
a) What RNA sequence would be produced during transcription? Hint: In RNA, A
pairs with U. (1 point)
Answer:
The RNA Sequence that would be produced during Transcript is ;
AAU GAU ACU GCA GC
Explanation:
To find the RNA sequence you need to alternate the A for U the C for G the G for C and the T for A. The first 4 amino acids will be codded and can be determined by their full names. The overall Base sequence is found by moving the bases after the 5th nitrogen base into three letter groups. Therefore we can now see that that the RNA sequence, the first amino acids coded and a new base sequence has been found.
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fill in the blank.bone and cartilage are connective tissues that have___. bone and cartilage are connective tissues that have . large numbers of cells all fiber types except collagen ground substance that is firm or hard very small amounts of matrix
Connective tissues like bone and cartilage have Dense bone and cartilage are examples of connective tissues. huge numbers of cells, including all fiber types save collagen, and relatively little quantities of matrix.
Tendons and ligaments are composed of dense connective tissue, which has a higher density of collagen fibers. Adipose tissue, cartilage, bone, blood, and lymph are a few examples of specialized connective tissues.
The cartilage prevents the bones from rubbing against one another since it is a soft, elastic, and flexible connective tissue. There are two types of bones: compact and spongy. Hyaline cartilage, fibrocartilage, and elastic cartilage are the three forms of cartilage.
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besides the method used by v. cholerae, other types of gene transfer exist. one important type is transduction, which can be generalized or specialized. choose whether the following examples illustrate generalized transduction, specialized transduction, or neither. drag and drop choices into the bins they describe
Transfer V. cholerae to medium containing ampicillin after one week of exposure to prey lacking the resistance gene. Transfer V. cholerae to medium containing ampicillin after one week of exposure to prey carrying the resistance gene, thus the correct options are B, D, F, and H.
Set up V. create cultures of cholerae that are ampicillin-susceptible and let them grow for a week alongside prey that carry the resistance gene on media without ampicillin. Set up V. Establish ampicillin susceptible cholerae cultures and permit them to develop for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on medium without ampicillin. Generalized transduction in any portion of the host genome can be transmitted; transduction occurs in only a small portion of exposed cells. Specialized transduction in transduced DNA is integrated into the host as part of a prophage, transduction requires a temperate phage, and only certain areas of DNA may be transduced. Phage defects are not required for transduction. It is done by transducing particles, which can involve a dangerous phage.
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The complete question is:
Besides the method used by V. cholerae, other types of gene transfer exist. One important type is transduction, which can be generalized or specialized. Choose whether the following examples illustrate generalized transduction, specialized transduction, or neither. The introductory passage explains that Vibrio cholera bacteria may benefit from being able to obtain genes from their prey. What would be the best way to test whether they can benefit within one week of exposure to prey with a gene that confers resistance to ampicillin, an antibiotic that is commonly used in microbiology laboratories? Choose all of the steps that you should include
A. Set up V. cholera cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on a medium that contains ampicillin.
B. Transfer V. cholerae that have been exposed for one week to prey lacking the resistance gene to medium with ampicillin
C. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on a medium that does not contain ampicillin.
D. Transfer V. cholera that have been exposed for one week to prey with the resistance gene to medium with ampicillin.
E. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey that have the resistance gene on a medium that contains ampicillin.
F. Set up V. cholera cultures that are resistant to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey lacking the resistance gene on a medium that does not contain ampicillin.
G. Set up V. cholerae cultures that are resistant to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey with the resistance gene on a medium that does not contain ampicillin.
H. Set up V. cholera cultures that are susceptible to ampicillin and allow them to grow for a week in the presence of prey that have the resistance gene on medium that does not contain ampicillin
According to a large-scale study, pregnant women's caffeine intake was linked to which of the following in their offspring? a) Increased behavioral problems
b) increase reproductive success.
According to a large-scale study, pregnant women's caffeine intake was linked to Increased behavioral problems
What are the effects of caffeine on pregnant women ?Limiting your caffeine intake is advised since excessive caffeine consumption during pregnancy may raise the risk of miscarriage or low birthweight. Numerous foods and beverages, such as coffee, tea, and cola, contain the chemical known as caffeine.
The consumption of caffeinated beverages has been linked to issues with fertility, and consumption during pregnancy has been linked to an increased risk of miscarriage, congenital abnormalities, foetal growth restriction, stillbirth, and behavioural issues in offspring over the long run.
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Humans, especially Americans, consume A LOT of meat. This uses up energy and resources. In the next box, write a prediction to answer the following questions: What role does the agricultural industry play in this? How can reducing meat in our diet help to save energy and natural resources?
*need asp ty*
you have finished sterilizing your inoculation loop using the bunsen burner, but realized you need to leave your bench to get the media you intend to inoculate. what should you do with your sterilized loop to prevent needing to sterilize it again? view available hint(s)for part j you have finished sterilizing your inoculation loop using the bunsen burner, but realized you need to leave your bench to get the media you intend to inoculate. what should you do with your sterilized loop to prevent needing to sterilize it again? place the loop in a test tube rack, loop side up, to prevent the loop from touching a surface. place the loop on a lab bench that has previously been cleaned with disinfectant. place the loop in your lab coat pocket to prevent it from touching the lab bench. place the loop on the lab bench so that only the handle is on the bench and the loop part is hanging over the edge of the bench, preventing the loop from touching a surface.
To prevent the sterilized inoculation loop from sterilizing again, one should: (a) place the loop in a test tube rack, loop side up, to prevent the loop from touching a surface.
Inoculation loop is a simple laboratory tool used to pick and transfer microorganisms from one place to another. The loop is made up of platinum or nichrome wire where the tip forms a small loop with a diameter of about 5 mm.
Sterilization is the process of making any object free from any microorganisms so as to prevent the contamination. Even after sterilization, an object may become contaminated if it comes in contact with some other object. Thus, placing a sterilized loop in a test tube with its loop up will prevent its contamination.
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Which term describes a type of trait that is usually expressed only when an organism has two identical alleles for the trait?
a) recessive
b) homozygous
c) dominant
d) heterozygous
Answer:
a
Explanation:
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Answer:
a
Explanation:
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Explanation:
In the cell cycle, cells can progress from G1 to S to G2, and to mitosis and cytokinesis. The timing of these events is controlled by which of the following?
a) cyclins b) cyclin-dependent protein kinases (Cdks) c) actin myofilaments d) centrosome e) cyclin-Cdk complexes
Cells can advance through the cell cycle from G1 through S to G2, mitosis, and cytokinesis. The cyclin-Cdk complexes regulate the time of these events.
The cell physically expands when in the G1 phase and produces more organelles and protein. The cell replicates its nucleosomes and copies its DNA to create two sister chromatids during the S phase. Finally, the G2 phase involves continued cell development and cellular content organisation. The proper order uses G1 as a prelude to S & G2 as the period of time between S's completion and entrance into M. After the other phases, two daughter cells are produced during cytokinesis. First growth (G1), Synthetic (S), and second growth (Group 2) phases make up interphase.
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Which of the following is likely to describe a metabolic reaction where the net delta G value is negative? (Multiple answers are correct) A. Spontaneous B. non-spontaneous C. Catabolic D. Anabolic E. Positive Delta E F. Negative Delta E
A metabolic reaction where the net delta G value is negative is a reaction where we have A. Spontaneous, C. Catabolic and E. Positive Delta E.
What is the relationship between metabolic reaction and a negative net delta G value?The relationship between metabolic reaction and a negative net delta G value is based on reactions that do need the energy to be carried out such as occur in spontaneous reactions.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the relationship between metabolic reaction with a negative net delta G value doesn't need energy from external sources.
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In biosafety, containment is primarily achieved through assessment and establishment of the following three protective measures:
Risk Assessment, Agent Classification, and Lab Associated Infections
Work Practices, Airflow Rates, and Biosafety Committees
Safety Equipment, Risk Assessment, and Substitution Controls
Work Practices, Safety Equipment, and Facility Design
In biosafety, containment is primarily achieved through assessment and the establishment of the following three protective measures: work practices, safety equipment, and facility design, which is the last option.
What is the biosafety measurement?Risk assessment and agent classification are important components of biosafety, and work practices such as developing and implementing standard operating procedures and providing training to laboratory personnel help to ensure it. In addition, personal protective equipment (PPE) should be provided.
Hence, in biosafety, containment is primarily achieved through assessment and the establishment of the following three protective measures: work practices, safety equipment, and facility design, which is the last option.
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About 25 of the 92 natural elements are known to be essential to life. Which four of these 25 elements make up approximately 90% of living matter? a. carbon, sodium, hydrogen, nitrogen b. carbon, oxygen, phosphorus, hydrogen c. carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen d. oxygen, hydrogen, calcium, nitrogen
The correct answer would be the second option. Four of these 25 elements that make up approximately 96% of living matter are carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen.
The elements carbon and hydrogen are the backbone for organic compounds which is the foundation of cells that are present in all living matter. Also, the cells in all living matter are made up of protein which are primarily made up of amino acids which contains nitrogen, oxygen, carbon and hydrogen atoms. So, basically, without these elements in the cells all living matter would not be present and there would be no life in any case.
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Which of the following would be affected by an antibiotic that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis?
A. the primary plant cell wall
B. the bacterial cell wall
C. the primary plant cell wall and the bacterial cell wall
C. the animal cell membrane
D. the plant and animal nuclear cell membrane
Answer: B
Explanation:
Bacterial cell walls have peptidoglycan, so an antibiotic that targets making peptidoglycan would disrupt the cell wall of the bacterial cell.
The thing that would be affected by an antibiotic that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis is the bacterial cell wall that is present in Option B, as peptidoglycan is a unique structural component of bacterial cell walls.
What is peptidoglycan?Bacterial cell walls are complex structures that are essential for the survival of bacteria and that are composed of a variety of components, including peptidoglycan, and peptidoglycan provides structural support to the bacterial cell wall and protects the cell from changes in osmotic pressure, antibiotics that interfere with peptidoglycan synthesis can inhibit the formation of the peptidoglycan meshwork and weaken its structural integrity.
Hence, the thing that would be affected by an antibiotic that interferes with peptidoglycan synthesis is the bacterial cell wall that is present in Option B.
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