suppose that there are two independent economic factors, f1 and f2. the risk-free rate is 6%, and all stocks have independent firm-specific components with a standard deviation of 45%. portfolios a and b are both well-diversified with the following properties:

Answers

Answer 1

The relationship between the two economic factors will be as follows: 6.00% + 8.56% BP1 + 6.08% BP2.

Which seven economic elements are there?

The presence of a viable market, affordable land, high plant yields, well-developed plantation methods, a competent labor force, strong research support, and a robust supporting infrastructure to assure cost-effective transport to markets are important considerations.

The importance of economic factors

Economic issues, which can affect the economy directly, include things like interest rates, laws, salaries, and tax rates. These sorts of elements affect a business's worth as an investment. Important company choices can be influenced by actually listening to these external factors.

The return beta relationship is computed as shown below:

Expected return on A = risk free rate + Beta on M1 x risk premium 1 + Beta on M2 x risk premium 2

Expected return on B = risk free rate + Beta on M1 x risk premium 1 + Beta on M2 x risk premium 2

26 = 6 + 1.2 x risk premium 1 + 1.6 x risk premium 2 (Equation 1)

23 = 6 + 2.1 x risk premium 1 - 0.16 x risk premium 2 (Equation 2)

Multiply 1st equation by 7 and 2nd equation by 4. We shall get

182 = 42 + 8.4 risk premium 1 + 11.2 risk premium 2

92 = 24 + 8.4 risk premium 1 - 0.64 risk premium 2

Now we shall subtract equation 2 from equation 1 and shall get:

90 = 18 + 11.84 risk premium 2

72 / 11.84 = risk premium 2

6.081081081 or 6.08 Approximately = risk premium 2

Plugging risk premium 2 in equation 1 and solve:

26 = 6 + 1.2 risk premium 1 + 1.6 x 6.081081081

16.27027027 = 6 + 1.2 risk premium 1

10.27027027 = 1.2 risk premium 1

8.56 Approximately = risk premium 1

So, the relationship will be:

6.00% + 8.56% BP1 + 6.08% BP2.

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Complete question:

Suppose That There Are Two Independent Economic Factors, F1 And F2. The Risk-free Rate Is 6%, And All

Related Questions

the direct order of organizing information in a message is likely to produce the most effective result in question 9 options: a. a letter to the parents of a student regarding his absenteeism. b. an email to a vendor giving the reasons for no longer buying from him. c. a memo to an employee informing her of the termination of her service. d. an email praising the best-performing employees of the quarter. e. a letter to a customer apologizing for the non-availability of a product.

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In the following question, among the given options, The direct order of organizing information is likely to produce the most effective result in options (a), (b), (c), and (e).

Here is a brief about the following

(a) A letter to the parents of a student regarding his absenteeism should be organized in a direct manner, starting with a clear statement of the reason for the letter and providing specific details about the student's absenteeism.

(b) An email to a vendor giving the reasons for no longer buying from him should also be organized in a direct manner, starting with a clear statement of the decision to stop buying from the vendor and providing specific reasons for the decision.

(c) A memo to an employee informing her of the termination of her service should be organized in a direct manner, starting with a clear statement of the decision and providing specific details about the reasons for the termination.

(e) A letter to a customer apologizing for the non-availability of a product should also be organized in a direct manner, starting with a clear statement of the apology and providing specific details about why the product is not available and what is being done to address the situation.

Option (d), an email praising the best-performing employees of the quarter, may benefit from a more indirect approach, such as starting with a general statement of appreciation before moving on to specific details about the employees' performance. However, the effectiveness of this approach may depend on the specific context and audience.

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A manager in charge of new product development can hire engineers and market researchers. The annual salary of an engineer is $40,000 while a market researcher receives $20,000. The marginal contribution of engineers and market researchers are:
How should a manager with an annual budget of $140,000, allocate this budget in order to maximize the number of new products developed?
a.Hire one engineer and five market researchers
b. Hire two engineers and three market researchers
c. Hire three engineers and one market researcher
d.. Hire four engineers and four market researchers

Answers

d. By hiring a manager with a $140,000 annual budget, three engineers, and one market researcher, and directing this cash to the creation of as many new products as possible.

What exactly is new product development?

A new product is developed by a combination of design, engineering, and research processes known as new product development (NPD). In contrast to traditional product development, NPD is focused on creating a completely new idea and seeing it through the entire product development process.

What is the procedure for allocating funds from the budget?

When creating a budget, revenues are often predicted initially to establish the amount of resources that will be accessible in the following budget year. Budgetary allotments, often known as expenditure caps, are determined based on the projected resources.

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Assume that an adjusting entry was made on November 30 for earned, but unpaid employee salaries of $260 which represented 2 days of salaries earned for November 29-30.
On December 5, the employees are paid for five days. Record the journal entry on December 5 assuming that reversing entries ARE used by selecting the account names from the pull-down menus and entering dollar amounts in the debit and credit columns.On December 5, the employees are paid for five days. Record the journal entry on December 5 assuming that reversing entries ARE used by selecting the account names from the pull-down menus and entering dollar amounts in the debit and credit columns.

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The sum represents the wages earned for the days of November 29–30. December 5: Payable Salaries: $260 (debit)

Salary costs: $390 (debit)

Cash- $650 (credit) (credit)

What does the adjustment entry for earned but unpaid pay look like?

Expired Wages Unpaid wages that are due to employees but have not yet been reflected in the accounting records should be reported or recorded using an accrual adjusting entry, which will: Debit Wages Expense.  Wages Payable or Accrued Wages Payable should be credited.

At the end of an accounting period, what is the adjustment entry used to record the earned but unpaid pay of employees?

Correct Debit Salaries Expense and Credit Salaries Payable are the adjusting entry at the conclusion of an accounting period used to reflect the unpaid salaries of employees for work performed. The sum represents the wages earned for the days of November 29–30. December 5: Payable Salaries: $260 (debit), Salary costs: $390 (debit),

Cash- $650 (credit) (credit)

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A monopolistically competitive firm in short-run equilibrium:
A) will make negative profit (lose money).
B) will make zero profit (break-even).
C) will make positive profit.
D) Any of the above are possible.

Answers

Option - D : Any of the above are possible.A monopolistically competitive firm in short-run equilibrium  will make negative profit (lose money) or  make zero profit (break-even) or  make positive profit.

Depending on the market demand and the business's cost structure, a monopolistically competitive firm may produce negative profit, zero profit, or positive profit in the short term. The company will experience a loss if its total revenue is lower than its entire variable costs (loss). It will not turn a profit if its total income equals its whole costs (break-even). It will turn a profit if its total income exceeds its whole expenses. Therefore, in short-run equilibrium, any of the aforementioned outcomes are feasible for a monopolistically competitive organisation. Monopolistic competition is a sort of imperfect competition when several manufacturers compete with one another yet sell various items that are not exact replacements for one another.

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Fill The Blank?In deciding whether or not to expand operations to Singapore, Digital Control Enterprises performed a(n) _______, in which it identified and analyzed the economic, social and competitive factors that may affect its success.

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In deciding whether or not to expand operations to Singapore, Digital Control Enterprises performed an environmental scan, in which it identified and analyzed the economic, social and competitive factors that may affect its success. Mass selling is frequently said to be used in three of the five promotional elements: advertising, sales promotion, and public relations.

Mass Enterprises is the promotional strategy that contacts large groups of potential customers rather than getting in touch with each one one-on-one. The term "promotion" in the marketing mix refers to the communications that take place between the business and the customer. A push strategy is a marketing tactic intended to coerce channel participants into promoting a product to end users.

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Suppose that you have a risky asset that provides you with an expected return of 12% per year with 20% volatility (standard deviation). Consider a risk-free asset that provides you with a 3% risk-free return.
If you are allowed to borrow money at a risk-free rate, how can you get a portfolio with an 18% expected return, and what is the risk of this portfolio?

Answers

The risk of the portfolio is 17.5%.

To get a portfolio with an 18% anticipated return, we need to combine the risky asset with the threat-free asset in such a way that the overall portfolio has an anticipated return of 18%.

Let x be the proportion of the portfolio invested in the parlous asset, and( 1- x) be the proportion invested in the threat-free asset. also the anticipated return of the portfolio is

E( Rp) = x * E( Rrisky) ( 1- x) * E( Rrisk-free)

where E( Rrisky) is the anticipated return of the parlous asset, which is 12% in this case, and E( Rrisk-free) is the anticipated return of the threat-free asset, which is 3.%

Setting E( Rp) = 18%, we get

18% = x * 12( 1- x) * 3

working for x, we get x = 0.875.

So, we need to invest 87.5% of the portfolio in the parlous asset and the remaining 12.5% in the threat-free asset to get an anticipated return of 18%.

The risk( or standard deviation) of the portfolio is given by

σp = x * σrisky

where σrisky is the standard deviation of the parlous asset, which is 20 in this case.

Substituting the values, we get

σp = 0.875 * 20% = 17.5%

thus, the risk of the portfolio is 17.5%.

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The balance sheet and income statement shown below are for Koski Inc. Note that the firm has no amortization charges, it does not lease any assets, none of its debt must be retired during the next 5 years, and the notes payable will be rolled over.
Balance Sheet (Millions of $)
Assets 2010
Cash and securities $1,290
Accounts receivable 9,890
Inventories 13,760
Total current assets $24,940
Net plant and equipment $18,060
Total assets $43,000
Liabilities and Equity
Accounts payable $8,170
Notes payable 6,020
Accruals 4,730
Total current liabilities $18,920
Long-term bonds $8,815
Total debt $27,735
Common stock $5,805
Retained earnings 9,460
Total common equity $15,265
Total liabilities and equity $43,000
Income Statement (Millions of $) 2010
Net sales $51,600
Operating costs except depreciation 48,246
Depreciation 903
Earnings bef interest and taxes (EBIT) $2,451
Less interest 927
Earnings before taxes (EBT) $1,524
Taxes 533
Net income $990
Other data:
Shares outstanding (millions) 500.00
Common dividends (millions of $) $346.67
Int rate on notes payable & L-T bonds 6.25%
Federal plus state income tax rate 35%
Year-end stock price $23.7
What is the firm's BEP?
What is the firm's profit margin?
What is the firm's operating margin?
What is the firm's dividends per share?
What is the firm's EPS?
What is the firm's P/E ratio?
What is the firm's book value per share?
What is the firm's market-to-book ratio?
What is the firm's equity multiplier?

Answers

The firm's BEP is 10.26%, the firm's profit margin is 1.92% , The firm's operating margin is 4.74%, The firm's dividends per share is $0.69, The firm's EPS is $1.98,  firm's P/E ratio is 11.97, firm's book value per share is $30.53 , firm's market-to-book ratio is 0.78 and firm's equity multiplier is 2.83.

The firm's BEP is 10.26%, calculated as:

BEP = EBIT / Net sales = $2,451 / $51,600 = 0.1026 or 10.26%

The firm's profit margin is 1.92%, calculated as:

Profit margin = Net income / Net sales = $990 / $51,600 = 0.0192 or 1.92%

The firm's operating margin is 4.74%, calculated as:

Operating margin = EBIT / Net sales = $2,451 / $51,600 = 0.0474 or 4.74%

The firm's dividends per share is $0.69, calculated as:

Dividends per share = Common dividends / Shares outstanding = $346.67 million / 500 million shares = $0.69

The firm's EPS is $1.98, calculated as:

EPS = Net income / Shares outstanding = $990 million / 500 million shares = $1.98

The firm's P/E ratio is 11.97, calculated as:

P/E ratio = Market price per share / EPS = $23.7 / $1.98 = 11.97

The firm's book value per share is $30.53, calculated as:

Book value per share = Common equity / Shares outstanding = $15,265 million / 500 million shares = $30.53

The firm's market-to-book ratio is 0.78, calculated as:

Market-to-book ratio = Market price per share / Book value per share = $23.7 / $30.53 = 0.78

The firm's equity multiplier is 2.83, calculated as:

Equity multiplier = Total assets / Total common equity = $43,000 million / $15,265 million = 2.83

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An IAR has set up the initial meeting with a prospective advisory client. An important part of that meeting is gathering client data. Of the following items, which is generally considered to be the most important for preparing suitable recommendations?
A) Age of the prospect
B) Assets available for investment
C) Risk tolerance
D) Life stage

Answers

The most important for preparing suitable recommendations when gathering client data is generally Risk tolerance . This is because risk tolerance determines the level of investment risk a client is willing and able to take on. So, The correct option is (c).

Risk tolerance is generally considered the most important item for preparing suitable recommendations. This is because risk tolerance ultimately guides the advisor in creating a suitable investment portfolio.

For example, a young client may have a low risk tolerance due to a conservative personality, while an older client may have a high risk tolerance due to a large pension or inheritance. Therefore, understanding a client's risk tolerance is critical in designing an investment portfolio that aligns with their financial goals and objectives. The correct answer is (c).

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an auditor is testing a client's pension benefit obligation. which of the following types of evidence would be most appropriate for determining that the financial statement balance is fairly stated?
a) client prepared schedule showing accounting entries made to the GL balance
b) an actuarial valuation obtained by an outside firm
c) confirmation of pmts received by the retirees
d) analytical procedures that compare last year's balance to this year's balance

Answers

an actuarial valuation obtained by an outside firm because it calculates fair value of the obligation evidence would be most appropriate for determining that the financial statement balance is fairly stated.

In testing a client's pension benefit obligation, an actuarial valuation obtained by an outside firm would be the most appropriate type of evidence for determining that the financial statement balance is fairly stated. An actuarial valuation is a detailed analysis of the pension plan, including its funding status, expected future cash flows, and other relevant information. It is typically prepared by a qualified actuary, who has expertise in assessing the risks and uncertainties manufacturing associated with the pension plan. An actuarial valuation provides an independent and objective assessment of the pension benefit obligation, and it is considered a reliable source of evidence for auditors. In contrast, the other options, such as a client-prepared schedule, confirmation of payments, or analytical procedures, may provide some evidence, but they are generally less reliable and do not provide the same level of assurance as an actuarial valuation.

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Suppose that a monopolistically competitive restaurant is currently serving 260 meals per day (the output where MR = MC).At that output level, ATC per meal is $10 and consumers are willing to pay $13 per meal. Enter your answers as whole numbers. a. What is the size of this firm's profit or loss? $ b. Will there be entry or exit? (Click to select). Will this restaurant's demand curve shift left or right? (Click to select).c. Assume that the allocatively efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 210 meals. In long-run equilibrium, suppose that this restaurant charges $11 per meal for 180 meals and that the marginal cost of the 180th meal is $9. What is the size of the firm's profit? $ d. Suppose that the allocatively efficient output level in long-run equilibrium is 210 meals. In long-run equilibrium, suppose that this restaurant charges $11 per meal for 180 meals and that the marginal cost of the 180th meal is $9. Is the deadweight loss for this firm greater than or less than $60? (Click to select).

Answers

Long-term economic profits for businesses in a properly competitive market are zero because positive profits draw in new businesses and negative profits drive them away.

A restaurant is engaged in competitive monopolistic business. Every day, 260 dishes are produced by the restaurant. This is the output level that maximizes profits when marginal cost and marginal revenue are equal. At this point, the average price is $10. The $12 pricing range. The difference between total income and total cost will determine whether the restaurant makes a profit or loses money. Gains = Overall Profit - Overall Expense = $12 260 - $10 260 = $3,120 - $2,600 = $520. Because more businesses will want to enter the market as a result of this super-normal profit, the market share of already established businesses will decrease. The restaurant's demand curve will shift to the left.

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According to B. F. Skinner, which of the following alternatives to punishment represents the BEST method for reducing an undesirable behavior?
Mark is reinforced for working quietly in class instead of being punished for disrupting class.associating events; associating a response with a consequence (reinforcer or punisher)reward Jamal for not interrupting her during a phone call.
Parents should yell at the girl.

Answers

Option a: Mark is reinforced for working quietly in class instead of being punished for disrupting/disturbing class.

Some see punishment as asymmetrical to reinforcement, while others see it as symmetrical. One of his authors who championed an asymmetric view is B.F. Skinner. The citation of Skinner's position on punishment is based largely on what he describes in science and human behavior.

The purpose/reason of this overview was to present the historical development of the concept of punishment in his B. F. Skinner work in the early years of his career from the 1930s onwards. It considers definitions, explanatory mechanisms, concepts related to punishment, and concepts of symmetry and asymmetry.

The term/word used to refer to punishment in the 1930s was negative reinforcement/conditioning. Skinner first spoke of punishment in his 1935, seeing it as the process of weakening the operant's muscle strength. In 1938 he began questioning this punitive effect, culminating in a change of definition last year.

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an 4 sided die is marked with the numbers 1 through 4. an experiment consists of rolling the die, marking down the number shown, then rolling again and marking down the second number down

Answers

The probability of rolling 'double' when rolling a 4-sided die and an 8-sided die together is 0.125.

The probability of rolling a specific number on a die with n sides is 1/n. In this case, we have a 4-sided die and an 8-sided die, so the probability of rolling any specific number on the 4-sided die is 1/4, and the probability of rolling any specific number on the 8-sided die is 1/8.

To find the probability of rolling 'double,' we need to consider all the possible outcomes of rolling both dice. There are 4 possible outcomes for the roll of the 4-sided die, and 8 possible outcomes for the roll of the 8-sided die. Therefore, there are a total of 4 x 8 = 32 possible outcomes when we roll both dice together.

Out of these 32 possible outcomes, there are 4 outcomes where we get the same number on both dice (1-1, 2-2, 3-3, and 4-4). Thus, the probability of rolling 'double' is the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of possible outcomes.

Probability of rolling 'double' = number of favorable outcomes / total number of possible outcomes

= 4 / 32

= 1 / 8 or 0.125

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Complete Question:

A 4-sided die can be used to select a number randomly from the numbers 1, 2, 3, and 4. Suppose you roll a 4-sided die along with an 8-sided die.

a) Find the probability of rolling 'double'. That is the event of getting the same number on both dice

knowledge check 01 what are the two reasons that inventory must be estimated? (you may select more than one answer. single click the box with the question mark to produce a check mark for a correct answer and double click the box with the question mark to empty the box for a wrong answer. any boxes left with a question mark will be automatically graded as incorrect.)

Answers

Inventory must always be estimated for two reasons:

One person's labor functions as a checked on another to thwart fraud and mistakes.The person in charge of a work should be recognised and given clear accountability.Describe the term inventory.

As well as being seen with the firm and kept in the business so they may sell the product on the marketplace and make a profit, inventory can also be referred to as goods and merchandise.

It should be indicated that perhaps the estimation of both the inventory is really very important because it helps to prevent fraud and other mistakes that can have an effect on the running of the business. However, the estimation can also help there in assignment of something like the task to a specific person who can handle it in the setup or in the team as a whole.

Thus, Inventory must always be estimated for two reasons:

One person's labor functions as a checked on another to thwart fraud and mistakes.The person in charge of a work should be recognised and given clear accountability.

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The correct question is-

What are the two reasons that inventory must be estimated?

Which, if any, of the following statements concerning disclosures related to investment property is/are correct?
I. When the fair value method is used, the entity must disclose whether or not a qualified independent party provided valuations.
II. When the cost method is used, the entity must still disclose fair value of investment property.

Answers

Only statement I. "When the fair value method is used, the entity must disclose whether or not a qualified independent party provided valuations."  about concerning disclosures related to investment property is/are correct.

Yes, when the fair value method is used, the entity must disclose whether or not a qualified independent party provided valuations. This disclosure is important because it allows investors to determine if the fair value estimates are reliable.

An independent party's opinion can give investors confidence that the estimates are accurate and that the entity is not overvaluing its assets or liabilities.

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developer constance roberts subdivided a parcel of land into 25 five-acre lots and properly recorded the subdivision. before she could build on the lots, she became ill and sold the entire subdivision to another developer, accolade homes, which plans to further subdivide into lots half the original size. which of these statements is true?a. Accolade Homes can further divide the property without a new land survey and or subdivision plat if no new streets or access points will be required.
b. Accolade Homes must develop the subdivision according to the previous subdivision plat.
c. Because building hadn't begun at the time of the sale, Accolade Homes must complete a new subdivision process.
d. The Illinois Plat Map Act requires Accolade Homes to add new streets and access points if they further subdivide the property.

Answers

The correct answer is (a): Accolade Homes can further divide the property without a new land survey and or subdivision plat if no new streets or access points will be required.

When Constance Roberts subdivided the parcel of land into 25 five-acre lots, she created a legal description of the property and recorded the subdivision with the relevant authorities. The recorded subdivision plat outlines the boundaries of the lots, access points, and any other relevant features of the subdivision. When Accolade Homes purchased the entire subdivision from Roberts, they acquired the right to develop the property further, subject to any restrictions or conditions outlined in the recorded subdivision plat. If Accolade Homes plans to further subdivide the property into lots half the original size, they can do so without a new land survey and subdivision plat if no new streets or access points are required. If Accolade Homes plans to add new streets or access points or make any other changes to the recorded subdivision plat, they would need to go through the appropriate process to obtain the necessary approvals and permits. However, if they plan to develop the subdivision according to the previous subdivision plat, they can do so without any further action.

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True or False: Quality of conformance refers to the degree to which goods and services conform to the intent of the designers as documented in the specifications.

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The given statement "quality of conformance refers to the degree to which goods and services conform to the intent of the designers as documented in the specifications" is true because quality of conformance indicates the degree to which goods and services conform to the intent of the designers as documented in the specifications.

This means that the products or services produced should meet the standards and specifications set by the designers, and should be free from defects and errors. Quality of conformance is an important aspect of overall product or service quality, as it ensures that the product or service meets the intended standards and can be relied upon to perform as expected.

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Robert works long hours in his firm, making calls to household consumers. Unlike other salespeople in his team, he is not required to visit customers' residences to sell products. He also handles the customer grievance helpline of his firm. Which of the following statements is true about Robert?
- Robert is a distributor salesperson.
- Robert is a missionary salesperson.
- Robert is an insides salesperson.

Answers

An inside salesperson, Robert. So, the right answer is (C).

What is a Missionary Salesperson ?

Salespeople typically interact with customers to persuade them to buy their products and boost business revenue. A type of personal selling called "missionary selling" involves interacting not with the target clients but rather with others who will have a say in their purchasing decisions.

For instance, a missionary salesperson promoting scholarly publications will converse with a university professor who is an expert in the subject.

The professor will be told about the missionary salesperson's academic books in the hopes that the professor will recommend them to his or her pupils. In this method, rather than interacting with college students, sales of the books will be produced by interacting with college professors.

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TRUE OR FALSE: As opposed to venture capitalists, angel investors prefer to target their investments in new firms requiring large sums of money.

Answers

As opposed to venture capitalists, angel investors prefer to target their investments in new firms requiring large sums of money. The statement is True.

What is capitalist?

A common conception of capitalism is as an economic system where individual actors own and control property according to their interests and where supply and demand freely determine market prices in a way that can best serve society.

The desire to turn a profit is capitalism's fundamental characteristic. Socialism is based on government planning and restrictions on private control of resources, whereas capitalism is based on individual initiative and prefers market mechanisms over government involvement.

When left to their own devices, economies frequently mix components from both systems. Without a question, capitalism plays a significant role in the modern era's creativity, riches, and success.

Businesses are encouraged to maximize efficiency by competition and capital accumulation.

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Administrative costs include ______ ?
Multiple choice question.
A. Factory maintenance workers' wages and factory supervisors' salaries
B. Shipping costs and sales commissions
C. Executive compensation and public relations costs
D. Sales commissions and factory supervisors' salaries

Answers

Administrative costs include option (c) Executive compensation and public relations costs.

Costs incurred to support a business's operations but unrelated to the creation of a particular good or service are referred to as administrative costs. As a necessary component of operations, administrative costs will always be incurred to some extent. Because they have no direct impact on a company's core business operations, administrative expenses are frequently among the first recognised for budget cuts. Based on a percentage of sales, expenses, or other metrics, management may divide administrative costs among its business units. Administrative costs are incurred by businesses to carry out fundamental tasks (such managing payroll or healthcare benefits), improve oversight and productivity, and/or adhere to legal requirements.

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according to the withdrawal behavior, when employees respond to a negative work event with [ select ] , organization commitment is likely to increase. on the other hand, when employees respond to a negative work event with [ select ] , organizational commitment is more likely to decrease.

Answers

According to the withdrawal behavior, when employees respond to a negative work event with Positive coping behaviors, organization commitment is likely to increase.

On the other hand, when employees respond to a negative work event with Negative coping behaviors, organizational commitment is more likely to decrease.

Positive coping behaviors refer to behaviors that are focused on addressing and resolving the problem, such as seeking support from a colleague or supervisor or attempting to find a solution.

This type of behavior can lead to increased organization commitment because it shows that the employee is invested in the organization and is willing to take an active role in problem-solving. On the other hand, negative coping behaviors refer to behaviors that are focused on avoiding the problem.

This type of behavior can lead to decreased organization commitment because it demonstrates that the employee is not invested in the organization and is not willing to take an active role in problem-solving.

Therefore, positive coping behaviors are more likely to lead to increased organizational commitment, while negative coping behaviors are more likely to lead to decreased organizational commitment.

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Providing funding for a public health program that will improve health outcomes for the majority of members of a community is an example of which of the following ethical principles?
A Efficiency
B Health maximization
C Beneficence
D Justice

Answers

Providing funding for a public health program that will improve health outcomes for the majority of members of a community is an example of: D) Justice ethical principles.

What is justice?

Justice is concerned with fairness and equity, and ensuring that benefits and burdens are distributed fairly among individuals or groups.

In this case, providing funding for a public health program to improve health outcomes for the majority of members of a community would be a fair and equitable way to promote the health and well-being of the community as a whole.

Therefore the correct option is D.

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Alternative price indexes Because there isn't one single measure of inflation, the government and researchers use a variety of methods to get the most balanced picture of how prices fluctuate in the economy. Two of the most commonly used price indexes are the consumer price index (CPI) and the GDP deflator. The GDP deflator for this year is calculated by dividing the using by the using and multiplying by 100. value of all goods and services produced in the economy this year cost of a given market basket of goods and services value of all goods and services produced in the economy in the base year United States. Check all that apply. Shows up in the... GDP Deflator CPI Scenario An increase in the price of a Treewood Equipment feller buncher, which is a commercial forestry machine made in the U.S. but not bought by U.S. consumers A decrease in the price of a German-made television that is popular among U.S. consumers

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Arrives in the...

GDP Deflator: An increase in the cost of a commercial forestry machine built in the United States but not purchased by American customers, such as a Treewood Equipment feller buncher.

CPI: A drop in the cost of a well-liked by American consumers television made in Germany.

What does GDP deflator actually mean?

The GDP deflator, often known as the implicit price deflator, is used to calculate inflation. The annual price levels of newly produced final goods and services in a country are estimated using this method.

What do CPI and GDP deflators measure?

The GDP price index and implicit price deflator analyse price increases in products and services purchased by consumers, firms, the government, and foreigners but not importers, whereas the CPI tracks price changes in out-of-pocket expenditures made by urban consumers.

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the siegels are purchasing a commercial investment property and plan to use straight-line depreciation on their financial statements and tax calculations. which of the following would not be included in the siegels' depreciation basis calculations?

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The Siegel's are purchasing a commercial investment property and plan to use straight-line depreciation on their financial statements and tax calculations. Market value of the property would not be included in the Siegel's depreciation basis calculations.

The Siegel's' depreciation calculation would include the cost of the property, the cost of any improvements, and any closing costs. The market value of the property would not be included in the calculation, as that is not a cost associated with the purchase of the property.

The market value of a property is determined by the current market conditions, such as supply and demand, location, condition of the property, comparable sales, and other factors. The best way to determine the market value of a property is to have a certified appraiser evaluate the property.

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Which of the following government actions is the most common for a natural monopoly in the United States?
a. prevents its formation
b. break it up using antitrust laws
c. use price regulation
d. public ownership
e. elimination of the market

Answers

The answer is option c. use price regulation, is one of the actions that is most common for a natural monopoly in the United States.

What does the term "monopoly" signify in economics?

Definition: A market system in which a single seller dominates the market and offers an exclusive product. In a monopoly market, there is no competition for the seller because there is no other close equivalent for the goods he is selling.

What are examples of monopoly?

A company that sells its product exclusively and without any close substitutes is said to have a monopoly. An unchecked monopoly has the ability to set prices and has market power. Examples include Microsoft and Windows, DeBeers and diamonds, and the natural gas provider in your community.

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To be career ready, Zina wants to incorporate changes into her life that will give her behavioral examples of professionalism and work ethic to discuss in job interviews. Zina has heard that people who get the right amount of sleep are less tempted by unethical behavior, so she has made a commitment to go to bed earlier, when possible. Zina also is going to pick up reading again, a hobby she has just not made time for lately, which will reduce her screen time especially right before bed. Zina also might
Multiple Choice
start thinking she is good at everything and can do no wrong, instilling confidence in herself.
start handwashing her clothes instead of using the washing machine to reduce energy costs.
get in the practice of turning off lights when she leaves rooms and remember to bring a reusable water bottle to work.
begin to have her food delivered by a food service such as Hello Fresh or Blue Apron instead of eating out.

Answers

For Zina to incorporate positive changes into her life she can also have the practice of turning off the lights when she leaves the rooms and remembering to bring a reusable water bottle to work.

How to improve your personal development?

It is essential to adopt practices that generate ethical attitudes in the social and professional spheres, as this generates the improvement of social relations and promotes attitudes that generate collective benefits for society, such as:

Garbage recycling

Emotions management

Reduction of plastic use

Water economy

Reduction in meat consumption

Use of green transport

Therefore, each small attitude is capable of contributing to the development and maintenance of society, increasing the quality of life by promoting diversity and protecting the environment.

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​Which of the following is the term used for the amount and number of raw materials, parts, and finished products that a company has in its possession?A. disturbed materials B.inventory C. physical resources D. Supplies E. material resources

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The following option that is being defined as the amount and number of raw materials, parts, and finished products that a company has in its possession is B. inventory.

In the term of business and economic, Inventory also can be called as stock. Inventory generally can be defined as the goods and materials that a business holds for the ultimate goal of resale, production or utilization. In the other side, the Inventory management generally can be defined as a discipline primarily about specifying the shape and placement of stocked goods. Inventory can be classified into several types, such as  raw materials, work-in-progress (or also known as WIP), finished goods, and maintenance, repair, and overhaul ( or also known as MRO) inventory.

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closing the temporary accounts at the end of each accounting period does all of the following except:-seres to transfer the effects of these accounts to the owners capital account on the balance sheet-prepares the withdrawals account for use in the next period-gives the revenue and expense accounts zero balances-has no effect on the owner's capital account-causes owners capital to reflect increases from revenues and decreases from expenses and withdrawals

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To transfer the effects of these accounts to the owners capital account on the balance sheet-

What is an owner's capital account?

The total amount of money invested in a business by its owner or owners is recorded in an owner's capital account. It shows how much money the owner has put into the business as well as any profits, losses, or withdrawals. The owner's capital account, also known as owner's equity for a sole proprietorship, includes the owner's initial investment as well as any additional capital contributions, retained earnings, and other goods that affect the owner's financial interest in the business. In the case of a partnership or company, the owner's capital account typically represents each partner's or shareholder's individual capital account, reflecting their contributions to the business as well as their share of earnings, losses, and withdrawals.

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When an account previously written off is later collected, two journal entries are required. The first journal entry is to _____ the account, and the second journal entry is to record _____ of payment.
O reinstate, receiptO receipt, reinstateO credit , debitO debit, credit

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Two journal entries were required when an account that was actually written off is subsequently recouped. In the first journal entry, the account is debited and in the second, the credit for the purchase is recorded.

Why is credit important?

The relationship here between lender and a borrower is called credit. The lendor provides loans to the borrower. The borrower accumulates interest and returns the borrowed funds at a later time.

A credit card balance is what?

A credit balance what is? An amount that the card provider owes you might be seen as a credit account on your billing statement. With each transaction you make, credits be added to your account.

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refer to exhibit 4.1. what is the firm's tie? do not round your intermediate calculations. question 12 options: 3.99 3.19 3.76 3.35 3.82

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Grounded on current income, the times interest earned( TIE)  rate assesses a company's capacity to service its debt. Earnings before interest and  levies( EBIT) divided by the total interest due on bonds and other debt is the  computation for a company's TIE number.

The  outgrowth is a figure that illustrates how  numerous times a business could pay its interest charges out of pretax  gains. The interest content  rate is another name for TIE. Consider that XYZ Company, for case, has$ 10 million in outstanding 4 debt and$ 10 million in ordinary stock. To buy  outfit, the business needs to raise  further  plutocrat. 6 periodic interest is the cost of capital for issuing  farther debt.

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summarize the closing process by listing the closing entries in the order in which they would occur at the end of the accounting period. step 1: close income statement (credit/debit) balance accounts. step 2: close income statement (credit/debit) balance accounts. step 3: close (income summary/withdrawals) . step 4: close (income summary/withdrawals) .

Answers

A closing entry is a journal entry that is made at the conclusion of the accounting period. Transferring data between floating accounts on the income statement and floating accounts on the balance sheet.

What are the 4 fundamental closing statements?

In general, revenue accounts to income summary, expense accounts to income summary, income summary to retained earnings, and dividend accounts to retained earnings are the four closing entries.

What procedures are there for closing different kinds of accounts?

Either the retained earnings account or the income summary account can be closed as the final destination for temporary accounts. Then the retained earnings account is closed to the income summary account. Both approaches have benefits.

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