plsss help i’ll give brainliest if you give a correct answer

Answer:

62.8

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

you want to divide the circumference by pi which is 3.14 which is 10 and that is the diameter. Now divide by 2 and the answer is 5. Hope this helps :)

Answer:

$47.15

Step-by-step explanation:

41x15%=6.15

6.15+41=47.15

Answer: $47.15

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]41 (1+.15)\\41 (1.15)\\= 47.15[/tex]

or you could do it in pieces

[tex]41(.15)= 6.15\\41+6.15= 47.15[/tex]

Answer:

Faye's probability of pulling out a white marble is 3/80.

Step-by-step explanation:

To find the probability, we must first add everything up.  10 + 13 + 16 + 10 + 11 = 60 marbles.  Now we divide 60 by the amount of white marbles there are.  60 ÷ 16 = 3.75% or 3/80.  Therefore, the probability of Faye pulling out a white marble is 3/80.

Answer:

35 and 24

Step-by-step explanation:

35 + 24 = 59

35 - 24 = 11

Answer:

24 and 35

Step-by-step explanation:

x + y = 59

x - y = 11,    then x = y + 11

substitute for x:

y + 11 + y = 59

simplify:

2y + 11 = 59

subtract 11 from each side of the equation:

2y = 48

divide both sides by 2:

y = 24

x = 35

The function is f(n)=50n, where f(n) gives the number of meters, Nadia swims given the number of minutes she swims.

The function is defined as a mathematical expression that defines a relationship between one variable and another variable.

We are given the function f, where f(n) is the number of meters Nadia swims given the number of minutes she swims, n, can be written as ;

f(n)=50n.

This function that represents a linear relationship, where the output (the number of meters Nadia swims) is directly proportional to the input (the number of minutes she swims).

Therefore if Nadia swims for 10 minutes, the function will output 500 meters;

10 minutes x 50 meters/minute = 500 meters

Thus, the required function is;

f(n)=50n.

Learn more about the function here:

brainly.com/question/12431044

#SPJ1

9514 1404 393

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

A group of 6 quarters and 1 dime has a value of $1.60. Then there are ...

  $28.80/$1.60 = 18

groups like that in the piggy bank.

The number of quarters is 18×6 = 108.

The number of dimes is 18×1 = 18.

There are 108 quarters and 18 dimes in the piggy bank.

Answer:

165 inches

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

7

Step-by-step explanation:

1/4 of 28 = 7

Answer:

Option A is the next step in the series.

Answer:

11

first you use a number tree

34 374

/\ /\

2 17 2 187

/\

11 17

express the numbers in prime factors

374=2×11×17

34 =2×17

in finding LCM you use the highest prime factors in this case the highest prime factors are 2, 11 and 17

So m factors are 2 and 11

which means m is 2×11=22

22 in its smallest form is 11

Answer:

FORMULA FOR SURFACE AREA OF SPHERE = 4 pi r^2  

r = 6 " area = 4 pi X 6 X 6 = 144 pi " squared  

r = 12 "  

area = 4 X pi X 12 X 12 = 576 pi" squared  

ANSWER Area will be 4 times the original

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

The answer is D. 8.7

Step-by-step explanation:

A=4πr2

Solving fore

r=1

2A

π=1

2·951.1

π≈8.69978in

Answer:

650%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

3 sides, 3 angles.

Answer:

negative because any positive number multiplied by a negative number will be negative, the only way to make it positive is to multiply a negative number by another negative number.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Hello There!!

Step-by-step explanation:

The answer is that there was once a demon king called Hiranyakashyap, who believed that he was more powerful than the all the gods and he wanted everyone like all the people to worship him but his son, Prahlad, did not worship his father.

hope this helps,have a great day!!

~Pinky~

Answer

cos(θ) = –313√(13)

Step-by-step explanation:

There is a rule we are to establish first to get the answer right.

If the terminal side of an angle θ in standard position intersects a unit circle A(x, y), then cos(θ) = x and sin(θ) = y.

Therefore, given that the terminal side of angle θ goes through the point (−313√13,−213√13) on the unit circle:

cos(θ) = –313√(13)

Answer:

Notice that the written functions are mostly incorrectly written, after a short online search i've found the correct ones, which are the ones i will write in this answer.

A general exponential equation can be written as:

f(x) = A*(r)^x

Where A is the initial value, r is the rate of growth, and x is our variable.

If r > 1,  the function represents a growth.

if 0 < r < 1, the function represents a decay.

1) f(x) = 3^x

Here we have r = 3

This is clearly larger than 1, then this function represents a growth.

2) f(x) = (0.25)^x

Here we have r = 0.25, which is smaller than 1 and larger than zero, then this function represents a decay.

3) f(x) = (2/3)^x

here we have r = 2/3 = 0.66

This is larger than zero and smaller than 1, then this function represents a decay.

4) f(x) = (3/2)^x

Here we have r = 3/2 = 1.5

This is larger than 1, then this function represents a growth,

Answer:

B. 9.99 + 1.29n [tex]\leq[/tex] 50

Step-by-step explanation:

The inequality of [tex]\leq[/tex] means less than or equal to. Her limit is $50. She has already spent $9.99. Therefore if $1.29 is the cost each song, then n is the number of songs she can afford below the cost of $50.

Answer:

surface area of prism= 2(lb+bh+lb)

surface area of prism= 2(6×6+6×5+5×6)

surface area of prism= 168cm²

formula=2(lb+bh+hl)

sides=12 sides

total surface area =168cm²

volume of prism=l×b×h

volume of prism=6×6×5

volume of prism=180cm³

Answer:

the missing side length = 3

Step-by-step explanation:

Hello There!

This is a 30 - 60 - 90 degree special right triangle

We know this because in these types of triangle the hypotenuse is equal to twice the short leg

[tex]\sqrt{3} *2=2\sqrt{3}[/tex]

to calculate the missing side length (which is the long leg)

we multiply the short leg by [tex]\sqrt{3}[/tex]

[tex]\sqrt{3} *\sqrt{3} =3[/tex]

so the missing side length is 3

Answer:

8 red beads, 72 green beads

Step-by-step explanation:

1  = x

6 = 48

9 = x

to get from 6 to 48 you multiply by 8 so do that for 1 and 9 to get the answer

1 · 8 = 8

9 · 8 = 72, 72+8 = 80  

Answer: Are you high school because GOD that looks hard to do.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C.)5/12

Step-by-step explanation:

Tan= opposite/ adjacent

Opposite is 15

Adjacent is 36

Simplify 15/36=5/12

Hope this helps! :)

Answer:

[tex]x^{-2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{x^{6}}{x^{8}}\\ = x^{6-8} = x^{-2}[/tex]