Answer: 0.0268 m
Explanation:
Draw a free body diagram of the block. There are three forces: weight force mg pulling down, buoyancy of the oil B₁ pushing up, and buoyancy of the water B₂ pushing up.
Sum of forces in the y direction:
∑F = ma
B₁ + B₂ − mg = 0
ρ₁V₁g + ρ₂V₂g − mg = 0
ρ₁V₁ + ρ₂V₂ = m
ρ₁V₁ + ρ₂V₂ = ρV
ρ₁Ah₁ + ρ₂Ah₂ = ρAh
ρ₁h₁ + ρ₂h₂ = ρh
(930 kg/m³)h₁ + (1000 kg/m³)h₂ = (968 kg/m³) (4.93 cm)
Since the block is fully submerged, h₁ + h₂ = 4.93 cm.
(930 kg/m³) (4.93 cm − h₂) + (1000 kg/m³)h₂ = (968 kg/m³) (4.93 cm)
h₂ = 2.68 cm
h₂ = 0.0268 m
Based on the data Thomson collected in his experiments using cathode rays, the concept of atomic structure was modified. Which of the following statements about the atomic structure were validated by his cathode ray experiments?A. Cathode rays have mass.B. articles of the cathode rays are fundamental to all matter.C. Matter contains negative charge and by inference positive charge.D. There are subatomic size particles in an atom.
Based on the data Thomson collected in his experiments using cathode rays, the following statements about the atomic structure were validated:
A. Cathode rays have mass; B. Particles of the cathode rays are fundamental to all matter; C. Matter contains negative charge and by inference positive charge; and D. There are subatomic size particles in an atom.Thomson Data is a division of Thomson Reuters, a global provider of data and analytics solutions for professionals in the financial and risk, legal, tax and accounting, and media markets.
It provides access to a wide range of data sources and solutions including company data, market data, reference data, news and content, and financial services data. Thomson Data's services are used by businesses, investors, and other professionals to gain insights into the markets and make informed decisions. The company's solutions are designed to help organizations access, curate, and analyze data in order to drive better business outcomes.
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Use the provided Smith charts to find the normalized input impedance of a lossless line of length l terminated in a normalized load impedance zL for each of the following combinations. Show your work on the Smith chart clearly
a) l = 0.75λ, zL = 1+ j0
(b) l = 0.5λ, zL = 1- j1
(c) l = 0.2λ, zL = 1+ j1
(d) l = 1.3λ, zL = 0.5 + j0.5
(e) l = 0.2λ, zL = 0 (short circuit)
Use the provided Smith charts to find the normalized input impedance of a lossless line of length l terminated in a normalized load impedance zL for each of the following combinations. l = 1.3λ, zL = 0.5 + j0.5.so, option (c) is correct.
What is impedance?The measure of resistance to electrical flow is called impedance, and it is denoted by the letter Z. In ohms, it is measured.
What is resistor?An electrical component known as a resistor controls or restricts the passage of electrical current in an electronic circuit.
Knowing about different parts, such as resistors, inductors, capacitors, power sources, connecting wires, and more, is necessary when building a circuit. Among the circuit's essential elements is the resistor.
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Unscramble the terms in italics to complete the sentences below. Write the terms on the lines provided. 5. In dry regions where sheep and cattle eat the grasses, reggianvorz increases soil erosion.
The term which describes the increased soil erosion in the regions where sheep and cattle eat the grasses and reggianvorz is called overgrazing.
What is overgrazing ?Overgrazing happens when livestock and other grazers (such as wildlife) consume more plant biomass than the vegetation can replenish in a reasonable amount of time, exposing the soil and lowering the vegetation's potential for production.
The exposure of the soil might hasten the potential for processes of water and wind erosion, which can result in soil losses. Less water infiltration into the soil might result in slower plant growth due to accelerated erosion processes and soil compaction caused by grazing animals.
Because less plant biomass is accessible as litter due to ongoing overgrazing, less soil organic matter, nutrients, and biotic activity are added to the soil. This causes the soil structure to deteriorate, which lowers the soil's capacity to store water and raises the risk of erosion.
Therefore, the term describing the given action is overgrazing.
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Find the principal stresses and corresponding principal directions for the stresses given in Problem 2.6. Check the result with other methods such as Mohr's circle.
The principal stresses and corresponding principal directions for the stresses in a problem can be found using various methods, one of which is Mohr's circle.
What is Mohr's circle?
Mohr's circle is a graphical representation of a two-dimensional stress state. Given the stress tensor components, the Mohr's circle can be used to visualize and determine the maximum and minimum normal stresses (i.e., the principal stresses) and the orientation of the planes on which they act (i.e., the principal directions).
It is important to note that finding the principal stresses and directions requires a thorough understanding of stress analysis, including stress transformation and the use of Mohr's circle. If you have access to the full problem statement, I would be happy to help you work through the solution.
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convert the displacement amplitude, 2.58 mils peak-to-peak at 900 CPM to the equivalent velocity amplitude in inches per second-peak?
According to the problem the Velocity amplitude (in/s-peak) is 1.827 in/s-peak.
What is Velocity amplitude?Velocity amplitude is the maximum speed at which a particle or object is traveling in a specific direction. It is a measure of the strength of the motion expressed in terms of the magnitude of the velocity. It can be determined by measuring the maximum value of the velocity vector over a given period of time. Velocity amplitude is an important concept in physics, as it allows for the calculation of the acceleration, momentum, and energy of a particle or object. It can also be used to determine the frequency of a periodic motion, such as the frequency of a wave or the frequency of oscillation.
The equation for converting displacement amplitude to velocity amplitude is:
Velocity amplitude (in/s-peak) = (2 x Displacement amplitude (mils-p-p)) / (π x Frequency (cpm))
Therefore, the velocity amplitude in inches per second-peak for a displacement amplitude of 2.58 mils peak-to-peak at 900 CPM is:
Velocity amplitude (in/s-peak) = (2 x 2.58 mils-p-p) / (π x 900 cpm)
Velocity amplitude (in/s-peak) = (5.16 mils-p-p) / (2,827.43 cpm)
Velocity amplitude (in/s-peak) = 1.827 in/s-peak
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A 6. 96-nc charge is located 1. 90 m from a 3. 86-nc point charge. Find the magnitude of the electrostatic force that one charge exerts on the other.
The required electrostatic force when the charges and distance are specified is calculated to be 66.98 × 10⁻⁹ N.
The charge q₁ is given as 6.96 nC.
The charge q₂ is given as 3.86 nC.
Distance r = 1.9 m
The magnitude of the electrostatic force that one charge exerts on the other is to be found out. The force between two charges at a distance is given by the formula,
F = k q₁ q₂/r² = (9 × 10⁹ × 6.96 × 10⁻⁹ × 3.86× 10⁻⁹)/1.9² = 66.98 × 10⁻⁹ N
Thus, the required electrostatic force is calculated to be 66.98 × 10⁻⁹ N.
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An electron is released from rest in a uniform electric field. Determine whether the following quantities increase, decrease, or remain unchanged as the electron moves. Indicate your answers with I (increase), D (decrease), or U (unchanged), respectively.a) The electric potential at the electron's locationb) The electron's associated electric potential energyc) Its kinetic energyd) Its total energy
As the electron moves in a uniform electric field, the following changes occur:
a) The electric potential at the electron's location decreases
b) The electron's associated electric potential energy decreases
c) Its kinetic energy increases
d) Its total energy remains unchanged.
This is because the potential energy is converted into kinetic energy as the electron moves from a higher potential location to a lower one. The total energy remains constant, as energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted from one form to another.
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What is the net force (in N) of a 3.00 N force and an 8.00 N force acting on an object for each of the following conditions?
b) The forces act in the same direction.
A man pushes a lawn mower on a level lawn with a force of 211 N. If 50% of this force is directed forward, how much work is done by the man in pushing the mower 5.7 m?
Two protons are moving directly toward one another. When they are very far apart, their initial speeds are 2.00x10^4 m/s. What is the distance of closest approach?
The distance of closest approach is 6.9 x 10⁻¹⁰ m.
What is the distance of closest approach?
The distance of closest approach between two protons can be determined using the law of conservation of energy.
Since the protons are moving directly toward one another, the total energy of the system is the sum of their kinetic energy and their potential energy.
rf = ( kq² ) / (1/2mv²)
where;
k is coulomb's constantq is the charge of the protonv is the speed of the protonrf = ( 9 x 10⁹ x (1.6 x 10⁻¹⁹)² ) / (0.5 x 1.67 x 10⁻²⁷ x ( 2 x 10⁴)²)
rf = 6.9 x 10⁻¹⁰ m
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Find the area of a parallelogram defined by the vector A(6,3,1)m and B(-2,4,5)
The area of the parallelogram is 40.60m^2.
What is the area of the parallelogram?Generally, To find the area of a parallelogram defined by two vectors, we can use the formula
A = |A x B|,
where
A and B are the two vectors.
A x B = (3*5 - 4*1, 6*5 - (-2)*1, 6*4 - (-2)*3)
= (17, 28, 24)
|A x B| = √(17² + 28² + 24²)
= 40.60m2
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a body of mass 10kg on a smooth inclined plane is connected over a smooth pulley to a mass of 15kg. acceleration of the system is?
The acceleration of the system is 4.9m/s² in the given pulley.
In a pulley, is acceleration equal?The most massive object will accelerate downhill and the least massive object will accelerate upward in a circumstance like this where two objects are strung above a pulley. Each object will experience the same amount of acceleration.
Acceleration has nothing to do with modifying the speed of an object. An object is not accelerating if its velocity remains unchanged. The data to the right show that an object moving towards the north does accelerate. The object's velocity is fluctuating over time.
In reality, the velocity changes by 10 m/s, or a constant amount, every second. An object is said to be moving faster or to have an acceleration whenever its velocity is changing.
ma = mg × sin30
a = g × sin30
a = 9.8 × sin30
a = 4.9m/s²
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Which of the following is an advantage that electronic brainstorming has over traditional brainstorming?It prevents participants from all answering at once.Cost effectiveIt allows participants to answer anonymously.It allows only one person to talk at a time.It encourages "social loafing".
An advantage that electronic brainstorming has over traditional brainstorming: Option. It allows participants to answer anonymously.
Electronic brainstorming provides anonymity, allowing participants to contribute freely without fear of judgement.
Electronic brainstorming provides a unique advantage over traditional brainstorming in that it allows participants to answer anonymously. This means that participants can contribute freely without the fear of judgement or criticism from others.
This allows more honest and open dialogue, as participants can express their ideas without the worry of being judged or having their ideas dismissed.
Additionally, electronic brainstorming is usually more cost-effective, as there is no need to arrange a physical meeting space or provide food and beverages. This makes it an ideal choice for those looking to brainstorm without the hassle or cost of traditional brainstorming.
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You have learned how astronomers talk about huge astronomical distances. Based on what you learned, select all of the correct statements from the following list. a. The distances to stars are measured in light years. b. A light-year is larger than an astronomical unit.
c. Astronomers use the metric system for calculations.
The distances to stars are mainly measured in parsecs, a light-year is larger than an astronomical unit (AU), and for calculations, astronomers use the metric system. Therefore, B and C are the correct options.
The metric system refers to the international decimal system of measurement. Since it is used internationally, it is a good idea that scientists use the metric system as a standard system of measurement. Astronomy is a science, so astronomers do use the metric system, though they prefer units (such as astronomical units, light years, and parsecs) that describe very long distance since space is huge.
Astronomers use light years to measure the distances between stars. But to measure the distances (from Earth) to stars, astronomers prefer to use parsecs.
A light-year is much greater than an AU (astronomical unit). A light year is defined to be equal to 63,240 AU.
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If the acceleration of an object is always directed perpendicular to its velocity, which of the following is true _____.a. this situation would not be physically possibleb. the object is slowing downc. the object is speeding upd. the object is turning
If the acceleration of an object is always directed perpendicular to its velocity, then the statement (the object is turning) is true due to the fact that the velocity vector of the object is always heading in a different direction.
The moving object is being accelerated in the direction of the center of rotation due to a centripetal force acting in that direction.
According to Newton's laws of motion, the path that the object would take if it did not experience this acceleration is a straight line.
An object's acceleration can be defined as the rate at which its velocity changes in relation to the passage of time. Accelerations are vector quantities. The orientation of the net force that is acting on an item is what determines the orientation of the acceleration the object is experiencing.
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Three equal charges are placed at three corners of the square of side length d. If q 4.0 nC and d= 4.0 m, what is the electric potential at the origin ?
The electric potential at the origin is 1.079 x 10^5 V.
What is electric potential?Electric potential is a measure of the electric potential energy per unit charge in an electric field.
The electric potential at the origin can be calculated using Coulomb's law and the principle of superposition. The electric potential at a point due to a single charge is given by:
V = k * q / r
where
k is the Coulomb constant (8.99 x 10^9 Nm^2/C^2)q is the charge r is the distance from the point to the chargeThe total electric potential at the origin due to all three charges is the sum of the potentials due to each charge.
Assuming the charges are all positive, the electric potential at the origin is:
V = k * q * (1/d + 1/√(2d^2) + 1/d)
Plugging in the values, we get:
V = 8.99 x 10^9 Nm^2/C^2 * 4.0 x 10^-9 C * (1/4.0 + 1/2 * 4.0 + 1/4.0) = 1.079 x 10^5 V.
Therefore, The electric potential at the origin is 1.079 x 10^5 V.
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The force F acts along line MA, where M is the midpoint of the radius along the x-axis. Determine the equivalent force-couple system at O if theta = 40 degrees
The opposing force that keeps an object from sliding downward or moving upward is called friction force. The object is prevented from moving in this experiment by the effects of gravity.
What three types of gravity are there?Gravity only comes in one variety. In nature, there is only one form of gravity. According to their masses and the separation between their centers, there is only one kind of gravitational pull that draws the two bodies together. Gravity is the weakest power known to exist in nature and is a form of central force.
What makes gravity a force?But in a wider sense, gravity is a force because it represents the interplay that happens when two masses are in close proximity to one another. the gravitational pull is.
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a metal having a cubic structure has a density of 19.302 g/cm 3 an atomic weight of 196.97 g/mol and a lattice paramater of 4,0786 a one atom is associated with each lattice point determine the crystal structure of the metal
The metal's crystal structure is FCC.
Finding a metal's density to atomic weight ratio and lattice parameter value will reveal the metal's crystal structure. The ratio of density to atomic weight is about equivalent to the quantity of atoms per unit cell in the crystal structure if the metal has a density of 19.302 g/cm3 and an atomic weight of 196.97 g/mol.
One atom per lattice point in a cubic structure with a lattice parameter of 4.0786 corresponds to a simple cubic (SC), body-centered cubic (BCC), or face-centered cubic (FCC) structure. The lattice parameter and density to atomic weight ratio are most consistent with an FCC crystal structure.
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The oxygen molecule (O2) may be regarded as two masses connected by a spring. In vibrational motion, each oxygen atom alternately approaches, then moves away from the center of mass of the system. If each oxygen atom of mass m = 2.67 ´ 10-26 kg has a vibrational energy of 1.6 ´ 10-21 J and the effective spring constant is 50 N/m, then what is the amplitude of oscillation of each oxygen atom?
Answer:
2.5 × 10^-11 m
Explanation:
The amplitude of oscillation for a simple harmonic oscillator is given by the equation:
A = √(2E / k), where E is the vibrational energy of each oxygen atom and k is the effective spring constant.
Substituting the given values:
A = √(2 * 1.6 × 10^-21 J / 50 N/m)
A = √(3.2 × 10^-21 J / 50 N/m)
A = √(6.4 × 10^-23 m^2 kg / s^2)
A = 2.5 × 10^-11 m
What is the current flowing through this circuit?
A) 1.3 A
B) 0.15 A
C) 15 A
D) 6.7 A
Answer:
6.7A
Explanation:
Firstly find out the net resistance,
in parallel combination of resistors,
R = R1 * R2 / R1 + R2
R = 6*2/6+2 Ω
R = 12/8Ω
R = 1.5 Ω
Now use Ohm's law,
v = iR
10 = i * 1.5
i = 10/1.5 A
i = 6.7 A
What is the potential energy of a 5.0 kg object located 3 m above the ground?
Answer:
147 J
Explanation:
PE = mgh = (5.0 kg)(9.8 m/s²)(3 m) = 147 J
As a result of the magnetic interaction between the soft iron and the bar magnet, which of the following will occur? Choose the correct answera) The magnet will experience a torque due to the iron attracting its north pole.
b) The magnet will experience a torque due to the iron attracting its south pole.
c) Whichever pole of the magnet is closest to the iron will be attracted to the iron.
d) Whichever pole of the magnet is closest to the iron will be repelled from the iron.
As a result of the magnetic interaction between the soft iron and the bar magnet, whichever pole of the magnet is closest to the iron will be attracted to the iron (option C)
A current-carrying solenoid creates its own magnetic field both inside and outside the solenoid when current is applied. The strength of the magnetic field inside the solenoid is increased when a soft iron bar or core is inserted because it magnetizes the iron bar.
The magnetic domains (small dipoles) present in the soft iron are aligned by the magnetic field of the bar magnet to produce the forces in this situation. It is possible to think of these domains as tiny perpetual current loops, and their propensity to align is known as permeability. The dipoles will be aligned to attract the pole of the bar magnet that is closest, and whichever pole of the bar magnet is nearest will dominate this alignment.
The question is incomplete, it should be:
A bar magnet oriented along the y axis can rotate about an axis parallel to the z axis. Its north pole initially points along j. Now the charge is replaced by an electrically neutral piece of initially unmagnetized soft iron (for example, a nail) that is not moving.
As a result of the magnetic interaction between the soft iron and the bar magnet, what will happen to the magnet?
Whichever pole of the magnet is closest to the iron will be attracted to the iron.
Choose the correct answer
a) The magnet will experience a torque due to the iron attracting its north pole.
b) The magnet will experience a torque due to the iron attracting its south pole.
c) Whichever pole of the magnet is closest to the iron will be attracted to the iron.
d) Whichever pole of the magnet is closest to the iron will be repelled from the iron.
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An 85 L flexible container holds 3.4 moles of gas. How many moles of gas should be removed to decrease the volume of the container to 40 L?
1.8 moles of gas should be removed to decrease the volume of the container to 40 L
What is Avogadro's law?Avogadro's Law states that the volume of a gas is directly proportional to the number of moles (or a number of particles) of gas when the temperature and pressure are held constant.
Given, An 85 L flexible container holds 3.4 moles of gas.
This problem requires Avogadro's law, which states that the amount (moles) of a gas is directly proportional to its volume, such that if the amount increases, the volume increases and vice versa. You correctly determined the formula to use:
V = k×n or. V₁n₁=V₂n₂.
Let "x" be the number of moles in a 40l container
85/40 = x/3.4
Thus,
x = 1.8
Therefore, 1.8 moles of gas should be removed to decrease the volume of the container to 40 L
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The activation energy, Ea, for a particular reaction is 37.8 kJ/mol. If the rate constant at 280 K is 0.178 M/s, what is the value of the rate constant at 457 K? (R = 8.314 J/mol K)
The value of the rate constant at 457 K is 0.478 M/s.
The rate constant, k, at a given temperature can be related to the activation energy, Ea, and the gas constant, R, through the Arrhenius equation:
[tex]k = Ae^{(-Ea/RT)}[/tex]
where A is the pre-exponential factor and T is the temperature in Kelvin.
Given k1 = 0.178 M/s at T1 = 280 K, and Ea = 37.8 kJ/mol, we can calculate the rate constant, k2, at T2 = 457 K as:
k2 = A * [tex]e^{(-Ea/R * T2)}[/tex] = 0.178 * [tex]e^{(-37.8 kJ/mol / (8.314 J/mol K) * 457 K)}[/tex] = 0.478 M/s.
This means that the reaction will proceed faster at 457 K than it does at 280 K, due to the increase in temperature leading to an increase in the rate constant, k.
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runner traveling at 8 m/s begins to slow down by accelerating at --1 m/s2 for 4 seconds. without the acceleration the runner would have ran
Without acceleration, the distance is 32 m, and with acceleration, the distance is 24 m shorter.
Explain what acceleration is.The direction of the motion is shifting, therefore an object moving at a constant speed in a circular path is still moving forward.
Describe the acceleration law.Newton's Second Law of Motion states that when a force is applied to a material, the mass accelerated (gains speed) (object). Riding a bicycle is a great example of how this movement law is put to use. The bulk is made up by your bicycle. Your leg muscles produce the force as they push against with the bicycle's pedals.
Initial speed v = 8 m/s
acceleration a = -1 m/s²
t = 4 sec.
distance d = v * t
= 8 m/s * 4 sec.
d = 32 m
distance with acceleration,
d' = vt + 1/2 at²
d' = 8 m/s * 4s + 1/2 * (-1 m/s²) (4s)
d' = 24 m
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A heavy dart and a light dart are launched horizontally on a frictionless table by identical ideal springs. Both springs were initially compressed by the same amount. Which of the following statements about these darts are correct?
The statement which is correct about the lighter dart leaves the spring moving faster than the heavy dart. Option B is correct.
This is because both darts are launched with the same initial elastic potential energy from the compressed springs, but the lighter dart has less mass than the heavier dart. According to the law of conservation of energy, the lighter dart must move faster than the heavier dart in order to have the same amount of kinetic energy as the heavier dart once it leaves the spring.
The initial potential energy is the same for both darts, and since the potential energy is converted to kinetic energy, the lighter dart must have a higher velocity than the heavier dart in order to have the same amount of kinetic energy.
Therefore, option B is correct, while options A, C, D, and E are not, as they do not accurately describe the behavior of the darts in this scenario.
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--The complete question is, A heavy dart and a light dart are launched horizontally on a frictionless table by identical ideal springs. Both springs were initially compressed by the same amount. Which of the following statements about these darts are correct?
A) The darts both have the same kinetic energy just as they move free of the spring.
B) The lighter dart leaves the spring moving faster than the heavy dart.
C) The heavy dart had more initial elastic potential energy than the light dart.
D) Both darts move free of the spring with the same speed. E) Both darts had the same initial elastic potential energy.--
A 10,000-kg rocket blasts off from earth with a uniform upward acceleration of 2.00 m/s2 and feelsno air resistance. The upward thrust force its engines must provide during this acceleration is closest toA) 20,000 N.B) 980,000 N.C) 118,000 N.D) 78,000 N.
The upward thrust force of rocket engines must provide is 118,000 N (C)
At the precise moment of launch, the force pushing upwards and the weight acting downwards are the two forces that are acting on rockets. At the surface of the Earth, the force exerted by gravity is referred to as weight, and it may be determined by multiplying the mass in kilograms by 9.8 m/s². The upward thrust force can be calculated by this following formula:
F = m × (a +g)
Where:
F = the upward thrust force
m = the mass of the object
= 10,000 kg
g = the acceleration due to gravity
= 9.8 m/s²
a = the uniform upward acceleration
= 2 m/s²
Thus, the upward thrust force of rocket engines must provide is
F = 10,000 × (2 + 9.8)
= 118,000 Newton
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a space shuttle is in a 250 mile high orbit what are the shuttle's orbit period in minutes and its speed
The orbital period of a space shuttle in a 250 mile high orbit is approximately 91.3 minutes, and the orbital speed is approximately 17,500 miles per hour (7.68 kilometers per second).
This speed is determined by the gravitational pull from Earth, as well as the height of the orbit. The higher the orbit, the slower the orbital speed. For a 250 mile high orbit, the shuttle will need to maintain a constant speed in order to stay in orbit. The speed and orbital period of a space shuttle in orbit depend on a number of factors, including the height of the orbit, the mass of the shuttle, and the gravitational pull of the Earth.
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With an average acceleration of -5.6m/s2, how long will it take a driver to bring a truck with an initial speed of 10.3 m/s to a complete stop?
The number of miles that it will take a driver to bring a truck with an initial speed of 10.3 m/s to a complete stop will be 9.47 meters.
What is the motion in one dimension?One dimension denotes mobility in a single direction or in a straight line. Think of a vehicle travelling down a straight road or a person walking on a straight track. Imagine throwing something vertically into the air, then observing it fall.
With an average acceleration of -5.6 m/s². And the initial speed of 10.3 m/s to a complete stop. Then distance is given as,
v² - u² = 2as
0² - (10.3)² = 2 x (-5.6) x d
- 106.09 = -11.2d
d = 9.47 meters
The number of miles is 9.47 meters.
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What is the peak wavelength of light coming from a star with a temperature of 5300 K?
(Submit your answer in nanometers. Remember 1nm = 10-9 m)
The peak wavelength of light coming from a star with a temperature of 5300 K is 2.0 x 10⁻⁷ m.
What is wavelength?Wavelength is a measure of the distance between two consecutive wave crests or troughs and is usually defined as the length of one full cycle of a wave. Wavelengths are typically measured in meters, centimeters, or nanometers (10-9 meters). Wavelength is inversely related to frequency, meaning that higher frequency waves have shorter wavelengths.
The wavelength of each energy level can be calculated using the equation λ = hc/E, where h is Planck's constant, c is the speed of light, and E is the energy level in electron volts. Using this equation, the four wavelengths of the emission spectrum are calculated as follows:
0.0 eV = 0.0 m, 1.5 eV
= 8.0 x 10⁻⁷ m, 3.0 eV
= 4.0 x 10⁻⁷ m
and 6.0 eV =
2.0 x 10⁻⁷ m.
Thus, the peak wavelength of light coming from a star with a temperature of 5300 K is 2.0 x 10⁻⁷ m.
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