This presentation is most typical of pelvic inflammatory disease. Pelvic
inflammatory disease affects the reproductive organs in females such as:
UterusFallopian tubeOvaryThe symptoms include:
Chills NauseaVomitingVaginal discharge etcIt is usually caused by bacteria which causes various degree of inflammation
and can be treated with the use of antibiotics.
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Canadian individual or group medical insurance plans typically cover which of the following?
Answer:
l que debemis pirfa que paso
A weight reducing diet required the daily intake of ‘liquid protein’[soup of hydrolyzed gelatin], water and an assortments of vitamins. All other food and drink were to be avoided. People on this diet typically lost 10 to 14kg in the first week. A number of persons on this diet died. What are some of the dangers inherent in the diet and how can they lead to death?
Answer: See explanation
Explanation:
From the information given, it should be noted that Gelatin has a nutritional distribution of amino acids that's unbalanced.
It should be noted that in a scenario whereby large amounts of gelatin are ingested into the body such that there is catabolizing of the excess amino acids, there will be an excess of the urwa cycle capacity which then brings about ammonia toxicity.
Furthermore, the dehydration which can be caused due to the excretion of large amount of urea can also lead to death.
Hank is a competitive endurance athlete who weighs 80 kg and trains for less than 4 hours a day. He would like to plan a nutritionally adequate diet that provides enough carbohydrate to maintain his weight and glycogen stores during training and competition. According to expert recommendations, he should consume _____ grams of carbohydrate daily.
Answer: 480 to 800
Explanation:
Based on the information given, according to expert recommendations, he should consume 480 to 800 grams of carbohydrate daily.
This is calculated as:
(80kg × 6) - (80kg × 10) = 480 - 800 grams.
Assuming his weight is 90kg, the grams of carbohydrate to be consumed will be. 540 to 900 grams.
When the person is being fed through an intravenous central catheter, they are given _____________________ nutrition.
The adductor portion of the adductor
magnus muscle gets its nerve supply from
Answer:
the sciatic nerve
Explanation:
The adductor magnus is a triangular muscle of the lower limb, which extends over the entire medial side of the thigh. Moreover, the sciatic nerve is the largest nerve in the human body that runs alongside the hip joint and down the lower limb. The sciatic nerve is known to innervate the muscles of the posterior thigh, the entire leg, and the entire foot. The tibial component of the sciatic nerve supplies the hamstring component of the adductor magnus, whereas the obturator nerve (L2-4) innervates the adductor component.
sbar T.N. delivered a healthy male infant 2 hours ago. She had a midline episiotomy. This is her sixth pregnancy. Before this delivery, she was para 4014. She had an epidural block for her labor and delivery. She is now admitted to the postpartum unit. 1. What is important to note in the initial assessment
Answer and Explanation:
It is important to assess body temperature and the existence of abnormal swellings. It is also necessary to assess urinary production and bowel function, existence of clots or bleeding, breast tenderness, uterus contraction and the patient's emotional state.
These factors are important to be evaluated to determine the level and recovery of the patient the normal functioning of the body, then go through the procedures presented. These procedures determine if the patient will need to be submitted to other procedures that guarantee both his physical and emotional well-being.
How many grams of zinc oxide should be added to 3400 g of a 10%
zinc oxide ointment to prepare a product containing 15% of zinc oxide?
The amount in grams of zinc oxide should be added to 3400 g of a 10% zinc oxide ointment to prepare a product containing 15% of zinc oxide - 200 grams.
In the given question,
the initial amount of zinc oxide is - 10% of 3400 = 340 gramsthe amount needs to be added - x gramsthe final product have - 15% of 3400+xsolution:
[tex] \frac{340 + x}{3400 + x} = 0.15 \\ 340 + x = 510 + 0.15x[/tex]
[tex]x = \frac{510 - 340}{1 - 0.15} = 200[/tex]
x = 200 gram.
Thus, the correct amount would be - 200 grams.
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A 56 year old woman is complaining of vaginal dryness and dyspareunia. She is prescribed this medicine with lesser side effects
Answer:
osphena (ospemifene)
Explanation:
The nurse provides dietary instructions to a client with diabetes mellitus regarding the prescribed diet. Which statement if made by the client indicates a need fir further teaching
Answer:
A nurses caring for a client after a thyroidectomy and notes that calcium gluconate is prescribed for the client. The nurse determines that this medicine has been prescribed to
treat hypoglycemic tetany.
Meredith in labor for the first time she had a normal pregnancy and good prenatal care labor preceded normal until she was dilated to 4 cm since that point no progress has taken place it has been 12 hours meredith is tired and frustrated the fetus demonstrates no stress as of yet meredith is scheduled for a c-section
Answer:
Explanation:
A C-section scheduled for Meredith is best for her. A dilation of 4cm can't proceed with normal labor. Being in labor for 12 hours is dangerous for the mother and fetus. Even if the fetus demonstrates no stress yet, it is safer to have a C-section for Meridith to keep the mother and fetus in good status.
Overcoming challenges to cultural competence in research requires that: (Check ALL that apply)
Answer: • Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.
• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.
• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.
Explanation:
Cultural competence in research refers to the ability of researchers to provide high quality research whereby the culture and the diversity of the population is taken into account during the development of the research ideas and when conducting the research.
The requirements for cultural competence include:
• Investigators examine and understand of historical contexts for study populations before initiating research study design.
• Early-phase study design should take into account race, ethnicity and cultural factors.
• IRB membership should include representatives of large communities and cultural groups as representatives.
Calculate the dose of acetaminophen for a 3-year-old child with the body surface area of 0.30 m2. The adult dose of the drug is 500 mg. Record your answer using a whole number. _____mg
Answer:
87 mg
Explanation:
To find the dose of acetaminophen for a 3-year-old child with the body surface area of 0.30 m², we use the formula given below
Child dose = child surface area/1.73 × adult dose
Given that the child surface area = 0.30 m² and the adult dose = 500 mg,
Child dose = child surface area/1.73 × adult dose
Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have
Child dose = child surface area/1.73 × adult dose
Child dose = 0.30 m²/1.73 × 500 mg
Child dose = 0.1734 × 500 mg
Child dose = 86.71 mg
Child dose = 87 mg to the nearest whole number
How to calculate the heart rate from the electrocardiogram ?
Answer:
ECG paper is a grid where time is measured along the horizontal axis.
Each small square is 1 mm in length and represents 0.04 seconds.
Each larger square is 5 mm in length and represents 0.2 seconds.
Voltage is measured along the vertical axis.
10 mm is equal to 1mV in voltage.
The diagram below illustrates the configuration of ECG graph paper and where to measure the components of the ECG wave form
Heart rate can be easily calculated from the ECG strip:
When the rhythm is regular, the heart rate is 300 divided by the number of large squares between the QRS complexes.
For example, if there are 4 large squares between regular QRS complexes, the heart rate is 75 (300/4=75).
The second method can be used with an irregular rhythm to estimate the rate. Count the number of R waves in a 6 second strip and multiply by 10.
For example, if there are 7 R waves in a 6 second strip, the heart rate is 70 (7x10=70).
The nurse is trying to determine the ability of the client with myocardial infarction (MI) to manage independently at home after discharge. Which statement by the client is the strongest indicator of the potential for difficulty after discharge?1. I need to start exercising more to improve my health.2. I will be sure to keep my appointment with the cardiologist.3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.4. I think I have a good understanding of what all my medications are for.
Answer:
3. I don't have anyone to help me with doing heavy housework at home.
Explanation:
All the response options, with the exception of the third, have an autonomy of the patient, where he shows that he will have no difficulties in performing necessary tasks, without the help of third parties. However, in the third answer option, the patient shows that he will have difficulties after being discharged, as he fears that he will have difficulties in being alone, since he has no one to help him.
Therefore, we can assume that the correct answer to your question is the third answer option.
a goiter can result fromtoo much or too little iodine in the diet. choline supplementation. vitamin A toxicity. chromium deficiency.
Answer:
Too little iodine in diet
Explanation:
Goitre could occur as a result of too little iodine in diet. When there is not enough iodine in the diet, it canresult to goitre. This is why iodine is added to table salt in most countries of the world to combat iodine deficiency.
Nursing students in a community health nursing course identified toxic waste disposal to be a major problem in their community. The instructor recognizes the students understand the appropriate approach to handle the situation by conducting which type of assessment
Answer: problem oriented
Explanation:
The options include:
a. comprehensive
b. problem oriented
c. familiarization
d. community subsystem
Based on the information given, the assessment conducted is a problem oriented assessment. This is an assessment whereby a particular problem is thoroughly assessed and the areas that aren't related to the problem isn't covered.
In this case, the instructor recognizes the students understand the appropriate approach to handle the situation by conducting the problem oriented assessment.
Answer: trouble orientated
Explanation:
The alternatives include:
a. complete b. trouble orientated
c. familiarization
d. network subsystem
Based at the data given, the evaluation carried out is a trouble-orientated evaluation. This is an evaluation wherein a specific trouble is very well assessed and the regions that are not associated with the trouble is not covered.
In this case, the trainer acknowledges the scholars recognize the correct technique to address the state of affairs via way of means of carrying out the trouble-orientated evaluation.
What is health?Health is the state of being active and fit. Your body and other organs also work properly.
Thus it is clear that it is explained above.
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Responses of the Mast cells to the allergen include/s a. All of the answers are correct b. Degranulation c. Secretion of lipid mediators d. Secretion of cytokines
Answer:
The correct answer is - A. All of the answers are correct.
Explanation:
Mast cells are the cells that are present on connective tissue. These cells have many garnules that are filled with histamin and heparin that play role in first line immune response against allergens. Degranuation is the process of releasing these granules.
Other than this mast cells or mastocytes also secrete lipid mediators and cytokines. These are activated and secreted in presence of allergen or anaphalyxis response.
Cefdinir for Oral Suspension 250 mg is ordered. Pharmacy sends the following drug. Which of the following applies to the administration of this ordered dose?a. One tsp will be administered. b. The bottle needs to be shaken well. c. 2.5 mL will be administered. d. 2 mL will be administered. e. It is for enteral use only.
Answer:
a. One tsp will be administered.
Explanation:
Cefdinir is an antibiotic which is used to treat pneumonia and sore throat. Oral suspension 250 mg is administered. It is used for oral consumption only. It is used to treat infection caused by bacteria.
A 12-year-old child experiences high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding. Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur. What disease should be considered and what is the treatment
Explanation:
Given:
Here a 12-year old child experineces high fever and chills. He also says that his heart feels like its pounding.Two weeks before these symptoms, the child fell off his bike and skinned his knee. This child also has a history of a heart murmur.
The objective is to identify the disease and the treatment for the disease
Solution:
The child is experiencing infective endocardits.
Treatment with aqueous penicillin or ceftriaxone is more effective foe most infections caused by streptococci. The combination of penicillin or ampicillin with gentamicin is appropriate for endocarditis caused by enterococci that are not highly resistant to penicillin intial empiric therapy in patients with suspected endocrditis should include plus in an aminoglycoside
The valve replacement is considered in selected patients with infectious endocarditis
The common congental defects that cause hearts murmurs include holes in the heart or cardiac shunts which is known as septal defects.
The disease that should be considered is infective endocarditis whose treatment can be based on antibiotics.
Infective endocarditis is a type of infection in the internal heart tissue called the endocardium.This disease (infective endocarditis) may be caused by different harmful microorganisms (.e.g, bacteria, fungi, etc), which in this case could have entered into the body through the skinned knee.Infective endocarditis can be treated by using proper antibiotics to kill harmful microorganisms.In conclusion, the disease that should be considered is infective endocarditis whose treatment can be based on antibiotics.
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What is a thyroid storm, and why would the admitting doctor want to consider this as a possible diagnosis
Answer:
Explanation:
Thyroid storm can be described as a condition that arises as a result of prolonged untreated hyperthyroidism. This condition is more described with the overproduction of two thyroid hormones.
Also, people with thyroid storm have low level of TSH hormone and high level of T3 and T4 hormone.
Thyroid storm is also classified with high blood pressure,high respiratory rate, high body temperature. These symptoms and some hormone level test of TSH, T3 and T4 would make the doctor consider admission.
Why have risky behaviors for zoonotic diseases continued even though we know that some of these diseases can infect humans?
Answer: Zoonotic diseases are those diseases that are transferred from animals to humans.
Explanation:
In zoonotic diseases animals are the vectors for the transfer of disease from humans to animals. The organisms that are transferred through zoonotic diseases are bacteria, viruses, fungi, and parasites. Mostly the disease causing organisms are parasites. For example rabies, Lyme disease, plague, salmonellosis, west nile virus, and others. These diseases develop risky human behavior. For example humans affected by rabies show phobia from water. Some humans also develop biting tendency.
I Describe the duties and responsibilities of own work role?
Answer:
Your duties and responsibilities refer to your legal and professional obligations as well as the tasks and behaviours that your employer expects from you as part of your job role. Your main duties and responsibilities will be dependent on your own particular role.
1. Explain how your scores compare to the Healthy Fitness Zone Standards. Based on this comparison, what should you do next
Answer:
My score are good.
Explanation:
My score are good because there is little difference and more similarities between my score and Healthy Fitness Zone Standards. Based on this comparison, we should follow the next level fitness due to promotion to the next level of fitness. If my score in every level is satisfactory so I will completed all the levels in a short period of time otherwise it takes too much time. I need more hard work to do it earlier.
Mr. C. is at the grocery store, his niece told him to buy whole grain bread. All of the following statements are true about whole grains products EXCEPT:________
A. Any flour made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel is called wheat flour.
B. Whole grain products contain germ and bran as well asendosperm.
C. Refined-grain products contain germ and bran as well as endosperm.
D. Enriched white flour refers to refined flour.
The statement given is true except "Refined-grain products contains germ and bran as well as endosperm".
It should be noted that the wheat flour is made from the endosperm of the wheat kernel. Also, the germ, bran, and endosperm are contained in the whole grain.The refined grain doesn't contain germ or bran because they're removed during the processing. It only contains the endosperm.
In conclusion, the correct option is C.
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54.Uterine subinvolution after normal delivery may occur as a
result of:
a. Vaginal infection
b. Urinary tract infection
c. Gastroenteritis
d. Endometritis
using the cpt code book, assign code(s) for the following scenario: Dr. Smith admits Ralph to a nursing home. He performs a comprehensive history, comprehensive examination and medical decision making of high complexity. Code for the initial visit for admission of a patient to a nursing home. List the CPT code verified in the Tabular List.
Answer:
CPT Code 99306
Explanation:
Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph with a high medical decision making complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.
What is CPT code?CPT code is an abbreviation for current procedural terminology code and it can be defined as the set of numbers that are formally assigned to each task and service that is being offered by a healthcare provider.
Basically, a current procedural terminology (CPT) code is typically used by an insurer to determine the amount of money that should be paid to a healthcare provider for the services rendered.
Since Dr. Smith performed a comprehensive history and examination on Ralph, and the medical decision making is of high complexity, the verified CPT code would be 99310.
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When can a CSNP member change carrier
Answer: the last month of enrollment in your current plan.
Explanation:If you do not choose another private health or drug plan immediately, your SEP is extended for 90 days from the time of your disenrollment in the plan.
To be successful in coding for anesthesia what will you need? A. The Relative value guide published by the American Society of Anesthesiologists, B The Physicians desk reference, C. Strong knowledge of anatomy, D. Both a and c.
What drug is popular at parties in the West?
la vaca Lola la vaca lola
Martha Wembly has a history of diabetes mellitus, type 2. How is this different from diabetes mellitus, type 1
Answer and explanation:
Diabetes Mellitus is a condition characterized by high blood sugar levels (hyperglycemia), if not properly controlled this disease can severely damage many organs and cause death.
There are different types of Diabetes Mellitus, Type 1, Type 2, and Gestational (this type of diabetes, in particular, is unique to pregnant women).
In a healthy body, when blood sugar levels are high (for example, right after we eat), Insulin would be released from the pancreatic beta-cells to induce the entering of glucose (also called sugar) into different tissues such as skeletal muscle and fat, where it will be used to produce energy and store the excess for when the body needs it.
Patients that suffer from Diabetes Mellitus cannot get the glucose they ingest into the mentioned tissues, and for that reason, the blood sugar levels stay high and can produce several life-threatening consequences. This incapacity can have different roots and is the reason behind the classification of this condition.
Type 1 Diabetes is the most uncommon of the two and it appears for the first time during childhood or teenage years. Patients with type 1 Diabetes CANNOT produce Insulin, because their pancreatic beta-cells are deficient. For this reason, these individuals have to be administered exogenous Insulin for the rest of their lives.
Type 2 Diabetes is, by far, the most common type of Diabetes. Unlike type 1 diabetics, these patients can produce glucose, but the combination between genetic predisposal and unhealthy habits such as poor diets or sedentarism can lead to a condition called Insulin resistance, in which the tissues cannot accept the glucose even if there's Insulin around. This type of Diabetes usually starts manifesting during adulthood (especially in patients that are older than 40 years old) and is treated with specific medication and a change in their habits.