Isabelle has the flu. Which two healthcare professionals can prescribe medication for her?

paramedic
certified nurse aide
medical assistant
physician assistant
general physician

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

certified nurse aid, general physician.

Answer 2
CNA and a general physician

Related Questions

someone explain classical conditioning from Ivan Pavlovym to me please???????

Answers

Answer:

Discovered by Russian physiologist Ivan Pavlov, classical conditioning is a learning process that occurs through associations between an environmental stimulus and a naturally occurring stimulus.

Explanation:

The most important thing to remember is that classical conditioning involves automatic or reflexive responses, and not voluntary behavior (that's operant conditioning, and that is a different post). What does this mean? For one thing, that means that the only responses that can be elicited out of a classical conditioning paradigm are ones that rely on responses that are naturally made by the animal (or human) that is being trained. Also, it means that the response you hope to elicit must occur below the level of conscious awareness - for example, salivation, nausea, increased or decreased heartrate, pupil dilation or constriction, or even a reflexive motor response (such as recoiling from a painful stimulus). In other words, these sorts of responses are involuntary.

The basic classical conditioning procedure goes like this: a neutral stimulus is paired with an unconditional stimulus (UCS). The neutral stimulus can be anything, as long as it does not provoke any sort of response in the organism. On the other hand, the unconditional stimulus is something that reliably results in a natural response. For example, if you shine a light into a human eye, the pupil will automatically constrict (you can actually see this happen if you watch your eyes in a mirror as you turn on and off a light). Pavlov called this the "unconditional response." (UCR)

As soon as the neutral stimulus is presented with the UCS, it becomes a conditional stimulus (CS). If the CS and UCS always occur together, then the two stimuli would become associated over time. The response that was initially produced in response to the UCS would also be produced in response to the CS, even if it was presented alone. Pavlov called this the "conditional response." (CR)

To make this a bit more concrete, we'll use Pavlov's dogs as an example. Before learning took place, the dogs would reliably salivate (UCR) when given meat powder (UCS), but they gave no response to the ringing of a bell (neutral). Then Pavlov would always ring a bell just before he would present the dogs with some meat powder. Pretty soon, the dogs began to associate the sound of the bell with the impending presence of meat powder. As a result, they would begin to salivate (CR) as soon as they heard the bell (CS), even if it was not immediately followed by the meat powder (UCS). In other words, they learned that the bell was a reliable predictor of meat powder. In this way, Pavlov was able to elicit an involuntary, automatic, reflexive response to a previously neutral stimulus.

what does the choroid plexus do?

Answers

Answer:

produce cerebrospinal fluid

Explanation:

The choroid plexus (ChP) is a secretory tissue found in each of the brain ventricles, the main function of which is to produce cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
Select one:
of
O a. Waterproofs the body
stion
O b. Helps fluids move
O c. Blocks the entrance of pathogens
O d. Touch receptor

Answers

the answer is C i believe
c. Block the entrance of pathogens

why are warts so hard to treat. and why do they keep on coming back if not treated properly./ not die
i need a few reasons
please asap its due in a little while

Answers

Answer:

ANSWER: Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus. They are indeed contagious, very common and can be difficult to get rid of. The customary first-line treatment is salicylic acid cream, found at your local drugstore or pharmacy. The treatment works much better if you remove the dead skin with a pumice stone or emery board.

Explanation:

Hope this helped <3

John was making an extension cord so that he could be able to use a power outlet to
Lise his electric saw. but john didn't notice that the wire wals fraved. Ile proceeds to
connect it to power outlet and the traved wires sparked and caused a fire. Suggest
what class of fire was caused and suguest what class of fire extinguisher should be
lised to put out the fire.​

Answers

Answer:

It was a Class C fire, and you need a Class C extinguisher.

Explanation:

Electrical fires are Ckass C fires, and since this fire was caused by frayed wires, it IS an electrical fire. The class of extinguisher will typically match the class of the fire, so the extinguisher should be Class C.

How do you know when you are running low on oxygen and anesthetic gas?

Answers

*just an educated guess*

I think you know when you’re low on oxygen when you feel your lungs tighten up. Maybe even if your breathing gets shallow and it gets hard to take deep breaths. Also, feeling lightheaded can mean that you’re low on oxygen.

what is the formula for finding the magnitude of a line?​

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

To work with a vector, we need to be able to find its magnitude and its direction. We find its magnitude using the Pythagorean Theorem or the distance formula, and we find its direction using the inverse tangent function. Given a position vector →v=⟨a,b⟩,the magnitude is found by |v|=√a2+b2

The formula is

|v|=√a2+b2

Which of the following tests is performed to detect any muscle abnormality?
a. Reflex testing
b. Romberg balance test
c. Heel-to-shin test
d. Alternating motion test

Answers

Answer: I have to say C. Heel-to-shin test

i'm sorry if this isn't right

Explanation:

The Romberg balance test is performed to detect any muscle abnormality.

The Romberg test first introduced in  1846 is an  assessment tool which measures sense of balance as well as  coordination  in individuals. It is also used as diagnosing tool for sensory ataxia and any muscle abnormality.

The procedures first follows that

The patient removes his shoes and stands with his two feet together  with the  arms held closed  to the body or crossed in front of the body. Then  the patient  is asked  to first stand quietly with eyes open, and after, with eyes closed.(The patient will try to  maintain  balance)  

After the procedures above checks for balance,  variations of the Romberg test which includes the Sharpened Romberg test and Single leg Romberg test can then be done to access other health conditions like  dizziness, uncoordinated movement, impaired muscle control etc.

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A 49 year old male patient presents to your surgical unit with a traumatic abdominal injury from a motor vehicle accident. You will prepare the patient for surgery STAT.

1) What procedures would you expect to perform on this patient before emergency surgery?

2) What are the most important questions that you will ask the patient at this time?

3) What other information needs to be collected for this patient?

4) How long would you expect the hospital stay to be for this patient?

Answers

1) you would need a CT of the abdominal area before

2) when was the last time you ate because you can’t do surgery on a full stomach, are you allergic to anything that you know of

3) name if not a John Doe, do they have family you can contact?

4) 3-7 days
1. First before anything you would need to get an abdominal CT

2. When was the last time you ate, are you allergic to anything, do you have any disorders or illnesses.

3. His name, blood type, emergency contacts, and if he is an organ doner.

4. Depending on the severity of the injury, and how the surgery goes, anywhere from 3 days to a week.

When a patient is seated upright, the thighs are ---blank---
to the abdomen.

Answers

Answer:

perpendicular

Explanation:

When a patient is seated upright, the thighs are perpendicular. The obese person is at risk of serious illness.

What is risk of serious illness?

The obese person is at risk of serious illness. Obesity tends to be higher in women, which accumulates proportionally more fat in peripheral regions such as the hips and thighs, while in men there is greater accumulation in the abdomen area.

A nerve fiber that could be conducts impulses toward muscles and glands is called a motor neuron fiber. A nerve that conducts impulses toward the brain and spinal cord is called a sensory nerve fiber. Both are important for the proper functioning of the body.The sensory nerve fibers send the stimulus in the form of an impulse from the sensory organs to the spinal cord.

Therefore, When a patient is seated upright, the thighs are perpendicular. The obese person is at risk of serious illness.

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The quality of the sound heard on percussion of the chest; the intensification and prolongation of a sound by reflection or by vibration of a nearby object is known as:
a. pitch.
b. tone.
c. frequency.
d. resonance.

Answers

Answer:

a

Explanation:

Answer:

resonance

Explanation:

pitch is the quality of a sound governed by the rate of vibrations producing it the degree of highness or lowness of a tone.

the tone is how u sound( i dont know how to word it)

frequency is the rate at which a vibration occurs that constitutes a wave, either in a material (as in sound waves), or in an electromagnetic field (as in radio waves and light), usually measured per second.

The cheeks are an example of a(n) ----blank--- structure: in between the medial structure of the nose and the distal structures of the ears.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

yes the6yy r

Answer:

intermediate

Explanation:

correct on edge 2022

The y incision is the start?
A.Bain exam
B. Sample collection stage
C. Internal exam
D. External exam

Answers

i believe c i could be wrong
c) internal examination; Internal Examination
The internal examination starts with a large, deep, Y-shaped incision that is made from shoulder to shoulder meeting at the breast bone and extends all the way down to the pubic bone. When a woman is being examined, the Y-incision is curved around the bottom of the breasts before meeting at the breast bone.
The next step is to peel back the skin, muscle and soft tissue using a scalpel. Once this is done, the chest flap is pulled up over the face, exposing the ribcage and neck muscles.
Two cuts are made on each side of the ribcage, and then the ribcage is pulled from the skeleton after dissecting the tissue behind it with a scalpel.
With the organs exposed, a series of cuts are made that detach the larynx, esophagus, various arteries and ligaments. Next, the medical examiner severs the organs' attachment to the spinal cord as well as the attachment to the bladder and rectum. Once this is done, the entire organ set can be pulled out in one piece and dissected for further investigation.
During this dissection, the various organs are examined and weighed and tissue samples are taken. These samples take the form of "slices" that can be easily viewed under a microscope. Major blood vessels are also bisected and examined.
The examiner opens the stomach and examines and weighs the contents. This can sometimes be helpful in figuring out the time of death (more on time of death later).
The examiner will then remove the body block from the back and put it behind the neck like a pillow, raising the patient's head so that it's easier to remove the brain.
The examiner makes a cut with a scalpel from behind one ear, across the forehead, to the other ear and around. The cut is divided, and the scalp is pulled away from the skull in two flaps. The front flap goes over the patients face and the rear flap over the back of the neck.
The skull is cut with an electric saw to create a "cap" that can be pried off, exposing the brain. When the cap is pulled off, the dura (the soft tissue membrane that covers the brain) remains attached to the bottom of the skull cap. The brain is now exposed. The brain's connection to the spinal cord and tentorium (a membrane that connects and covers the cerebellum and occipital lobes of the cerebrum) are severed, and the brain is easily lifted out of the skull for examination.
Throughout this whole process, the medical examiner is looking for evidence of trauma or other indications of the cause of death. The process varies based on the nature of the case and is incredibly detailed -- the forensic pathologist has to adhere to an intricate, in-depth process to ensure the proper collection and documentation of evidence.
After the examination, the body has an open and empty chest cavity with butterflied chest flaps, the top of the skull is missing, and the skull flaps are pulled over the face and neck. To prepare the body for the funeral home:
The organs are either put back into the body or incinerated.
The chest flaps are closed and sewn back together.
The skull cap is put back in place and held there by closing and sewing the scalp.
The funeral home is then contacted to pick up the deceased.
The whole process takes careful work. Dr Kiesel explains how long this can take:
"An average autopsy case takes about four hours. That's including all the paperwork. There is about a half an hour before and after the autopsy for doing the external examination, the dictation, the paperwork. The autopsy can take anywhere from one hour to two hours if it's an uncomplicated case. If it's a complicated case like a homicide ... it can take many hours -- 4 to 6 hours."
Dr Kiesel continues, "The medical examiner will then take all of the information that they've received from the autopsy exam, all of the information they've received from the investigation, and they will determine a cause of death and a manner of death."

Given what you know about NF1, explain how Kai's symptoms are
a result of a change to his neurofibromin gene and the neurofibromin protein.

Answers

Answer:

Because he will diaplaying mental disorder.

Explanation:

And then his going to be becoming very slim.

( NF1 ) means Neurofibromatosis type 1 is a genetic disorder that has the power to affect multiple systems. Can cause skin-related changes and many more body damages.  

The protein was probably mutated inside Kai’s body it could have altered the DNA coding of the body and altered gene flow can lead to changes in functioning. As the cell cycle will be disturbed one can experience tumors.

Learn more about the explain how Kai's symptoms.

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Due to otitis media, Shauna has fluid collection in her middle ear. Antibiotics alone have not helped Shauna recover. Which procedure would Shauna’s doctor have to perform to cure her?

A. Shauna’s doctor must drain fluid from the middle ear.

B. Shauna’s doctor must prescribe an antihistamine.

C. Shauna’s doctor must perform a procedure on her pinna.

D. Shauna’s doctor must prescribe an anesthetic.

E. Shauna’s doctor must insert a cochlear implant.

Answers

E. Shauna's doctor must insert a cochlear implant

A physician orders I milligram (mg) of atropine intravenous (IV) for a patient in cardiac arrest. Atropine
available as 0,5 mg/5 mL. The nurse administers the medication at 8:30 PM and charts the time given as 1
... How many milliliters of solution should be given to the patient?

Answers

0.5mg is half of 1mg. The Doctor ordered 1mg. The patient should be given 0.5mg and another 0.5mg which would be 1mg given at 830pm. The nurse must be specific in writing to prevent errors.

If you wanted to become a medical coder, which of the following would be helpful steps toward this career pathway? Check all of the boxes that apply.

▢ computer training

▢ certification

▢ postsecondary training programs

▢ study abroad experience

Answers

Answer:

A. computer training

B. certification

C. postsecondary training programs

Explanation:

edge2021

Medical coding is a profession in health and medicine. A medical coder should have computer training, certification, and postsecondary training programs. Thus, options A, B, and C are correct.

What is medical coding?

Medical coding or clinical coding is the field of healthcare and the medical sector that involves the documentation and transcription of the medical record and results.

For a person to be a medical coder they should be proficient with computer and system training as the technology is heavily used in this sector. They must have certification courses in the respective subject.

In addition, they must have completed their postsecondary training programs so that they can understand the medical terminologies used at hospitals and clinics.

Therefore, options A, B, and C. medical coders should have certifications and postsecondary training programs.

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The chemical
death.
used in THC pens, has been linked to lung disease and
A. Vitamin C acetate
B. Vitamin D acetate
C. Vitamin E acetate
D. None of the above.

Answers

Option A. Vitamin C acetate

What are cells made of?
a plasma
b organs
c organelles
d vacuoles

Answers

Answer: Organelles

im pretty sure its organelles


All cells are made from the same major classes of organic molecules: nucleic acids, proteins, carbohydrates, and lipids.

Which of the following is not a function of zinc? A.helps in the sense of taste B. helps in cell growth development C. functions in the production of DNA D. regulates the heartbeat

Answers

A. Helps in the sense of taste.

B. helps in cell growth development.

C. functions in the production of DNA.

D. regulates the heartbeat.

The answer is, A.

Zinc do not performs the function of producing DNA in human body.

C. functions in the production of DNA

Zinc is one of the essential nutrient that is required in the body. It plays many function.

It helps in providing immunity and metabolism in the body. It helps the body to heal the wounds faster.  It helps in enhancing the taste buds. The deficiency of zinc in the body leads to slow recovery of the patients.  The consumption of zinc prevents the children from the effect of diarrhea.

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