in which order will proteins a (55 kda), b (60 d), and c (50,000 da) emerge from the column after size exclusion chromatography?

Answers

Answer 1

Proteins A (55 kDa), B (60 kDa), and C (50,000 kDa) will emerge from the column after size exclusion chromatography in the order of C, B, and A.

Size exclusion chromatography is a type of chromatography which separates molecules based on their size. In this method, a gel with small pores of various sizes is used.

When a mixture of proteins is passed through the gel, the largest proteins are unable to enter the pores and are eluted first, while the smallest proteins enter the pores and are eluted last. In the given case, protein C has the largest size and will be eluted first, followed by proteins B and A.

This technique is used for both qualitative and quantitative analysis of proteins, to identify their size and measure the amount of each protein present in the mixture.

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Related Questions

why is the transporter in the figure considered to be an example of secondary transport?

Answers

1. It is moving two substances.

2. The two transported substances are moving in opposite directions.

3. It is driven by the proton gradient that was created by energy from ATP.

4. It is driven by ATP which was created by energy from a proton gradient.

It is driven by the proton gradient that was created by energy from ATP.

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the most cited criticism against animal research is that

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The most frequently cited criticism of animal testing is that it is morally wrong.

Animal research, also known as animal testing, animal testing, or in vivo testing, is the use of non-human animals in experiments aimed at controlling variables that affect the behavioral or biological system being studied. Harm to animals should not be minimized as they are not considered "human". In summary, animal testing violates animal rights, causes pain to laboratory animals, and should be abolished because other means of testing products for toxicity are available. The most frequently cited criticism of animal testing is that it is morally wrong.

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triglycerides are used as the primary energy source by muscles multiple select question. during low-intensity physical activity. during high-intensity physical activity. when the body is at rest.

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During low-intensity physical activity and when the body is at rest, triglycerides are used as the primary energy source by muscles.

A form of fat called triglycerides is stored in adipose tissue and can be used as an energy source when required. They are essential for energy metabolism because they give the body energy when it is at rest and performing low-intensity physical activity. The body may meet its energy requirements during low-intensity physical activity by utilising the fatty acids that are produced from triglycerides because the energy demands are comparatively modest.

The body's energy requirements rise during high-intensity exercise, and the muscles predominantly rely on glycogen stored in the muscle fibers as an energy source. Triglycerides, however, can still play a little role, particularly when glycogen levels are low.

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neutrophils group of answer choices are responsible for specific defenses. are agranulocytes. are active in fighting bacterial infection. have multiple nuclei. are not phagocytic.

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Neutrophils are agranulocytes that have multiple lobed nuclei and are active in fighting bacterial infection.

Correct answer: letters C and D.

They are not phagocytic, but are responsible for specific defenses such as producing antibodies and releasing substances that can kill bacteria.

They use their chemotactic ability to find and engulf bacteria through phagocytosis. This process involves the recognition of specific molecules on the bacterial surface and the generation of reactive oxygen species (ROS) to kill the bacterial cells. In addition to this, neutrophils are also involved in the production of inflammatory cytokines, which play an important role in initiating an effective immune response against the infection.

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Which of the following statements is not a part of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
A. The genotype frequencies in the offspring generation must add up to two.
B. If allele frequencies in a population are given by p and q, then genotype frequencies will be given by p2, 2pq, and q2 for generation after generation.
C. When alleles are transmitted according to the rules of Mendelian inheritance, their frequencies do not change over time.
D. Even if allele A1 is dominant to allele A2, it does not increase in frequency.

Answers

The requirement that the genotype frequencies in the offspring generation add up to two is not included in the Hardy-Weinberg principle. The correct answer is option(a).

The Hardy-Weinberg evenness is a standard declaring that the hereditary difference in a people will wait loyal from individual production to the next in the deficiency of disquieting determinants. Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium (HWE) is used to estimate the number of homozygous and heterozygous variant carriers established allure allele commonness in public that is not developing.

The Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium (HWE) is a main fundamental principle of society person's family tree, which states that “genotype recurrences in a people wait for neverending 'tween production in the omission of commotion by outside determinants”.

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what is biology
pls help me​

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Answer:  the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution.

Explanation:

Answer:

the study of living organisms, divided into many specialized fields that cover their morphology, physiology, anatomy, behavior, origin, and distribution.

Explanation: This is the factual definition of BIOLOGY.

where does the first stage of cellular respiration occur? A. W
B. X C. Y D. Z

Answers

Answer: B) X C. Y D. Z

Where does the first stage of cellular respiration occur? ANSWER:  B) X C. Y D. Z

How does tubal sterilization work?

Answers

The fallopian tubes typically cut, tied, or obstructed during tubal ligation to completely prevent pregnancy. Your menstruation is not affected by the surgery.

A tubal ligation is what?

A kind of everlasting emergency contraception is tubal ligation, sometimes referred to as having your blood drawn or tubal sterilization. To permanently prevent pregnancy, the reproductive organs are cut, tied, or blocked during tubal ligation. Tubal ligation is not a viable solution for you unless you are confident that you'll never wish to become pregnant.

What age is ideal for a tubal ligation?

It is advised to postpone getting your blood drawn until you are in your 30s. There are several more methods of contraceptive methods if having your tubes closed doesn't work for you. Some 99% application of low solutions.

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The functional unit of the kidney is called ________.
a. the renal hilus
b. the renal corpuscle
c. the nephron
d. Bowman’s capsule

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The nephron is the name of the kidney's functional unit.

One million filtering cells called nephrons make up each of the your kidneys. A nephron is made up of tubule and a filter called the glomerulus. Your blood is the filtered by a glomerulus, and the tubules remove waste while replenishing vital nutrients. The nephrons work in this way.

The nephron produces urine through the processes of the filtration, reabsorption, secretion, and excretion. These are also applicable to many substances. In the filtration process of blood and the production of urine, neurons are crucial players. Uropoiesis is the term for the procedure through which the nephrons make urine. The nephrons are also known as uriniferous tubules as a result.

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which hormone opposes the action of parathyroid hormone?

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Calcitonin is a chemical that the C-cells in the thyroid organ produce and delivery. It goes against the activity of the parathyroid chemical, assisting with controlling the blood's calcium and phosphate levels.

Calcitonin and PTH are alluded to as adversarial chemicals, as their activities are entirely inverse. While calcitonin is discharged when the blood calcium level is incredibly high, PTH is emitted when the blood calcium level is excessively low.

Calcitonin and parathyroid chemical (PTH) are adversarial chemicals. This implies that these chemicals have inverse activities to each other. Calcitonin is discharged by the thyroid organ and is associated with diminishing blood calcium levels.

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hybrid toads have increased mortality rates due to severe physical deformities. what type of reproductive barrier is this?

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Hybrid toads have increased mortality rates due to severe physical deformities, this type of reproductive barrier is called Postzygotic Reproductive Barriers.

In any case, we learnt a lot about the different types of barriers that can result in reproductive isolation prior to fertilisation while we were waiting for our typical hamsters to arrive. Our flying and non-flying hamster matings successfully produce fertilised eggs and zygotes. As a result, it doesn't appear that the two species of hamsters have prezygotically isolated gene pools.

Even if the two kinds of hamsters were able to mate and generate a zygote, the zygote would still need to develop to a reproductive age and give birth to offspring in order for the two hamsters to be considered to be simple variations of the same species.

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What are r-selected species give examples?

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R-selected species are species that have a high reproductive rate .

What are R-selected species ?

R-selected species are species that have a high reproductive rate and are adapted to rapidly colonizing changing or unpredictable environments. They typically have a lot of offspring with a low survival rate, and they invest little resources into individual offspring. Examples of R-selected species include some annual plants, insects, and certain species of fish and crustaceans. R-selected species are contrasted with K-selected species, which have a slower reproductive rate, longer lifespan, and typically invest more resources into individual offspring to increase the chances of survival. Examples of K-selected species include large mammals, birds, and many trees.

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match the action with the correct method of heat generation or heat exchange. matches can be used more than once, or may not be used at all. question 2 options: heat generated by photosynthesis heat generated by cellular respiration swimming in a lake to cool off on a very hot day sweating warmth of a chair you were sitting on a warm breeze heating up an insect 1. metabolism 2. conduction 3. convection 4. evaporation 5. radiation

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Metabolism is heat generated by cellular respiration, conduction is the warmth of a chair you were sitting on, convection is swimming in a lake to cool off on a very hot day, evaporation is sweating, and radiation is heat generated by photosynthesis, warming up an insect.

Metabolism - refers to the chemical processes that occur within an organism, such as cellular respiration, which generates heat as a byproduct. Conduction - the transfer of heat through direct contact between objects, such as the warmth of a chair you were sitting on.

Convection - the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids, such as air or water. For example, swimming in a lake on a hot day can cool off your body through the transfer of heat from your body to the cooler water through convection.

Evaporation - the process by which a liquid changes into a gas and releases heat. For example, sweating cools off the body as the sweat on the skin evaporates, taking heat away from the body.

Radiation - refers to the transfer of heat through electromagnetic waves, such as the warmth of the sun reaching the earth through radiation or the heat generated by photosynthesis in plants. In the case of an insect, it can be warmed up by radiation from the sun.

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Which of the following is not a function performed by glial cells ?
A. Remove cellular debris produced by damaged or dying cells
B. Increase the speed of electrical impulses passed down an axon
C. Form the blood - brain barrier
D. Detect internal body conditions

Answers

They create the myelin sheath, which insulates the neurons. By creating a close connection between the blood vessels and the neurons, they also assist in feeding the neurons. However, these cells do not produce neurotransmitters.

What are the four tasks that glial cells perform?

Glial cells have four primary roles: to surround and stabilise neurons; to supply them with nutrition and oxygen; to insulate one neuron from another; and to degrade and remove the remains of dead neurons (clean up).

What does the glial cell Mcq do?

The neurons are supported structurally and with nutrition by glial cells that surround them. The meninges are membranes that surround the spinal cord and brain. The brain and spinal

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what is the difference between the axial portion of the body and the appendicular portion of the body?

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Your neck, back, chest, and head comprise your axial skeleton. The bones that connect (append) to your axial skeleton make up your appendicular skeleton, which is everything else.

The axial section of the body consists of what?The cranium, laryngeal skeleton, vertebral column, and thoracic cage are all composed of bones that make up the axial skeleton. The bones of the axial skeleton "append" to the appendicular skeleton (the limbs and girdles).The body's core, which is made up of the head, neck, and torso, is represented by the axial portion. Axial section organs include those found in the cranial, thoracic, abdominal, and pelvic chambers. The axial section's extensions, including the extremities, arms, and legs, are represented by the appendicular portion.Your neck, back, chest, and head comprise your axial skeleton. The bones that connect (append) to your axial skeleton make up your appendicular skeleton, which is everything else.          

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the best ""tool"" for a microbiologist would be a ______.

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Microscopes, slides, test tubes, petri dishes, growth media (liquid and solid), inoculation loops, pipettes, and tips, incubators, autoclaves, and laminar flow hoods are all examples of microbiology equipment.

Which equipment is ideal for a scientist studying bacteria?

There are bacteria everywhere, and because they reproduce quickly, they are simple to examine using only a few basic materials. Petri plates, agar, sterile swabs, or an inoculating needle are all you need.

What instrument is used to quantify bacteria?

A compact, user-friendly tool called the DiluPhotometerTM OD600 is used to measure samples close to the 600 nm wavelength (OD600). It is appropriate for determining the rates of growth of a variety of cell types, including E (cell density, bacterial growth, and yeast growth).

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Which of the following genotypes is found with the highest frequency in the Caucasian population? A. CDe/cDe. B. cDE/ce. C. cDE/cE. D. CDe/ce.

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The Caucasian group has the highest prevalence of CDe/CE genotypes. Ninety-eight percent of Caucasians carry the e antigen. For Caucasians, Asians, and Native Americans, the most prevalent Rh haplotype is DCe.

The Dce haplotype is somewhat more prevalent among Blacks (1). A loss of the RHD gene causes the Rh D-negative phenotype in Caucasians. Originally written in alphabetical sequence (CDE), the common Rh antigens D, C or c, and E or e were eventually modified to DCE when it was realised that C and E antigens are inherited together. RhD positive refers to those who express the D antigen, which makes up about 85% of the population; RhD negative refers to people who do not. People who are RhD negative but receive blood that is RhD positive are likely to acquire anti-D antibodies because the D antigen is highly immunogenic.

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Look at the shampoo advertisement. What message is the advertisement most likely conveying about sex?

A. Same-sex relationships are not normal or socially acceptable.
B. Teenage sexual relationships are unacceptable.
C. Heterosexual relationships are normal and acceptable.
D. Same-sex relationships are acceptable.

Answers

D same sex relationships are acceptable

What reproduction produces genetic variation?

Answers

Reproduction produces genetic variation is Sexual reproduction.

What do you mean by Sexual Reproduction?

Sexual reproduction is a type of reproduction that involves the combination of genetic material from two individuals to produce offspring that inherit traits from both parents. This is in contrast to asexual reproduction, where offspring are produced from a single individual without the fusion of gametes (sex cells). In sexual reproduction, the parents produce gametes (usually sperm and egg) that contain half the number of chromosomes as the parent cells. When the gametes unite during fertilization, the resulting zygote has a full complement of chromosomes, which are a mixture of those from both parents. This combination of genetic material leads to genetic diversity among offspring and can increase the chances of survival of a species in changing environments.

Sexual reproduction produces genetic variation. In sexual reproduction, offspring are created through the combination of genetic material from two parents. This process of fusion of genetic material from the two parents results in offspring with a unique combination of genes, leading to genetic variation. Additionally, mutations and genetic recombination during meiosis can also contribute to genetic variation in sexually reproducing organisms.

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What determines the vernation of a turfgrass species?

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The vernation, or the arrangement of leaves in a shoot, of a turf grass species is determined by the growth habits and genetic makeup of the plant. Factors such as the species' morphology, the environment it is grown in, and cultural practices can also influence vernation.

Turf grass is a type of grass that is grown for specific purposes such as for lawns, athletic fields, golf courses, parks, and other landscaped areas. It is carefully maintained and mowed to create a smooth, uniform appearance. There are many different species of turf grass, each with its own unique characteristics, such as tolerance to heat, cold, drought, and shade, as well as desired texture, color, and growth habit. Proper selection and maintenance of turf grass can improve the appearance and function of a landscape, provide recreational opportunities, and contribute to the overall health and well-being of the environment.

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Which one of the following structures will you likely NOT see in an unstained cell?a. chromosomeb. cell wallc. nucleusd. nuclear envelopeTrue or False: A compound light microscope can be used for electron (scanning or transmission) microscopy.

Answers

The following structures will you likely NOT see in an unstained cell is cell wall.

Large unstained cells (LUC) are unclassifiable white blood cells, including stem cells, regular lymphocytes, and virocytes. The proportion of big unstained cells is reported in clinical laboratories' test results for blood and other medical testing. They are actually peroxidase-negative, activated lymphocytes.

A hard, exterior layer created especially to offer rigidity and structural support is known as a cell wall. Additionally, it protects the inside parts of the cell from the outside environment and preserves them in tact. The primary role of the cell wall is to provide structural support and strength as well as a semi-permeable surface that allows molecules to enter and exit the cell.

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Please refer to the passage
and image to help you answer
this problem.
What type of selection is
shown in this image?
A. disruptive
B. directional
C. stabilizing

Answers

Answer:

It would probably be b (good luck)

steroid hormones group of answer choices function by way of a second messenger system. bind to intracellular receptors. bind to receptors on the surface of the cell. function by activating camp. cannot diffuse through the plasma membrane.

Answers

There are two primary processes by which the hormone stimulates the target cell: second-messenger mechanisms and direct gene activation. Gene Activation Directed. Steroid hormones cross the plasma membrane (they are lipid soluble) and bind to receptor molecules within the cell.

Steroid hormones penetrate past a target cell's plasma membrane and bind to intracellular receptors in the cytoplasm or nucleus. Steroid hormone-induced cell signaling pathways control certain genes on the cell's DNA.

Steroid hormones bind to receptors in the nucleus as well as the cell membrane. The nuclear receptors are the most researched class of steroid hormone receptors, so termed because they serve as ligand-dependent transcription factors in the cell nucleus.

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Why are the oceans considered a large carbon sink?
A. Carbon gets transferred among all the organisms of every food chain.
B. Phytoplankton takes in carbon through cellular respiration.
C. Decomposition rates in the water are far greater than on land.
D. Water absorbs carbon directly from the atmosphere by diffusion.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: D. Water absorbs carbon directly from the atmosphere by diffusion

- is the reason why the oceans are considered a large carbon sink. The ocean has the ability to absorb carbon dioxide from the atmosphere through a process called diffusion, where the gas molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration. This results in the ocean being able to store large amounts of carbon dioxide, making it a crucial component in regulating the Earth's carbon cycle.

- The ocean also helps to regulate the Earth's climate by absorbing and storing heat, reducing the effects of global warming. This helps to mitigate the impacts of climate change by preventing the Earth's temperature from rising too quickly.

- However, the increased absorption of carbon dioxide by the ocean is also having a negative impact, as it is causing the water to become more acidic, which is harmful to marine life and ecosystems. This highlights the importance of reducing carbon emissions and taking action to address the impacts of climate change on the ocean and the Earth as a whole.

When using CODIS, the likelihood that two individuals have the same 13-loci profile is about one in a billion.
A.
B.
True
False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

A patient is found to have blindness of the right visual field of both eyes. What part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged? Explain your response.
A. Left optic nerve B. Right optic nerve C. Left LGN D. Right LGN

Answers

Information from the right visual field has not yet crossed at the optic chiasm.

What is the visual field?

The visual field is "the spatial array of visual sensations available for observation in introspective psychological experiments". Or simply, the field of view can be defined as the entire area that can be seen when the eye is fixed directly on a point.

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Right LGN is the part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged.

What is vision?
Vision is the ability to see and process visual information. It is a vital sense that connects us to the world around us and helps us make sense of it. Vision is the ability to recognize shapes, detect movement, and observe color and contrast. Our eyes detect light and send information to our brains to be processed. Our brains interpret this information and provide us with an understanding of the world around us. Vision also helps us understand spatial relationships, such as the size, shape, and distance of objects.

The right visual field of both eyes is blind, meaning that the right lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN) of the thalamus is most likely damaged. The LGN is part of the vision pathway that carries visual information from the retina to the primary visual cortex in the brain. Damage to the LGN can lead to blindness in the corresponding visual field of both eyes.

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biotech international received a formal complaint from its federal regulatory agency in which biotech international believes is based on false claims. biotech can immediately challenge the complaint by:

Answers

The biotech company can challenge the claims using various refute like looking for legal help, and resolving the issue by discussions.

Requesting a meeting with the agency: Biotech International may ask the agency for a meeting in order to discuss the complaint and present proof that the accusation is unfounded.

Making a formal appeal: Biotech International has the option to make a formal appeal of the complaint to the agency. This would cause the complaint and the supporting documentation to be reviewed.

To assist them with the appeals process and to represent them at any meetings or hearings, Biotech International may engage legal assistance.

Getting involved with pertinent industry groups: Biotech International may think about getting involved with pertinent industry organizations to spread the word about the complaint and enlist the aid of other businesses in the sector.

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Define “unicellular organism” and “multicellular organism,”
and give two examples of each.

Answers

Answer:

Unicellular organisms are made up of only one cell that carries out all of the functions needed by the organism.

Examples: Bacteria, Protists, and Yeast

Multicellular organisms are composed of more than one cell, with groups of cells differentiating to take on specialized functions.

Examples: Humans, Plants, Animals, and Fungi

Explanation:

You're welcome.

which statements are true about neutrophils? multiple select question. they are agranulocytes. their count only rises in response to parasitic infections. they have multi lobed nuclei when mature. they are the most abundant leukocyte.

Answers

The true statements regarding neutrophils are:

They are agranulocytes.They are the most abundant leukocyte.

Neutrophils are a type of white blood cell (leukocyte) that play an important role in the body's immune response. They are the most abundant type of white blood cell and are characterized by their multi-lobed nucleus and agranular cytoplasm. Neutrophils are responsible for identifying and neutralizing harmful pathogens such as bacteria and fungi.

Their count in the bloodstream can increase in response to infections and other inflammatory conditions, serving as a sign of an activated immune response. They migrate to the site of infection, where they engulf and destroy invading microorganisms through a process known as phagocytosis. Thus, neutrophils are critical components of the body's defense against infectious agents.

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the functions of the plasma membrane include

Answers

The plasma membrane or cell membrane protects the cell. It also provides a constant environment inside the cell. And this membrane has various functions. One is to carry nutrients into the cell and toxic substances out of the cell.

Functions of the plasma membrane:

The main function of the plasma membrane is to act as a physical barrier between the external environment and internal organelles. The plasma membrane is a selectively permeable membrane that allows the movement of only certain molecules in and out of the cell.The plasma membrane also plays an important role in both endocytic and exocytotic processes.The plasma membrane also functions by facilitating communication and signaling between cells.

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Other Questions
find 6.50) The difference between annual compound interest on a ca sum of money for two years at 20% p.a. and semi- compound interest on the same sum of money at the same of interest and for the same period of time is Rs. 482 Calculate the sum (Ans: Rs. 20000 Ethan is 1.85 meters tall. At 10 a.m., he measures the length of a tree's shadow to be 28.45 meters. He stands 24.3 meters away from the tree, so that the tip of his shadow meets the tip of the tree's shadow. Find the height of the tree to the nearest hundredth of a meter. Models are useful in biological research for which of the following reasons?1. They may suggest experiments that can be performed to refine or test the model.2. They provide a way to organize how we think about a problem.3. They can help us see the larger picture by showing how the different components of a complex system fit together. A construction crew is building a circular playground. The playground is surrounded by a fence that is 47. 1feet long. About how much area will the playgroundcover? Use 3. 14 for r. Round to the nearest tenth. Help pls! charlie sells cookies only in packages of 10. it costs him $3.50 in materials per package. additionally, he has overhead costs of $1,500 per month. in order to pay himself a monthly salary of $5,000, how many packages of cookies does charlie need to sell per month at $10 per package? The dog shelter serves 120 pounds of food per day. Ifeach dog eats 1 %4 pounds of food how many dogs arein the shelter?a. 26 dogsb. 66 dogs69 dogsd. 96 dogsC. This rectangle of x's is 6/5 of another (original) rectangle of x's. x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x x a. (5 points) Show the original rectangle. Attach a picture of only your drawing. b. (5 points) Use our definition of fraction to help you solve this problem and explain your solution. An accretionary prism of sediments and oceanic crust is formed? A peron purchaed 10 egg for 4 and old 8 egg for 4. The profit or lo in the bargain will be Part 1 of 2Use the GCF and the Distributive Property to find the sum.30+42Write each number as a product using the GCF as a factor, and apply the Distributive Property.30+ 42 =(Use the operation symbols in the math palette as needed. Do not simplify.) the equation for line r can be written as y= 1 2 x 8. line s, which is perpendicular to line r, includes the point (2, 7). what is the equation of line s? The_________ suggests, decisions about quantities are best made incrementally.O cost-benefit principleOopportunity cost principle Omarginal principleO interdependence principle Beryllium-11 is a radioactive isotope of the alkaline metal Beryllium. It decays at a rate of 4.9% every second. Assuming you started with 100%, how much would be left after 35 seconds? use a=8 and b=24 too work out these expressions. Does the hotter block have more energy inside? Look closely! Yes/No who is most likely to report the highest level of marital happiness? after observing different forms of energy transfer, which form or forms of energy have the least amount of waste? justify your answer with evidence you have gathered from the simulation. The rate at which a process can serve customers per a given time periodA. Throughput timeB. Cycle timeC. Capacity Proposed solutions for which any denominator equals ____ are excluded from the solution set of a rational equation. What is 13.5 C in inches?