Systemic pain in the musculoskeletal system is a symptom of rheumatoid arthritis but not osteoarthritis. Additionally, osteoarthritis produces crippling joint pain and stiffness. Treatment with aspirin will reduce symptoms in both illnesses. Changes in everyday activities are a possibility with both diseases.
When the smooth cartilage joint surface deteriorates, osteoarthritis develops. Osteoarthritis frequently starts in a single joint. Due to the autoimmune nature of rheumatoid arthritis, the immune system misbehaves and targets the body rather than foreign invaders. In this instance, the synovial membrane that covers and safeguards the joints is attacked. Several joints are frequently affected at once by rheumatoid arthritis. Patients can occasionally have an explosive polyarticular onset that lasts for 24 to 48 hours. An additional pattern is a palindromic presentation, in which patients report swelling in one or two joints that lasts for a few days to weeks before going away entirely, then returning in the same or other joints, with an increasing pattern over time.
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The complete question is:
In contrast to osteoarthritis, rheumatoid arthritis may be associated with
debilitating joint pain and stiffness.improvement in symptoms with aspirin therapy.changes in activities of daily living.systemic aching in the musculoskeletal system.The condition where eye sees near objects well but distant objects appear blurry is called?
Myopia, a nearsighted condition, causes distant objects to appear blurry because the point of focus is in front of the retina.
Myopia, a disease that affects many people, causes near objects to appear clear while far distant objects to appear blurry.
What is it called when the eye sees close objects clearly but distant objects appear blurry?
One of the most prevalent vision issues is myopia, sometimes known as nearsightedness. According to the Mayo Clinic, people with this condition have trouble focusing their eyesight on distant objects, which causes distant objects to appear blurry while nearby objects remain sharp.
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tumor containing yellow material medical term
A sebaceous cyst may be present on your skin if you discover a yellow or white bump. Although sebaceous cysts typically cause little harm and are painless, watch for indications of infection.
A yellow tumour is called a xanthoma. This is a tumour under the skin that is yellow in hue because of the fat and cholesterol it contains. A yellow tumour is called a xanthoma. This is a tumour under the skin that is yellow in hue because of the fat and cholesterol it contains. Dermoid is a term for a substance resembling skin. A cyst is a bulge or mound that could be filled with fluid or another substance. Dermoid cysts often contain a greasy yellow substance, however they can also contain bone.
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is An MSU is collected in a yellow bag? TRUE OR FALSE
Answer: false
Explanation: they're not collected in bags they're collected in bottles
where to find ati med surg proctored exam?
The ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam is usually found on a course curriculum designed or up taken by a student's nursing school or program.
The ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam is a standardized test used to evaluate a student's knowledge and understanding of medical-surgical nursing. This exam is typically administered by a student's nursing school or program, as part of their curriculum.
If you're a high school student considering a career in nursing, it's important to research the different programs and schools that offer nursing education.
Once you've enrolled in a program, you will likely be given information on how and when to take the ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam, as well as any other exams required by the program. If you're unsure about where to take the exam, you can reach out to your nursing program or school for guidance.
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What causes child pancreatitis?
Pancreatitis is a medical condition in which the pancreas, a crucial organ located behind the stomach, becomes inflamed. The inflammation can be acute, meaning it occurs suddenly and severely, or chronic, meaning it occurs over time and is less severe.
Pancreatitis can occur in children, causing them severe pain and discomfort. Child pancreatitis is caused by several factors, including genetics, illnesses, injury, and certain medications. In some cases, the cause is unknown.
One of the most common causes of child pancreatitis is genetics. If a family has a history of pancreatitis, there is a higher risk that a child may also develop the condition.
Illnesses such as cystic fibrosis, autoimmune disorders, and high levels of triglycerides can also lead to child pancreatitis. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the respiratory, digestive, and reproductive systems, leading to inflammation and damage to the pancreas. Autoimmune disorders occur when the body's immune system attacks its own cells, leading to inflammation in the pancreas. High levels of triglycerides, a type of fat in the blood, can cause fat to accumulate in the pancreas, leading to inflammation and damage.
Injuries to the pancreas, such as blunt trauma, can also cause child pancreatitis. Certain medications, including diuretics, anti-inflammatory drugs, and some antibiotics, can also lead to the development of pancreatitis in children.
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What is the practice that was begun in the 1950s to release hundreds of thousands of patients from public mental hospitals.
Beginning in the 1950s, deinstitutionalization involved the release of hundreds of thousands of patients from public mental hospitals.
This was in response to overcrowding and substandard conditions in many of these facilities, as well as a shift in attitudes toward mental illness and a desire for more community-based care. Many patients were transferred to community-based care facilities or returned to live with their families as a result of deinstitutionalization. This movement, however, was not without difficulties, as many people who had been institutionalized for long periods of time found it difficult to adjust to life outside of the hospital, and some did not receive adequate support and care in the community. Despite these challenges, deinstitutionalization remains an important aspect of the history of mental health care and has led to ongoing efforts to improve the quality of care and support for individuals with mental illness.
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TRUE/FALSE. alcohol is one of the most widely used drugs in the world. it is used by more young people in the united states than tobacco or illicit drugs.
The statement is true that alcohol is one of the most widely used drugs in the world and it is used by more young people in the United States than tobacco or illicit drugs.
America has a higher percentage of alcohol misuse while having one of the lowest rates of alcohol use among first-world nations. Approximately 15 million Americans are currently battling alcoholism, and 95,000 individuals pass away in the US every year as a result of alcohol-related illnesses.
Illegal drug usage, non-medical or erroneous use of prescription medications, and improper consumption of other drugs are all considered forms of illicit drug use (such as inhalants).
Nicotine is a chemical with addictive properties that has both stimulant and depressive effects. It is found in the tobacco plant (Nicotiana tabacum and Nicotiana rustica). Products made from tobacco leaves can be eaten in a variety of ways.
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what harmful germs can raw meat contain before cooking?
Answer:
Salmonella spp., Staphylococcus aureus, Escherichia coli, Campylobacter jejuni, Listeria monocytogenes, Clostridium perfringes, Yersinia enterocolitica and Aeromonas hydrophila.
Explanation:
That's why it's important to cook meat in any instance. If you were trying to find what parasites are in raw meat, I will provide a list.
Taenia saginata (beef tapeworm), Taenia solium (pork tapeworm), and Taenia asiatica (Asian tapeworm).
A nurse is providing oral care for a client who is immobile. Which of the follow actions should the nurse take?
Turn the client on his side before starting oral care is the actions should the nurse take.
oral care means Maintaining good oral health include taking care of your teeth, gums, tongue, jawbone, and any other mouth tissues. You may avoid tooth decay and gingivitis, or gum disease, which is increasingly frequent as you age, by maintaining good oral health.An older adult client with a possible cognitive problem is being admitted by a nurse. A client who needs dental hygiene but is unconscious is being cared for by a nurse. In order to promote the drainage of mouthwash and avoid aspiration, the nurse should place the client in a side-lying or lateral posture with the head of the bed flat. In order to promote the drainage of mouthwash and avoid aspiration, the nurse should place the client in a side-lying or lateral posture with the head of the bed flat. Considering a client's medical records
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complete question:a nurse is providing oral care for a client who is immobile. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
a. use a stiff tooth brush to clean the clients teeth
b. use the thumb and index finger to keep the clients mouth open
c. turn the client on his side before starting oral care
d. apply petroleum jelly to the clients lips after oral care
a feminist evolutionary psychologist would argue that ______. group of answer choices sex and gender are not a factor in evolutionary psychology
A feminist evolutionary psychologist would argue that man can not be the only active part in evolutionary process.
Not only men participate in evolutionary processes.
Women have played a role in evolution throughout history.
Gender clearly influences sexual selection and mate competitiveness.
Gender and sex play a role in evolutionary psychology.
There is a widespread perception or anxiety that evolutionary psychologists are overly deterministic and that caution is necessary to avoid the invocation of evolutionary arguments to rationalize or justify the oppression of women on the basis of evidence that male superiority over women is innate and biologically predetermined . Feminist Evolutionary psychologists emphasize that very few of the traits needed to perform the majority of tasks are gender specific (though behavioral traits once served an evolutionary purpose, most are not directly motivating), that human behavior exhibits tremendous variation, largely because of differences in social and cultural environments, and that these justifications are unfounded.
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Chronic bronchitis often leads tocor pulmonale because of:a) ventricular hypoxiab) increased pulmonary vascularresistancec) left ventricular straind) hypervolemia
Chronic bronchitis often leads to cor pulmonale because of pulmonary vascular resistance when they increase due to alveolar hypoxia.
Cor pulmonale was described as "right ventricular enlargement caused by illnesses affecting the functioning and anatomy of the lungs" forty years ago by an expert committee of the World Health Organization. It has been suggested that the phrase "alteration in the function and structure of the right ventricle" should be used in place of "hypertrophy." Oedema in individuals with respiratory failure has also been suggested as a means of clinically defining cor pulmonale. Since COPD, Chronic bronchitis, Emphysema and cor pulmonale are closely related, cor pulmonale is a prevalent form of heart disease and has recently become one of the top causes of disability and mortality. The major cause is the impossibility of right heart catheterization on a big scale in individuals who are at risk. Non-invasive techniques, including Doppler echocardiography, provide an alternate strategy. Within the next couple of years, it should be able to use echo Doppler to examine large groups of respiratory patients.
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A 22 year old man has a 36 hour history of pain/swelling in left testis. One week ago, he had mild dysuria and urethral discharge. Gram stain from urethra shows numerous neutrophils but no organisms. Most likely cause of the patient's symptoms is infection with which of the following?A. Chlamydia trachomatisB. CytomegalovirusC. E coliD. HerpesvirusE. Mumps virusF. Neisseria gonorrhoeaG. Trichomonas Vaginalis
A 22-year-old man's left testis has been painful and swollen for 36 hours. He experienced a little dysuria and urethral discharge a week ago. The symptoms of this patient are most likely brought on by a Chlamydia trachomatis infection.
The most prevalent and treatable bacterial STI (sexually transmitted infection) is Chlamydia trachomatis. Male urethritis and female endocervicitis are its main male and female symptoms, respectively. Epididymitis and proctitis can develop in men with untreated chlamydial infections. While the majority of women with chlamydia infection are asymptomatic or experience very minor symptoms, some experience salpingitis, endometritis, pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), ectopic pregnancy, and tubal factor infertility. It is linked to an increased risk of HIV acquisition or transmission and is thought to enhance the likelihood that cervical cancer may develop. To stop the disease from spreading and suffering severe consequences, infected people must be diagnosed and treated as soon as possible.
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What is one percent rule of aging
After age 30, our organ systems start to lose about 1% of their function annually. Aging causes alterations in all cells. They enlarge and lose their capacity for division and multiplication.
The number of receivables that cannot be collected is estimated using the ageing approach. However, as people age, their physical fitness for their body size, weight, and body fat percentage tends to decline. As you become older, every critical organ starts to perform less and less. All of the body's cells, tissues, and organs experience aging-related changes, which have an impact on how each body system functions. Cells make up the tissue in living things. Cells come in a wide variety of varieties, yet they always share the same fundamental structure. Layers of identical cells that carry out a particular role make up tissues. Organs are constructed from a variety of tissues.
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complete question: Which of the following is meant by the "1 Percent Rule" of aging?
a. Our organ systems lose about 1 percent of function per year beginning at age 30.
b. We lose about 1 percent of our memory capacity every year beginning at age 50.
c. About 1 percent of the population older than age 65 has significant organ function decline.
d. About 1 percent of the population makes it to their 85th birthday.
the state of the distal arterial bed is best reflected by
The diastolic component provides the clearest picture of the condition of the distal arterial bed.
The rapid antegrade flow peaks during the systole, there is a brief reversal of flow during the early diastole, and there is slow antegrade flow during the late diastole. These three components make up the normal ("triphasic") Doppler velocity waveform. Usually, this pain develops far from the artery obstruction or constriction. Internal carotid artery appears normal on a Doppler ultrasonography and has a low-resistance waveform because it supplies the brain's low-resistance vascular bed. It usually doesn't exist in vascular beds with low resistance or when peripheral dilatation, like that found in the skin, lowers peripheral resistance.
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complete question: The state of the distal arterial bed is best reflected by:
a. the systolic upstroke
b. the diastolic component
c. the amplitude of the spectral waveform
d. none of the above
What is the purpose of nursing research?
Answer:
Nursing research develops knowledge about health and the promotion of health over the full lifespan, care of persons with health problems and disabilities, and nursing actions to enhance the ability of individuals to respond effectively to actual or potential health problems.
Explanation:
In order to understand how the structure and mode of delivery of healthcare affect quality, expense, and patient and family experience, nurses do investigation on health care systems and outcomes.
What exactly is healthcare?When used attributively, the term "health care" refers to the actions taken to preserve or restore one's physiological, mental, or psychological well-being, particularly by qualified and licensed experts. Health systems can support a person's needs for primary health care, which includes health promotion, disease prevention, rehabilitation, recuperation, pain management, and other services.
What role does healthcare play?For the purpose of improving and maintaining good health, controlling disease, preventing needless disability and untimely death, and attaining population health for all Americans, admission to extensive, high-quality healthcare services is crucial.
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Which cells are destroyed by HIV in AIDS?
Helper T-cells' CD4 receptor draws HIV, which then multiplies inside of it. As a result, CD4+ T-cells are destroyed, which causes a progressive reduction in this T-cell frequency.
How do you manage having HIV/AIDS?Discuss your concerns with your service providers, friends, family, or other encouraging folks. Try to find stress-relieving activities, like exercise or a hobby. To feel refreshed, make some effort t ability to rapidly sleep each night. Learn how to relax by practicing yoga, meditation, or breathing deeply.
What affects a person who has HIV?The virus known as HIV (Human Immunodeficiency assaults the immune system. (The immune system defends a person's body against infections and illnesses. HIV weakens a person over term.
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Is a serving portion usually equivalent to one serving per package
Yes, a serving portion is usually equivalent to one serving per package.
What is a Serving portion?This is a term which is referred to as the amount of a food or drink that is generally served and is also the amount of food you choose to eat at one time.
The above explanation thereby means that it is the same as one serving per package by individuals which is to be eaten and is therefore the reason why the both of them are regarded as being equivalent to one another in this scenario.
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Which of the following is considered to be a point of service (POS) plan?
A) Preferred provider organization B) Managed care plan
C) Protected care provider
D) Restricted provider organization
The managed care plan is considered a point of service (POS). The correct answer is option(b).
The term managed care plan was initially used to concern prepaid strength plans (mainly, health management arrangings [HMOs]) that supply cares through a network of providers under an established budget and control costs. Increasingly, the term is still used to involve chosen wage earner arrangements (PPOs).
A point valuable plan is a type of medical insurance plan in the United States. It connects traits of the health management arranging and the favorite wage earner institution. The POS is based on a medical insurance foundation—lower healing costs considering more restricted choice.
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d. explain why the effectiveness of a vasoactive medication decreases as the septic shock worsens. what treatment should the nurse anticipate to be obtained to help the patient?
The effectiveness of a vasoactive medication decreases in septic shock as the condition worsens because the shock causes a systemic inflammatory response that damages the blood vessels, causing them to become less responsive to the medication.
This results in decreased perfusion of vital organs, leading to organ failure and a worsening of the shock.
To help the patient, the nurse should anticipate that the healthcare provider will obtain additional treatments, such as fluid resuscitation and administration of antibiotics to combat the underlying infection, as well as other medications to support organ function and blood pressure.
In severe cases, the patient may require mechanical ventilation, dialysis, or other forms of supportive care. The goal of treatment is to improve perfusion and prevent further organ damage, and ultimately to restore the patient to a stable condition.
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does mustard need to be refrigerated after opening
the portals of entry which are most likely to be the most frequently used portals of entry for a pathogen are which?
Skin is most likely to be the most frequently used portals of entry for a pathogenare.
A portal of entrance is where microorganisms enter a vulnerable host to spread illness or infection. The mucous membranes, the skin, the respiratory system, and the gastrointestinal tract are just a few of the gateways via which infectious organisms might enter the body. The locations where the majority of infections enter the body can be compared to a castle's huge gates or portals since they serve as entry points for germs. Tissue in thick, closely-packed layers. Microbes known as pathogens are responsible for a number of illnesses in both plants and animals. The majority of diseases are parasitic—they cause harm to their hosts. The major five types of pathogens are helminths, bacteria, fungus, viruses, and protozoa
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complete question:The portals of entry which are most likely to be the most frequently used portals of entry for a pathogenare which?
a.Skin
b.Mucosal membranes of the gastrointestinal and respiratory tracts
c.Genitourinary tract
d.Conjunctiva of eyes
TRUE/FALSE. proof is the standard measure used to determine how much alcohol is contained in an alcoholic beverage.
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Proof is actually the standard measure used to determine how much alcohol is contained in an alcoholic beverage
What year did conduit first start providing services?
Answer:
1910
Explanation:
The ___ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms
The Option D) period of incubation is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms.
The number of days between becoming infected with something and possibly displaying symptoms is known as the incubation period. This figure is used by medical professionals and government officials to determine how long individuals must avoid contact with others during an outbreak. It varies depending on the condition.
You are at risk if you have come into contact with someone who has the coronavirus that causes COVID-19. That implies you must remain at home until you are certain that you are clear. This is what doctors refer to as self-quarantine.
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Complete Question is:
The ______ is the time that lapses between encounter with a pathogen and the first symptoms.
a. prodrome
b. period of invasion
c. period of convalscene
d. period of incubation
a patient with impaired digestion or intestinal absorption of nutrients would be said to have
A patient with impaired digestion or intestinal absorption of nutrients would be said to have malabsorption.
Malabsorption is a condition where the body is unable to absorb nutrients from food properly, leading to malnutrition and other health problems. There are many different causes of malabsorption, including diseases of the small intestine, such as celiac disease or Crohn's disease, and conditions that affect the pancreas, such as pancreatitis, which can result in the production of insufficient digestive enzymes.
In addition to malnutrition, symptoms of malabsorption can include weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence. Treatment of malabsorption depends on the underlying cause and may involve dietary modifications,intestinal absorptioin the use of digestive enzymes, or other medications. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the underlying condition.
It is important to diagnose and treat malabsorption in a timely manner, as it can have serious consequences for the patient's overall health and quality of life.
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define the therapeutic approach and legalistic approach?
The therapeutic approach is focused on heling individuals and groups whereas legalistic approach is focused on enforcing laws.
The therapeutic approach is focused on helping individuals or groups in need of mental health services or support. This approach seeks to understand the underlying causes of psychological distress and works to address them through evidence-based therapies and interventions. The goal of the therapeutic approach is to promote healing, well-being, and personal growth.
The legalistic approach, on the other hand, is focused on enforcing laws and ensuring compliance with legal rules. This approach is characterized by a strict adherence to rules, procedures, and legal precedents. The legalistic approach tends to view individuals as either compliant or non-compliant with the law and seeks to resolve legal issues through the application of legal principles and the determination of legal outcomes.
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What is the ICD-10 code for venous stasis ulcer?
Venous insufficiency is indicated by the ICD-10 code I87.2 for venous stasis ulcer without varicose vein.
A distinct code for the ulcer should also be coded because this lacks a descriptor for it.
Venous stasis = I87.8Stasis Ulcer = - I87.2 w/o varicose vein- I83._ w/ varicose veins - this code descriptor contains ulcer, thus there is no need for a separate L code for the ulcer.An alternative term for venous stasis:
A disorder known as chronic venous insufficiency, or CVI, affects the veins' ability to transport blood back to the heart. Phlebitis, persistent venous stasis, and post-thrombotic syndrome are other names for it. Although it can happen in the arms, it most frequently affects the veins in the legs.
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Upon returning to quarters after working a major car accident involving an entire family, a member of the press calls and requests information regarding the call. Which of the following would be the EMT's MOST appropriate action?A) Disclose the general extent of the patient's injuries, but avoid disclosing which facility they were transported toB) Disclose the ages of the patients and the facility to which they were transported, but avoid discussing their injuriesC) Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuriesD) Provide information requested on the patients who are not minors, but avoid disclosing your name or badge number
The EMT's MOST appropriate action would be:
Inform him that the patients were transported to the hospital, but that you cannot disclose the extent of their injuries.
A paramedic, often known as an emergency medical technician (EMT), is a health professional who provides emergency medical services. EMTs are commonly seen working in ambulances. In English-speaking countries, paramedics are a distinct profession with specific educational requirements, qualifications, and scope of practice.
Private ambulance services, municipal EMS organizations, municipalities, hospitals, and fire departments frequently hire EMTs. Some EMTs are paid personnel, while others (especially in rural regions) volunteer. EMTs give medical care in accordance with a set of procedures that are usually prepared by a physician.
Lifting patients and equipment, treating persons with infectious disease, handling dangerous chemicals, and transporting by land or air vehicles all pose risks to EMTs. Employers can reduce occupational disease and injury by providing safe patient handling equipment, developing a training program to educate When dealing with biological risks, EMTs must be trained on job hazards and provide personal protective equipment (PPE) such as respirators, gloves, and isolation gowns.
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it’s more dangerous to be intoxicated while driving than to text while driving. T/F
false. The risk of texting and driving is six times greater than the risk of intoxicated driving, according to the National Highway Traffic Safety Administration (NHTSA).
Indian law classifies intoxicated driving as a crime in Section 185 of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988. A conviction for driving while intoxicated carries a potential penalty of a two thousand rupee fine and a six-month jail sentence. A maximum two-year prison sentence and a fine of 3,000 rupees are imposed on someone who commits the same crime twice in three years. If a person is caught operating a vehicle while having a blood alcohol level of 30 mg per 100 mL, tests positive on a breathalyser, or is under the influence of drugs and unable to handle the vehicle properly, that is called drinking and driving.
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What may a clinical manifestations of failure to thrive (FTT) in a 13-month-old include?
a. Irregularity in activities of daily living
b. Preferring solid food to milk or formula
c. Weight that is at or below the 10th percentile
d. Appropriate achievement of developmental landmarks
Failure to thrive (FTT) is a condition where a child is not growing and developing at the expected rate. It is most commonly seen in infants and young children and can be caused by a variety of factors such as malnutrition, poor feeding, infections, or underlying medical conditions.
FTT can have a significant impact on a child's overall health and development, and it is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the clinical manifestations of this condition.
a. Irregularity in activities of daily living - Children with FTT may have a reduced energy level and interest in playing and engaging in activities. They may tire easily, have trouble sleeping, and have less interest in socializing with others.
b. Preferring solid food to milk or formula - FTT can sometimes result in a decrease in appetite, and children may not show an interest in drinking milk or formula. They may prefer to eat solid food instead, even if it is not appropriate for their age.
c. Weight that is at or below the 10th percentile - A key characteristic of FTT is low weight. Children with FTT will have a weight that is at or below the 10th percentile for their age. This can be monitored through regular check-ups with a paediatrician.
d. Appropriate achievement of developmental landmarks - Children with FTT may experience delays in reaching developmental milestones such as crawling, walking, or talking. It is important to monitor these milestones and work with a paediatrician or specialist if there are concerns about developmental delays.
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