compare and contrast the chromosome structure of viruses bacteria and eukaryotes

Answers

Answer 1

Chromosome structures in viruses, bacteria, and eukaryotes exhibit significant differences in terms of composition, size, and organization.

1. Viruses:

Viruses are non-living entities that contain genetic material, either DNA or RNA. They do not possess true chromosomes like bacteria and eukaryotes. Viral genetic material is typically compact and can be single-stranded or double-stranded. Viral genomes are relatively small, ranging from a few thousand to several hundred thousand base pairs.

2. Bacteria:

Bacteria have a single, circular chromosome located in the nucleoid region of the cell. This chromosome contains the bacterial genome, typically composed of double-stranded DNA. Bacterial chromosomes are relatively small compared to eukaryotes, ranging from a few hundred thousand to several million base pairs. Bacterial DNA is not associated with histone proteins, and there are no membrane-bound organelles within the bacterial cell nucleus.

3. Eukaryotes:

Eukaryotes, including plants, animals, fungi, and protists, have multiple linear chromosomes located within the nucleus. Eukaryotic chromosomes consist of DNA tightly wound around histone proteins, forming nucleosomes. These nucleosomes further coil and fold to form chromatin fibers. The size and number of chromosomes in eukaryotes vary across species. Human cells, for example, have 46 chromosomes (23 pairs). Eukaryotic genomes are significantly larger and more complex than bacterial genomes, ranging from millions to billions of base pairs.

In summary, viruses have compact genomes without true chromosomes, bacteria possess a single circular chromosome, and eukaryotes have multiple linear chromosomes associated with histone proteins and organized into a nucleus.

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Related Questions

Density-dependent inhibition is a phenomenon in which crowded cells stop dividing at some optimal density and location. This phenomenon involves binding of a cell-surface protein to its counterpart on an adjoining cell's surface. A growth inhibiting signal is sent to both cells, preventing them from dividing. Certain external physical factors can affect this inhibition mechanism. Select the statement that makes a correct prediction about natural phenomena that could occur during the cell cycle to prevent cell growth.

Answers

In this occurrence, a protein on a cell's surface binds to a protein on the surface of an adjacent cell. Both cells get a signal that prevents growth, which prevents them from dividing.

What exactly does density-dependent inhibition mean?

Definition. When cells reach a certain density, growth is slowed, potentially through interactions between cells. This is known as density-dependent inhibition. Density-dependent inhibition is frequently lost in tumour cells.

Give an example of a density-dependent limiting factor.

A population's per capita growth rate changes when population density rises—typically falls—due to density-dependent limiting constraints. One illustration is the fight for scarce food among people in a population.

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Which way do monsoon winds blow during the winter months?
O toward the sea
O counterclockwise
O clockwise
O toward the land​

Answers

Answer: Northeast

Explanation:

What is the job of the cell membrane

Answers

Answer:

regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell. In simpler terms, allows which materials can enter or exit the cell.

Explain how the data from the river samples showed that there was a problem with the water treatment plant AND how this was solved.

Answers

The purity of the water can be ascertained both physically and chemically.

How do we know that there is a problem with the water?

We have to note that water have certain markers that tell us if the water can be said to be pure or not. Some of the commonest markers are the color, the turbidity and the odor of the water.

We also have some of the chemical markers that tell if the water is pure such as the pH of the water, the amount of certain  ions as well as the conductivity of the water. This is how we can be able to know if a sample of water is pure or is not.

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The surface of earth is always changing and making new features. Which weather conditions have the greatest effect on the surface of earth?.

Answers

The main factor influencing Earth's surface is sunlight. By generating temperature gradients in the atmosphere and oceans, the sun fuels life on Earth and controls the weather and climate.

What causes the abrupt changes that take place on the earth's surface?

Large boulders are broken up and surface sediments are moved by wind, water, and ice. Weathering, erosion, and deposition typically take years to produce observable changes. However, other events alter the surface of the Earth far more swiftly. These include landslides, earthquakes, and volcanic outbursts.

What kind of alteration to the surface of the Earth requires time and a procedure?

Erosion happens when the loosening soil and crumbled rock are carried away by natural forces like wind, water, or ice. Earthen materials can't be built up where they developed because of erosion. Erosion typically takes place slowly and covertly over a lengthy period of time.

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Which process can increase how fast the water in a puddle dries?

sunlight warming the puddle
rainfall adding water to the puddle
gravity pulling water in the puddle down
clouds blocking sunlight from the puddle

It is not C

Answers

Sunlight warming the puddle is the process which can increase how fast the water in a puddle dries. Thus, the correct option is A.

What factors affect evaporation?

Evaporation is a type of vaporization which occurs on the surface of a liquid as it changes its phase into the gas phase. High concentration of the evaporating substance in the surrounding gas container or area significantly slows down evaporation, such as when the humidity affects rate of evaporation of the water molecules.

The factors which affect evaporation include:

1. Temperature is directly proportional to the rate of evaporation. On increasing the temperature, the rate of evaporation also increases.

2. Wind speed is also directly proportional to the rate of evaporation of substance.

3. Surface area of the container or surface is directly proportional to the rate of evaporation of solvent.

4. Humidity is inversely proportional to the rate of evaporation of solvent molecules. Humidity is the amount of moisture which is already present in the environment.

Therefore, the correct option is A.

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Answer:

A. sunlight warming the puddle

Explanation:

i had the same prob but i put that answer and it was correct

What would be the complementary sequence to the following strand of DNA Atgcatgc?

Answers

Always paired together are adenine and thymine, and cytosine and guanine. Bases on the complementary strand would thus be in the following sequence: TACGTACGT.

The DNA molecule is made up of two bases (or nucleotides) that contain nitrogen. Adenine (A), cytosine (C), guanine (G), and thymine (T) are the four bases of DNA (T). These bases come in particular pairs (A with T, and G with C). Base pairs can also refer to the actual number of base pairs in a sequence of nucleotides, such as 8 base pairs. Because DNA is often double-stranded, the size of a single gene or an organism's whole genome is frequently measured in base pairs.

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Help me please I need this soon

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The characteristics that make up homologous chromosomes according to the diagram are presence of the same structural features and location.

What is a homologous chromosome?

A homologous chromosome is a chromosomal pair that contains the maternal and paternal chromatids of the same length and gene position and is joined by the centromere. Diploid organisms receive one copy of each homologous chromosome from each parent; as a result, they are considered to have a complete set of chromosomes.

Homologous chromosomes have the following structural similarities which includes; same size, same banding patterns, same centromere positions. The same genes are found at the same loci while the genes are the same, alleles may be different.

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Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that creates excessive mucus in human organs.

What is a person with this disorder missing?

Answers

The person with cystic fibrosis disorder is missing the CFTR gene.

What is cystic fibrosis?

Cystic fibrosis is an inherited condition in which the exocrine glands produce abnormally viscous mucus, causing chronic respiratory and digestive problems.

It is characterized by the buildup of thick, sticky mucus that can damage many of the body's organs. The disorder's most common signs and symptoms include progressive damage to the respiratory system and chronic digestive system problems.

Mutations in the CFTR gene cause cystic fibrosis. The CFTR gene provides instructions for making a channel that transports negatively charged particles called chloride ions into and out of cells.

This suggests that the absence of the CFTR gene causes cystic fibrosis.

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Answer:

A person with cystic fibrosis is missing a protein called the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR). This protein plays a key role in regulating the movement of salts and water in and out of cells, which helps to maintain the proper balance of salt and water in the body. Without this protein, people with cystic fibrosis produce thick, sticky mucus that can build up in their lungs and other organs, leading to serious health complications.

What is the definition of flexibility in fitness?

Answers

Answer: The definition of flexibility in fitness is being able to move your joints painfree, and this goes to everyone but flexibility differs from people. Least possible ranges are required for joint health etc.

Explanation: I am truly sorry if I did not understand or anything pls, i also tried to paraphrase so no hate pls ty

-♥ Roxy ♥

meiosis occurs in a sex cell which is a haploid

Answers

haploid cells are only used for sex cells

what is the complementary base to cytosine in dna?

Answers

Answer:

Guanine

Explanation:

The two strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between pairs of bases adenine pairs with thymine and cytosine pairs with "Guanine".

Which of the following values can NOT be measured using SI units? a. length c. temperature b. density d. All can be measured with SI units Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D

Answers

Answer:

The answer is d.

I wish you luck in your assignments.

Answer:

the correct answer is density

How many cells are in mitosis

Answers

Answer:

Two

Explanation:

Mitosis results in two identical daughter cells.

What are the correct order of stages in the Calvin cycle in a C3 plant?

Answers

The correct order of the stages of the Calvin cycle in a C3 plant is:

Carbon fixationReductionRegeneration of RuBPRibulose 1,5-bisphosphate (RuBP) carboxylationRelease of 3-phosphoglycerate moleculesPhosphoglycerate kinase reactionConversion of 3-phosphoglycerate to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphateTriose phosphate isomerase reactionFormation of glucose molecules from glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate

The Calvin cycle is the light-independent series of reactions in photosynthesis. It is also known as the dark reaction and the reductive pentose phosphate cycle. It is a metabolic pathway that takes place in the stroma of chloroplasts and is part of photosynthesis, which converts carbon dioxide and water into glucose and other carbohydrates.

The Calvin cycle uses the energy of ATP and NADPH produced during the light-dependent reactions to convert carbon dioxide into glucose.

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difference between determinate and indeterminate tomatoes ?

Answers

Determinate tomatoes are more compact, stocky, and upright, and have more densely-packed leaves.

Which are better determinate or indeterminate tomatoes?

The older plants don't sprawl and thus don't require quite as much support to keep them upright. Most tomato changes are indeterminate - that's the default - plants are taller and leggier and the foliage is scanter.

Determinate tomato plants are little and grow like a bush. They normally grow up to five feet tall, so they are perfect for a small garden or vessel gardening. Indeterminate tomato plants have a more vine-like form and can grow up.

So we can conclude that In general, determinate tomato plants are smaller and denser, with a shorter.

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Question 10 Which of the following is an example of group therapy? Psychodynamic therapy O Media therapy O Family therapy O Art therapy​

Answers

A psychodynamic group is a long term group made up of people with similar types of diagnoses, such as depression, dependent personality disorder, general anxiety disorder and etc.

What is a psychodynamic group therapy?

A long-term group of persons with comparable illnesses, such as depression, dependent personality disorder, generalised anxiety disorder, etc., is known as a psychodynamic group.

One or perhaps two mental health specialists are in charge of the group. The goal of entering this kind of group is to learn relational coping skills while also being aware of all the problematic ways in which one has up until this point operated.

The goal of becoming aware of one's own dysfunctional behaviours is to start acting in healthier and more fulfilling ways so that one might have better success in life.This is predicated on the idea that we replicate or recreate every single thing that happens in the outside world.

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Family therapy is an example of group therapy. Family therapy is a type of psychological care that focuses on family dynamics and how they impact individual members.

What is Family Therapy?Family therapy is often referred to as couples therapy or marital therapy. Family therapy is predicated on the idea that the family is a system and that interactions between family members have an impact on an individual's issues and habits. It aims to enhance family dynamics and foster more intergenerational understanding. Additionally, it can assist students in learning how to handle stress, settle disputes, and enhance communication.Family therapy is a form of psychological counseling (psychotherapy) that can assist family members in enhancing communication and resolving disputes. A psychologist, professional social worker, or other certified therapists typically offers family therapy.

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Help with this: Chapter 11 Nervous System

Concept Map: Reaching Threshold

Complete the Concept Map to describe graded potentials.

Drag the appropriate labels to their respective targets.

Answers

The concept map to describe graded potentials is

Stimuli ⇒ can trigger locally occurring ⇒ open(s) chemically gated or mechanically gated channels on the

can trigger locally occurring ⇒ graded potential

open(s) chemically gated or mechanically gated channels on the ⇒ dendrites or cell bodies

graded potential ⇒ when “summed”, must raise the membrane potential by 15 to 20 mV to reach ⇒ threshold ⇒ stimulate(s) the opening of voltage-gated channels at the ⇒ axon hillock

graded potential ⇒ that decreases(s) polarity and raise(s) the membrane potential is/are ⇒ EPSPs

Graded potential ⇒ that increase(s) polarity and lower(s) the membrane potential is/are ⇒ IPSPs

What are graded potentials?

Locаl chаnges in the membrаne potentiаl аre cаlled grаded potentiаls аnd аre usuаlly аssociаted with the dendrites of а neuron. The аmount of chаnge in the membrаne potentiаl is determined by the size of the stimulus thаt cаuses it. In the exаmple of testing the temperаture of the shower, slightly wаrm wаter would only initiаte а smаll chаnge in а thermoreceptor, whereаs hot wаter would cаuse а lаrge аmount of chаnge in the membrаne potentiаl. Grаded potentiаls cаn be of two sorts, either they аre depolаrizing or hyperpolаrizing.

Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question can see in the Attachment.

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a student conducted an experiment to test whether talking to plants would help them grow faster. he set up the following two groups: group 1: spoken to and hand watered. group 2: not spoken to and then watered with sprinklers. after three weeks, the plants in group 1 showed much mote growth than those in group 2. based on the results of this experiment, which is the best conclusion? A: they are not valid because the student ran a controlled experiment B: they are not valid because the student did not control all the variables that can affect plant growth C: they are valid because the dependent variable caused a change in the independent variable D: they are not valid because the time frame to grow a plant is too short

Answers

B: they are not valid because the student did not control all the variables that can affect plant growth

Why are controlled experiments crucial, and what are they?

Controlled experiments are used in science because they make it possible to precisely control irrelevant and independent variables. This makes it possible to establish a cause and effect link. Controlled experiments also adhere to a set, sequential process. This makes it simple for a different researcher to carry out the same investigation.

Why is the experiment's duration crucial?

As a result, the length of an experiment is inextricably tied to the research question: short-term tests usually focus on the immediate responses of animals to sudden environmental change, whereas long-term trials focus on habituated, and possibly even evolved, responses.

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Use the data provided to calculate the gravitational potential energy of each cylinder mass. Round your answers to the nearest tenth. 3 kg: kj 6 kg: kj 9 kg: kj.

Answers

Each cylinder mass has gravitational potential energy of 14.7kJ, 29.4kJ, and 44.1kJ.

The energy that a body or object has as a result of being in a gravitational field is known as gravitational potential energy.

The gravitational potential energy [tex]U_p[/tex] will have the following value for the Earth, where the gravitational field is assumed to be constant:

[tex]U_p= mgh[/tex]

Where

m is the object's mass,

g is its gravitational acceleration (9.8 m/s2 on Earth), and

h (500m) is its height above a reference point.

With this knowledge, let's start the calculations:

Given that the cylinder weighs 3 kg,

[tex]U_p=(3kg)(9.8m/s^2)(500m)\\U_p= 14700J\\U_p= 14.7kJ[/tex]

Given that the mass of the cylinder is 6 kg,

[tex]U_p=(6kg)(9.8m/s^2)(500m)\\U_p= 29400J\\U_p= 29.4kJ[/tex]

Given that the mass of the cylinder is 9 kg,

[tex]U_p=(9kg)(9.8m/s^2)(500m)\\U_p= 44100J\\U_p= 44.1kJ[/tex]

The complete question is:-

Use the data provided to calculate the gravitational potential energy of each cylinder mass. Round your answers to the nearest tenth.

3 kg: ____kJ

6 kg: ____kJ

9 kg: ____kJ

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What does it mean when multiple genes determine a trait?

Answers

A trait that is influenced by two or more genes, such as height or skin tone, is known as a polygenic trait.

What is it known as when several genes influence a phenotype?phenotypic trait that is governed by multiple genes is known as polygenic inheritance. It is a phrase used in biology to describe the quantitative inheritance process in which two or more different genes collaborate to affect a single phenotypic characteristic. Each gene in a diploid organism contains two alleles, one from each parent. The phenotype of an organism is governed by interactions between alleles. When an organism inherits two copies of the same allele for a trait, it is said to be homozygous for that trait. In homozygous individuals, a single phenotype for a given trait is expressed. An example is the ABO blood type. Your blood type refers to the particular antigens, or specific proteins, that are found on your red blood cells.

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concomitant visual and hearing loss may result in

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Concomitant visual and hearing loss may result in deaf blindness.

Deaf blindness means the visual impairments and concomitant hearing which causes the combination of severe communication and educational needs and other developmental that they cannot be accommodated in special education programs solely for children with blindness or deafness.

Deaf blind implies a complete absence of hearing and sight, in reality, and it refers to children with varying hearing losses and degrees of vision. Key feature of deaf blindness is that the combination of losses which is limits access to visual information and auditory. More than 90% of children with deaf blindness have one or more additional disabilities or health problems and some may be identified as having a multiple disabilities rather than deaf blindness. In these type of cases, it is very important for team members to recognize and to address the need for services for hearing impairment and vision.

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Someone who displays symptoms of an anxiety disorder would be given an Axis I classification of mental disorders. T or F

Answers

True. The Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) classifies anxiety disorders as a group of conditions that fall under Axis I of the classification system. Axis I of the DSM-5 is used to classify clinical disorders and other conditions that may be a focus of clinical attention. Anxiety disorders are a group of conditions that include generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, social anxiety disorder, specific phobias, and separation anxiety disorder, among others. These disorders are characterized by excessive and persistent worry, fear or anxiety that causes significant distress and impairment in daily functioning.

Answer:

true

Explanation:

right on edge 2022

children are often vaccinated against measles what is injected into the body during a vaccination

Answers

Answer:

MMR is an attenuated (weakened) live virus vaccine

Explanation:

Brainliest pls

What is the complementary base sequence of the DNA strand Ttgcacg?

Answers

The complementary base sequence of the DNA strand Ttgcacg is Aacgtgc. This complementary base sequence is essential for the processes of replication, transcription, and translation.

The complementary base sequence of the DNA strand Ttgcacg is Aacgtgc. DNA is composed of two strands of nucleotides, which are known as the base pairs. These base pairs are linked together by hydrogen bonds, forming the double helix structure of DNA. The base pairs are adenine (A) and thymine (T), and guanine (G) and cytosine (C). The process of base pairing reflects the complementary nature of DNA, in which each strand of the double helix contains the same genetic information in a different form.

The DNA strand Ttgcacg contains the bases thymine, thymine, guanine, cytosine, adenine, cytosine, and guanine. The complementary base sequence is determined by the rules of base pairing, which dictate that adenine (A) is paired with thymine (T), and guanine (G) is paired with cytosine (C). As a result, the complementary base sequence of the DNA strand Ttgcacg is Aacgtgc.

The complementary base sequence is essential for DNA replication, transcription, and translation. During replication, the complementary base sequence is copied from one strand of DNA to the other. During transcription, the complementary strand of DNA is used as a template for the production of messenger RNA. Finally, for translation, the complementary strand of DNA is used as a template for the production of proteins.

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can yall answer both if you can


Where are rifts most likely to form?


At a convergent boundary between an oceanic and a continental crust


At a Diverging Boundary


At a convergent boundary between two oceanic plates


A convergent boundary between two continental crusts

Answers

Rifts most likely to form 'at a convergent boundary between two oceanic plates'.

What are oceanic plates?

Oceanic plates are sections of the Earth’s lithosphere that make up the outermost layer of the Earth’s surface. They are made up of dense, thin, relatively young rocks that move slowly and are denser than continental plates. Oceanic plates are mostly composed of basalt, a type of igneous rock that forms along mid-ocean ridges. Oceanic plates are responsible for the formation of ocean basins, and they are constantly moving due to the forces of plate tectonics.

A convergent boundary between two oceanic plates is an ideal location for a rift to form because of the extreme pressure created by the two plates colliding. This pressure can cause the lithosphere to break apart and form a rift, allowing two plates to move away from each other. Additionally, oceanic plates are much thinner than continental plates, making them more prone to breaking apart and forming rifts.

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Answer:

да

Explanation:

конечно

Identify the landmark found on the diaphysis of the femur.

Answers

The Medial Condyle and Lateral Condyle are landmarks found on the diaphysis of the femur. These are the rounded knobs located at the distal end of the diaphysis which forms the articulating surfaces for the knee joint.

The Medial and Lateral Condyles are the two main landmarks found on the diaphysis of the femur. The Medial Condyle is located on the inner side of the femur, and the Lateral Condyle is on the outer side.

They are both located at the distal end of the diaphysis, which is the shaft of the femur, and are separated by the intercondylar fossa. These two condyles form the articulating surfaces for the knee joint, where the femur and tibia bones meet.

The Medial Condyle is larger than the Lateral Condyle and its surface is more concave. Also, the Medial Condyle has a Medial Eminence, which is a small bump on the inner side, that serves as the attachment point for the Medial Collateral Ligament.

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A car takes four hours to cover a distance of 160 miles what is the car speed

Answers

Answer:

1.5 hours

Explanation:

I believe this is the right answer

In the salinan creation story, which animal was responsible for creating the world?

Answers

As for the Salinan belief, when the world was ready, the Bald Eagle, who was the chief of the animals, created the first man out of clay.

What is Salinan?

The Salinan's are an Indian tribe whose ancestral territory is in the southern Salinas Valley and Santa Lucia Mountains on the central coast of California. Today, Salinas governments are now working toward federal tribal recognition from the Bureau of Indian Affairs. There were two main departments, the Miguelino to the south in the upper Salinas River and the Antoniano to the north in the lower Salinas Basin, corresponding to the two missions in the Salinas Valley. There was also a group of payaos on the Pacific coast near present-day San Simeon and Lucia.

Prior to European contact, the Salinians lived by hunting and gathering, and the , like most other California tribes, were organized into small groups with little centralized political structure.

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What form of carbon do animals release during digestion?

Answers

When animals breathe and exhale, the carbon joins with oxygen to form carbon dioxide, which is then discharged back into the atmosphere as a waste product.

In mammals, food and oxygen are combined in the cells to create energy for everyday activity, which is followed by the release of carbon. Each and every living thing contains carbon. The carbon cycle is the continuous movement of carbon atoms through living things, the oceans, the atmosphere, and the crust of the Earth. The paths that carbon atoms take in this cycle are extremely convoluted, and it may take millions of years for them to complete a full round.

Every animal, including humans and dinosaurs, contributes to the carbon cycle.

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Other Questions
Scenario 9.2 The Burdell Company is a small manufacturing company that uses gear assemblies to produce four different models of mountain bikes. One of these gear assemblies, the "Smooth Shifter", is used for the two most expensive of Burdell's four models, and has an estimated annual demand of 300 units. Burdell estimates the cost to place an order is $40, and the holding cost for each assembly is $60 per year. The company operates 250 days per year.78) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. What is the economic order quantity for the Smooth Shifter?A) less than or equal to 40 unitsB) greater than 40 units but less than or equal to 80 unitsC) greater than 80 units but less than or equal to 120 unitsD) greater than 120 units79) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. What are the annual inventory holding costs if Burdell orders using the EOQ quantity?A) less than or equal to $300B) greater than $300 but less than or equal to $500C) greater than $500 but less than or equal to $700D) greater than $70080) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. What are the annual ordering costs if Burdell orders using the EOQ quantity?A) less than or equal to $200B) greater than $200 but less than or equal to $350C) greater than $350 but less than or equal to $500D) greater than $50081) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. What are the total annual holding and ordering costs if Burdell orders using the EOQ quantity?A) greater than $1,500B) greater than $1,000 but less than or equal to $1,500C) greater than $750 but less than or equal to $1,000D) less than or equal to $75082) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. What is the cycle length (time between orders) when orders are placed using the EOQ quantity?A) less than or equal to 5 daysB) greater than 5 days but less than or equal to 10 daysC) greater than 10 days but less than or equal to 15 daysD) greater than 15 days83) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. How many times per year must Burdell order the Smooth Shifter when orders are placed using the EOQ quantity?A) less than or equal to 10 times per yearB) more than 10 times but fewer than or equal to 20 times per yearC) more than 20 times but fewer than or equal to 30 times per yearD) more than 30 times84) Use the information in Scenario 9.2. The purchasing manager decides that, in order to save purchasing time, orders for the Smooth Shifter will be placed once a month, or twelve times per year. How much does this approach cost Burdell in additional annual holding and ordering costs (instead of Burdell ordering using the EOQ quantity)?A) more than $500B) more than $200 but less than or equal to $500C) more than $50 but less than or equal to $200D) less than or equal to $50 Which role feature allows you to define different IPAM administrative roles?IPAM access controlRole-based access controlEvent access controlZone-based access control an exoskeleton is a body covering, typically made of __________, that provides support and protection. What product(s) are expected in the ethoxidepromoted elimination reaction of 2bromo2,3dimethylbutane pediatric urine specimens are additionally tested for the presence of: neural tube defects in offspring are most closely associated with: a) maternal folate status. b) inadequate calcium intake. d) excess protein intake. d) alcohol consumption during pregnancy. Explai why there is no such triangle with a=3, a=100, and b=4 This scatter plot shows the relationship between the average study time and the quiz grade. The line ofbest fit is shown on the graph.Need Help ASAP! Explain how you got it please if naf is added to cells undergoing cellular respiration, which of the following will most likely accumulate in the cells? You are at a political convention with n delegates, each one a member of exactly one political party. The number of parties may be greater than 2. It is impossible to tell which political party any delegate belongs to; in particular, you will be summarily ejected if you ask. However, you can determine whether any two delegates belong to the same party or not by introducing them to each other - members of the same party always greet each other with smiles and friendly handshakes: members of different parties always greet each other with angry stares and insults. Suppose that a majority (strictly more than half) of the delegates are from the same political party. Describe an algorithm that identifies a member (any member) of the majority party using only 0(n log n) introductions. What is the value of x? he standard free energy change for the conversion of glucose to glucose-6- phosphate by hexokinase is go = -16.6 kj/mol (t = 37 oc). what is the equilibrium constant for the hexokinase reaction? A gazelle is running at 9.09 m/s. he hears a lion and accelerates at 3.80 m/s/s. 2.16 seconds after hearing the lion, how far has he travelled? draw the schematic for a 3-input pseudo nmos nor gate. choose the device sizes based on the reference inverter with size of switching transistor as 4.71/1 and load transistor as 1/1.68 a project has the following cash flows: year cash flow 0 $65,200 1 31,200 2 49,100 a. what is the irr for this project? blood pressure measurements are expressed as a fraction. the bottom number of this fraction indicates what?A. systolic pressureB. Pulse pressure C. Diastolic pressure the heat of vaporization of mercury is 60.7 kj/mol. for hg(l), s = 76.1 j mol-1 k-1, and for hg(g), s = 175 j mol-1 k-1. estimate the normal boiling point of liquid mercury.Teq = In this lesson, I learned about multimedia and how different multimedia resources can help me communicate with others. I can use multimedia whenever I want to share (1) ________________ or (2) ________________, make (3) ________________, and narrate (4) ________________. As I study multimedia, I came to know that it consists of five basic elements. These elements are known as: (5) __________, (6) __________, (7) __________, (8) __________, and (9) __________. If it allows for engagement from the user, there is the element called (10) __________. Multimedia is also categorized into two types: (11) ____________________, and (12) ____________________. I have also familiarized myself with multimedia resources I can use in making my oral presentations. Some of these are (13) ________________, (14) ________________, and (15) ________________. in a numbered list, describe three (3) of the four methods used to eliminate microbes on kitchen cutting boards and utensils. include both the advantages and disadvantages for each. an experiment, which compares the means of one categorical predictor, which is measured using the same entities in all conditions.