Correct statement which accurately states anthropologists understanding is b)Non-human primates show some elements of culture and language and may be capable of full culture and language, but they have not developed this ability in the wild. So, correct option is b.
Anthropologists concentrate on the qualities of over a wide span of time human networks through different methods. In doing as such, they research and depict how various people groups of our reality lived since the beginning of time.
Anthropologists mean to study and present their human subjects in an unmistakable and unprejudiced manner. They endeavor to accomplish this by noticing subjects in their neighborhood climate. Anthropologists then, at that point, depict collaborations and customs, an interaction known as ethnography. By partaking in the regular daily existence of their subjects, anthropologists can more readily comprehend and make sense of the reason for neighborhood establishments, culture, and practices. This interaction is known as member perception.
As anthropologists concentrate on social orders and societies unique in relation to their own, they should assess their understandings to ensure they aren't one-sided. This inclination is known as ethnocentrism, or the propensity for survey all gatherings as second rate compared to another, generally their own, social gathering.
Hence, correct option is b.
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(Complete question) is:
Based on information in this course, which statement accurately states anthropologists' understanding of primate culture and language?
a) Non-human primates show some elements of culture and language but are not capable of full culture and language.
b)Non-human primates show some elements of culture and language and may be capable of full culture and language, but they have not developed this ability in the wild.
c)Infant non-human primates are capable of culture and language, but they lose this ability as they mature.
d) Non-human primates do not have any of the qualities associated with culture and language.
The energy needed to get a reaction started is the
a
adhesion energy.
b
cohesion energy.
c
activation energy.
d
chemical energy.
Answer:
C
Activation energy
Explanation:
Activation Energy is the minimum amount of energy needed to start a chemical reaction. All chemical reactions need a certain amount of activation energy to get started.
what is the role of rna in the building of proteins?
Answer:
to create proteins via translation.
Explanation:
the most important job of RNA is to assemble amino acids into proteins
Which of the following structures is the end of the conducting zone in the respiratory system?a) bronchiole.b) terminal bronchioles.c) respiratory bronchioles.d) alveoli.
Which diagram shows a system in which transcription of the lac operon genes is suppressed?
Diagram A shows this because RNA polymerase is blocking transcription.
Diagram B shows this because the repressor protein is blocking transcription.
Diagram B shows this because RNA polymerase is ready to replace the repressor protein.
Diagram A shows this because the repressor protein will break down the polymerase.
Answer:
Option D.
Explanation:
Diagram A is the diagram where the protein is ready to be produced because the repressor protein is no longer attached to the DNA segment
The diagram which shows a system in which transcription of the lac operon genes is suppressed is that Diagram A shows this because the repressor protein will break down the polymerase. Thus, the correct option is D.
What is transcription of lac operon?The lac operon contains of three genes which are lacZ, lacY, and lacA. These genes are transcribed as a single mRNA molecule, under the control of one promoter gene. Genes in the lac operon specify proteins which help the cell in utilizing lactose sugar.
The activity of the promoter gene which controls the expression of the lac operon is regulated by two different protein molecules. One of the proteins which prevents the RNA polymerase from transcribing or negative control, the other enhances the binding of RNA polymerase enzyme to the promoter or positive control.
Therefore, the correct option is D.
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which type of bond makes it possible for a macromolecule to interact with great specificity with just one out of the many thousands of different molecules present inside a cell? [select all that apply]
Non-covalent bond makes it possible for a macromolecule to interact with great specificity with just one out of the many thousands of different molecules present inside a cellA protein or nucleic acid is an example of a macromolecule, which is a very large molecule that plays a vital role in biophysical processes.
It is made up of thousands of atoms that are bound together by covalent forces. Numerous macromolecules can be broken down into their component monomers and reassembled into polymers.
Biopolymers, which include nucleic acids, proteins, and carbohydrates, as well as big molecules that are not polymeric, such as lipids, nanogels, and macrocycles, are the most prevalent types of macromolecules found in biochemistry. Synthetic fibers as well as experimental materials such as carbon nanotubes.https://brainly.com/question/6849865
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What is the systematic study of how biology affects human social behavior called?
The systematic study of how biology affects human social behavior is called sociobiology.
Social behavior is the behavior among two organisms that may or may not be of the same species. All the activities that tend to bring organisms together are part of the social behavior. This behavior can either be controlling or self-adopting.
Sociobiology is the filed of science that studies the social behavior of organisms relating it with the evolution. The whole subject is based on the idea that some or all of the social behaviors are partly or completely inherited. Sociobiology considers all the animal activities like hunting, eating, reproducing, etc. to establish the reasons for social behavior.
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Each of the following is found in all bacterial cells EXCEPT ______.Multiple choice question.a glycocalyxcytoplasmribosomesa cytoplasmic membrane
Each of the following is found in all bacterial cells EXCEPT glycocalyx
A glycocalyx is a viscous, gel-like substance that surrounds the cell membrane of some microorganisms, including bacteria. It is made up of polysaccharides, glycoproteins, or both, and acts as a protective layer, helping to prevent desiccation and deterring the attachment of host cells or antibodies. However, not all bacteria have a glycocalyx, and some bacteria even have a more complex outer envelope, such as a capsule, that serves similar functions. In conclusion, the presence of a glycocalyx is not a universal characteristic of all bacterial cells, hence it is the exception in the list.
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if a male with klinefelter syndrome undergoes spermatogenesis (without nondisjunction), how many chromosomes would be present in the sperm?
Klinefelter syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by an extra copy of the X chromosome in a male's cells, resulting in 47 chromosomes (XXY). As a result, the male would produce sperm cells containing 46 chromosomes, with 23 chromosomes coming from each parent.
What is Klinefelter?Klinefelter Syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects male reproductive and physical development. It is caused by an extra X chromosome in each of a male's cells, resulting in 47 chromosomes instead of the typical 46. Symptoms vary, but may include tall stature, breast enlargement, reduced facial and body hair, small testes, and infertility. In some cases, learning disabilities, speech and language delays, and other health issues may also be present. Treatment may include hormone therapy, speech therapy, and educational support. With proper care, individuals with Klinefelter Syndrome can lead healthy and productive lives.
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what are the two main types of reproductive isolating mechanisms?
The two main types of reproductive isolating mechanisms are pre-zygotic mechanisms and post-zygotic mechanisms.
Pre-zygotic mechanisms refer to barriers that prevent the formation of a viable zygote, even when fertilization is possible. These mechanisms include:
Habitat isolation: where different populations live in different environments and are physically separated from one another, making mating between them unlikely.
Temporal isolation: where different populations breed at different times, making it difficult for them to mate with one another.
Behavioral isolation: where different populations have different mating behaviors that prevent them from successfully mating with one another.
Mechanical isolation: where differences in anatomy or mating structures prevent successful mating between different populations.
Post-zygotic mechanisms refer to barriers that prevent the offspring of two different populations from surviving or reproducing, even if they are able to successfully mate and form a zygote. These mechanisms include:
Hybrid inviability: where the offspring of two different populations are unable to survive to adulthood.
Hybrid infertility: where the offspring of two different populations are unable to reproduce.
These two types of reproductive isolating mechanisms help to prevent interbreeding between different populations, promoting the divergence of species over time.
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a composite material has both carbon fibers and glass fibers as reinforcement. there are half as many carbon fibers as glass fibers. how should the fibers be arranged to make the highest modulus, e1, composite? sketch out your solution and calculate e1 for the composite.
The arrangement of the fibers in the composite material can affect the overall modulus of the composite, E1. To achieve the highest modulus, E1, the fibers should be arranged in such a way as to optimize the load transfer between the fibers and the matrix.
One common method to achieve this is to arrange the fibers in a unidirectional manner, meaning all the fibers are oriented in the same direction. If there are half as many carbon fibers as glass fibers, a suitable arrangement could be to have the carbon fibers arranged in the center, surrounded by the glass fibers.
To calculate E1, we need to consider the contribution of each type of fiber to the composite modulus. The modulus of each fiber, Ef, is multiplied by the volume fraction of that fiber in the composite, Vf, and the sum of these values for all fibers gives us the composite modulus.
E1 = (Ef-carbon × Vf-carbon) + (Ef-glass × Vf-glass)
Where Ef-carbon and Ef-glass are the moduli of carbon and glass fibers, respectively, and Vf-carbon and Vf-glass are their respective volume fractions in the composite. The volume fractions must add up to 1 since they represent the entire volume of the composite.
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A table of organisms and traits is shown. Use the data in the table to complete the cladogram. Select the choice that is correct. Hint- Box 3 and 4 can be either organism A or E. Hint-tally the traits in the columns first. How many trait (s) does each organism have?
A phylogeny, or hypothetical link between groups of creatures, is depicted in a diagram known as a cladogram. While analysing phylogenetic data, a scientist uses a cladogram.
What in biology is phylogeny?
Written by: Phylogeny, or the history of an organism's evolution, is the study of relationships and lines of ancestry among large groups of organisms. The idea that distinct species of plants or animals descended from a single ancestor is fundamental to phylogeny and is widely recognised in the scientific community.
A phylogenetic tree is what?
Based on the hypothesis that all life descended from a common ancestor, the relationships are thought to exist. Genetic and anatomical studies show that shared traits among species are what determine their relationships. A phylogenetic tree is a visual representation of a phylogeny.
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what are sources of free energy in cells? phosphoryl group transfer reactions electron transfer reactions concentration gradients across biological membranes protein synthesis
The sources of free energy in cells are: Phosphoryl group transfer reactions, Electron transfer reactions, Concentration gradients across biological membranes and Protein synthesis.
Phosphoryl group transfer reactions: These reactions involve the transfer of a phosphoryl group from a high-energy molecule, such as ATP, to another molecule, releasing energy in the process.
Electron transfer reactions: Electron transfer reactions involve the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another, releasing energy in the process.
Concentration gradients across biological membranes: Cells can use the energy stored in concentration gradients across biological membranes, such as the difference in concentration of ions between the inside and outside of a cell, to generate ATP through processes such as ATP synthase.
Protein synthesis: Protein synthesis requires energy in the form of ATP, and the energy invested in synthesizing proteins can be harnessed and used by the cell to perform other functions.
These sources of free energy are used by cells to power metabolic processes, maintain cellular structures, and support growth and reproduction. The energy stored in these systems is essential for the survival and functioning of cells.
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--The given question is incorrect, the correct question is
"What are sources of free energy in cells?"--
Barrier method of contraception includes all exceptA diaphragmB condomC vaultD vasectomy
Barrier method of contraception includes all except vasectomy.
The correct answer is D) vasectomy.
Vasectomy - a surgical procedure that cuts or blocks the tubes that carry sperm from the testes to the urethra, rendering a man sterile. Vasectomy is not considered a barrier method of contraception because it does not physically block the passage of sperm, but instead prevents the release of sperm.
So, the answer is D) vasectomy.
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after completing a differential white blood cell count on a blood sample, you find a high number of eosinophils. what are some possible causes that could increase the number of eosinophils? (check all that apply.)
The possible causes that could increase the number of eosinophils are: allergic reaction; parasitic infection; inflammatory reaction, etc.
Eosinophils are the granular white blood cells and the part of the immune system that are released into the body when there some foreign invaders are present inside the body. Having constant very high numbers of eosinophils can be threatening to the body.
Allergic reactions are the reactions generated in the body in the presence of foreign invaders. These reactions can be in the form of sneezing, coughing, skin irritations like redness, rashes, pimples, itching, etc. The agents that cause such symptoms are called allergens.
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describe what can happen to a living organism if excessive cellular damage occurs as a consequence of radiation exposure.
Excessive cellular damage due to radiation exposure can have severe consequences for a living organism. Here are some of the potential effects: DNA damage, Oxidative stress, Immune system suppression, Reproductive effects and Acute effects.
DNA damage: Radiation can cause direct damage to DNA, leading to mutations, chromosomal abnormalities, and cell death. If the DNA damage is not repaired, it can result in cancer and other long-term health effects.
Oxidative stress: Radiation can also cause an increase in free radicals, which can damage cellular components and lead to oxidative stress.
Immune system suppression: Radiation exposure can suppress the immune system, making the organism more susceptible to infections and other diseases.
Reproductive effects: Radiation exposure can damage the reproductive system and lead to infertility, birth defects, and other reproductive problems.
Acute effects: In cases of high-dose radiation exposure, an organism can experience acute effects, including nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, skin burns, and even death.
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groups of similar cells and extracellular material that perform a common function are . multiple choice question.
Groups of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function are known as tissues.
Tissues are the building blocks of organs and are organized structures composed of cells, extracellular matrix, and intercellular junctions that work together to perform specific functions.
There are four main types of tissues in animals: epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscle tissue, and nervous tissue. Epithelial tissue covers the surface of the body, lines internal organs, and forms glands. Connective tissue supports and protects other tissues and includes bones, cartilage, and blood. Muscle tissue produces movement, while nervous tissue receives and transmits signals in the form of electrical impulses.
In plants, tissues are also organized into specialized structures, such as leaves, stems, and roots, which perform specific functions. The main types of plant tissues are epidermal tissue, ground tissue, and vascular tissue.
The epidermal tissue covers the plant surface and helps prevent water loss, while the ground tissue provides support and stores nutrients. The vascular tissue transports water, nutrients, and sugars throughout the plant.
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--The given question is incorrect, the correct question is
"What are groups of similar cells and extracellular products that carry out a common function?"--
in addition to examining mitochondria, the researchers also quantified changes in the number of capillaries per cell. what information might they be able to infer by counting the number of capillaries?
By counting the number of capillaries per cell, the researchers might be able to infer information about the blood supply and oxygen delivery to the cell.
In cells, capillaries refer to tiny blood vessels that deliver oxygen and nutrients to cells and remove waste products from them. The walls of capillaries are very thin, allowing for exchange of substances between the blood and the surrounding tissues.
Capillaries are essential for maintaining the health and function of cells, and changes in the number or function of capillaries can have significant effects on the overall functioning of the organism.
An increase in the number of capillaries could indicate an increase in the demand for oxygen, while a decrease in the number of capillaries might indicate a decrease in the demand for oxygen or impaired blood flow.
This information can help to understand the cellular and physiological processes, and could have implications for the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases.
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Establish differences between Scientific Knowledge and Common Knowledge. Examples in Aquaculture Engineering.
IT IS FROM THE RESEARCH METHODOLOGY COURSE
what is the combining form for the anatomic structure that conducts air from the trachea to the lung, where it divides and subdivides?
The combining form for the anatomic structure that conducts air from the trachea to the lung, where it divides and subdivides is bronchi.
The trachea starts simply under the larynx (voice box) and runs down behind the breastbone (sternum). The windpipe then partitions into two more modest cylinders called bronchi: one bronchus for every lung. The windpipe is made out of around 20 rings of intense ligament. The back piece of each ring is made of muscle and connective tissue.
The trachea, normally known as the windpipe, is the enormous cylinder that conveys air from the upper respiratory plot (the nasal entries, throat, and larynx) to the bronchi (the two huge aviation routes that branch off into every lung). Simultaneously, it warms and saturates the air and gets garbage and organisms before they enter the lungs.The trachea can become contaminated, excited, or harmed. In uncommon circumstances, this can prompt tracheal stenosis, in which the windpipe limits and confines relaxing. Tracheal disease is an incredibly intriguing type of malignant growth.
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is genetic variation is more common is sexul reproduction or in asexul reproduction? jestify
Answer:
sexual reproduction
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction involves the formation of gametes and gametes are produced from the diploid germ cells by process of Meiosis . During Meiosis recombination of genetic material occurs which leads to variation.
Whereas asexual reproduction does not involve any such process.
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11. what is the importance of osteon structures being able to constantly change during your life? think about calcium, growing bones, etc.
The importance of osteon structures being able to constantly change during your life is bone strength and waste elimination from bones.
The osteon, which serves as both the functional and structural unit of compact bone, is accountable for the stability of the bone, the transport of nutrients into the bone, and the elimination of waste products from the bone.
For structural reasons, it is essential that osteons be aligned in a direction that is parallel to the length of the bone. In order to assist in the prevention of any excessive bending or breakage, osteons that are parallel to one another are directed along the direction of the usual forces experienced in the bone.
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which option correctly represents a pairing of nitrogenous bases in dna?responsesguanine and adenineguanine and adenineadenine and cytosineadenine and cytosineguanine and cytosineguanine and cytosinethymine and guanine
The correct option is C; Adenine—thymine; guanine—cytosine ,DNA, also known as deoxyribonucleic acid, is a polynucleotide made up of multiple nucleotides linked together by a phosphodiester bond.
It is a double-stranded molecule with complementary base pairing connecting the two strands. Adenine, guanine, thymine, and cytosine are nitrogenous bases found in DNA. In lieu of thymine, uracil is found in ribonucleic acid (RNA). In DNA, adenine always couples with thymine via two hydrogen bonds and guanine always pairs with cytosine via three hydrogen bonds, according to complementary base pairing.
As a result, the suitably paired nitrogenous bases in DNA are adenine-thymine and guanine-cytosine. As a result, option (C) is the right answer. As a result, alternatives (A), (B), and (D) are erroneous.
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Full Question ;
Which of the following have nitrogenous bases correctly paired in DNA?
A.adenine—guanine; thymine—cytosine
B. adenine—uracil; guanine—cytosine
C. adenine—thymine; guanine—cytosine
D. adenine—adenine; guanine—guanine
how could epistasis constrain genetic change by natural selection?
Epistasis refers to the interaction between different genes that results in a phenotype that is different from the expected result if each gene were
considered in isolation.
Because epistasis can produce non-linear correlations between genotypes and phenotypes, it can limit the amount of genetic change that results through natural selection. Natural selection may struggle to bring about adaptive changes in a population as a result of this non-linearity.
for instance, a population of plants where two genes, A and B, regulate the synthesis of a vital enzyme for the plant's metabolism. Enzyme production is increased by the dominant allele of gene A, while enzyme production is decreased by the dominant allele of gene B. Imagine that gene A develops a fresh mutation that boosts enzyme production even further. Natural selection might accelerate the spread of this novel allele in the population because it may be advantageous in specific settings.
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Choose the correct statement about the processes that led to 20% oxygen
in Earth's atmosphere.
A- Lightning energy and UV radiation altered the combination of gases in the atmosphere so that oxygen levels increased.
B- Early life on Earth required an oxygen-rich atmosphere to form chemical bonds, which caused the oxygen levels to stabilize.
C- Photosynthesis was not possible on Earth until the ozone layer formed, which raised oxygen levels.
D- Early life forms released oxygen, which saturated the oceans and the atmosphere.
The correct statement about the processes that led to 20% oxygen
in Earth's atmosphere is: D- Early life forms released oxygen, which saturated the oceans and the atmosphere.
What is the processes that led to 20% oxygen in Earth's atmosphere?The process that led to 20% oxygen in Earth's atmosphere is primarily due to photosynthesis by early life forms such as cyanobacteria. Photosynthesis is a process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert carbon dioxide and water into sugars, producing oxygen as a byproduct.
Over time, the oxygen produced by these organisms saturated the oceans and the atmosphere, leading to the increase in oxygen levels to 20%. This increase in oxygen levels made the environment hospitable for the evolution of complex life forms, including animals, which further fueled the oxygenation of the planet.
Therefore the correct option is D.
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an egg has 23 chromosomes is it haploid or diploid?
An egg cell, or ovum, is a haploid cell with 23 chromosomes. This is due to the fact that it has just one pair of chromosomes and is an organism's gamete or sex cell.
The sperm cell that fertilizes the egg cell has 23 chromosomes as well, making it a haploid cell.
When two haploid cells merge, a diploid cell with 46 chromosomes and two sets of chromosomes is formed. In most species, the fundamental cell type is a diploid cell, with haploid gametes synthesized solely for reproduction.
Fertilization is the initial stage in the process of sexual reproduction, and it involves the fusing of two haploid cells.
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what would be the immediate effect to transcription if a cell was exposed to a drug that mutated the promoter region?
The DNA binding pattern will most likely alter as a result of mutations in the promoter region, which might result in mutant mRNA and the production of the wrong proteins and amino acids.
An RNA polymerase can miscode at the damaged region and create mutant transcripts when DNA damage in the transcribed strand of an active gene is bypassed. The generation of mutant proteins that may have a role in the formation of tumors can result from the transcriptional mutagenesis process.
Both loss-of-function mutations, which can be either recessive or dominant depending on whether one functional copy of the gene can encode enough active protein to induce transcription, and dominant negative mutations, in which the mutant protein interferes with the process, are considered transcription-factor mutations.
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if nucleotides in a strand of dna have single phosphate groups linking them, why does dna polymerase iii use deoxynucleoside triphosphate molecules as the precursor molecules?
DNA polymerase III uses Deoxynucleoside triphosphates (dNTPs) as the precursor molecules because they contain three phosphate groups, providing the energy required for the formation of the phosphodiester bonds that link nucleotides in a strand of DNA.
When DNA polymerase III adds a nucleotide to the growing strand of DNA, it uses the energy stored in the third phosphate group of the dNTP to form a phosphodiester bond between the phosphate group of the incoming nucleotide and the 3' hydroxyl group of the previous nucleotide in the strand. This bond formation releases one molecule of inorganic phosphate (Pi), which is an energetically favorable reaction that drives the polymerization process.
The use of Deoxynucleoside triphosphates as precursor molecules allows DNA polymerase III to efficiently add nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA, forming a long and continuous chain of nucleotides. If DNA polymerase III used nucleotides with a single phosphate group, the formation of the phosphodiester bonds would require an additional energy source, slowing down the polymerization process and reducing the efficiency of DNA replication.
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perfusion refers to blood supply to the lungs, through which the lungs receive nutrients and oxygen. what are the two methods of perfusion?
The two methods of perfusion are the bronchial and pulmonary circulation.
Perfusion is the process of sending oxygenated blood to the body's tissues.
Perfusion of body tissue occurred during Systole. The chambers contract, and oxygenated blood is forced into the arteries. These arteries carry blood to the tissues where oxygen is released. The unoxygenated blood is then returned to the heart through the veins, and the process begins again after the blood is reoxygenated by the lungs. The only exception to this is perfusion itself. The heart actually perfuses during diastole when the heart muscle relaxes and blood is drawn to the heart tissue.
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Two methods of perfusion are bronchial and pulmonary circulation.
Bronchial and pulmonary perfusion are two important processes that occur within the respiratory system.
Bronchial perfusion is the process of blood flow to the bronchi, which are the airways that carry air into the lungs. This blood flow is important for providing oxygen and nutrients to the cells of the bronchi, as well as for removing waste products. Bronchial perfusion is supplied by the bronchial arteries, which branch off from the aorta.
Pulmonary perfusion is the process of blood flow to the lung tissue itself. This is important for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and the air in the lungs. Pulmonary perfusion is supplied by the pulmonary arteries, which branch off from the right ventricle of the heart.
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some fossils form when high pressure over time forces a dead organism's liquid and gas parts to dissolve, leaving only a dark film behind. this process of creating fossils is called
Some fossils are formed when high pressure over time forces a dead organism's liquid and gas parts to dissolve, leaving only a dark film behind. This process of creating fossils is known as: compression.
Fossils are the traces of the dead living organisms (both plants and animals) that were buried deep down on the earth millions of years ago. These fossils can be in the forms of impressions, casts or some preserved remains.
Compression is the fossils formation in the sediments. Generally plant fossils are found to be compressed more than the animals fossils. Most of the compression process is found to be near the coal seams.
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when dna is being synthesized, if we consider that a replication fork moves at a rate of 1000 bases per second, how many revolutions per minute (rpm) must the dna ahead of the replication fork turn given that there are 10 bp per turn? watch your units; rpm means revolutions per minute.
when dna is being synthesized, if we consider that a replication fork moves at a rate of 1000 bases per second, how many revolutions per minute (rpm) must the dna ahead of the replication fork turn given that there are 10 bp per turn rpm means revolutions per minute are 6000
We must first need to determine the number of spins made in a minute in order to compute the revolutions per minute (RPM) of the DNA prior to the replication fork.
The replication fork moves 60 seconds * 1000 bases/second, or 60000 bases, in a minute because it moves at a speed of 1000 bases per second.
Given that there are 10 bases every turn, there are 6000 turns made in a minute, or 60000 bases divided by 10 bases per turn.
Therefore, the DNA's RPM just before the replication fork is 6000 twists per minute.
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