An effective medical administrative assistant should have patient's name, age, and gender with regard to communicating with patients by phone.
Who is a medical administrative assistant?A medical administrative assistant is a trained individual who has been equipped with the knowledge of performing administrative duties in a hospital or clinic.
The responsibilities of a medical administrative assistant include the following:
They interview patients for case histories prior to appointments.They update and maintain patients' health records.They assist patients with initial paperwork.They schedule and coordinate appointments.They process insurance claims in compliance with law requirements.They use medical software to support all transactions.For the medical administrative assistant to be able to obtain viable information from the patient, they need to have the patient's vital information such as patient's name, age, and gender.
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Quick, large changes in weight are most likely the result of all of the following except:
A. changes in fat stores.
B. changes in body fluid content.
C. changes in electrolytes and fluid balance.
D. changes in lean tissues such as muscles.
E. changes in bone minerals.
Quick, large changes in weight are most likely the result of all of the following except changes in the bone's minerals. Connective tissue constitutes bones with the reinforcement of calcium. Bones are the structural constituents of the body.
On them, muscles are attached which makes the body work and move. They have a whole cavity which is known as bone marrow. The bone marrow is the hub for the maturation of the blood cells. Minerals such as calcium present in the bones cannot be depleted by losing weight. along with calcium phosphorus is also present.
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Jamie serves in the US Air Force. He treats the injured, prescribes medicines, and analyzes medical tests. He ensures that the injured receive care until they reach a medical facility and can obtain further specialized treatment. What does Jamie serve as in the US Air Force
Jamie serves as a flight medic in the US Air Force.
According to what has been said, Jamie provides medical care to the injured, writes prescriptions, and interprets medical testing. He sees to it that those who have been hurt receive care before they can be sent to a medical facility and receive additional or more specialized treatment there. Hence, he serves as a flight medic.
A flight medic is a trained medical professional who provides medical care during air operations, including in-flight medical treatment and stabilizing patients for transport to a medical facility. They are responsible for ensuring that injured individuals receive care until they reach a medical facility and can obtain further specialized treatment. In addition, they may also prescribe medicines and analyze medical tests.
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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has esophageal cancer and is to undergo radiation therapy. Which of the following statements should nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the teaching?
The statement that shows that the patient understands the teachings is that they should wash the radiation area with their hands using warm water and mild soap to protect the skin from further irritation. That is option C.
What is radiation therapy?Radiation therapy is defined as the therapy that applies higher doses of radiation on cancer cells with the purpose of eliminating then from the body cells of an affected individual.
Esophageal cancer is the type of cancer that affects the esophagus which is a long tube that connects the throat to the stomach.
It is the major responsibility to f the nurse to educate the cancer patient about the procedure of the radiation therapy.
The indication that the patient understands the teachings by the nurse is when they reply that they are meant to wash the radiation area with their hands using warm water and mild soap to protect the skin from further irritation.
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Complete question:
A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has esophageal cancer and is to undergo radiation therapy. Which of the following statements should nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the teaching?
Decrease intake of fluid as a way to prevent dehydration.Can maintain close association with partner during therapy.Wash the radiation area with their hands using warm water and mild soap to protect the skin from further irritation.Maintain normal diet during the therapy.which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilators are medications that cause blood vessels to dilate (dilate).
How do vasodilators function?Vasodilators are medications that cause blood vessels to dilate (dilate). As a result, blood may move through the vessels more easily. Lower blood pressure is the result of less cardiac effort.
A side effect of various hypertension drugs, including calcium channel blockers, is blood vessel dilatation. However, vasodilators that work directly on the vessel walls include hydralazine and minoxidil. Vasodilators are medications that cause blood vessels to dilate (dilate). They affect the artery and vein lining muscles, preventing tightening and constriction of the walls. As a result, blood may move through the vessels more easily.
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What is a disorder where clients purposely scrape off acne lesions, causing scarring and discoloration
Acne excoriee is a disorder where clients purposely scrape off acne lesions, causing scarring and discoloration.
Acne Excoriée is an excoriation illness in which individuals have an overwhelming need to pick, itch, or massage acne lesions. Excoriation disorders are an unique subset of Obsessive-Compulsive (OCD) & Related Disorders.
It is unknown how common acne excoriée is. Excoriation Disorders, on the other hand, account for around 1.5% of all dermatological consultations. They are most frequent in females, with such a female-to-male ratio of about 3:1. The onset age ranges from 15 to 45 years, with a high incidence with in early twenties.
Individuals with Excoriation Disorder frequently do not seek treatment for their disease, either to shame or a lack of knowledge. According to studies, only 30-45% of people with this illness seek therapy, and only 19% obtain dermatological care.
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which organization has been the national leader in promoting electronic health records to decrease medical errors nadi mprove patient safety
Institute of Medicine is the organization has been the national leader in promoting electronic health records to decrease medical errors and improve patient safety.
The Institute of Medicine (IOM) study "To Err is Human" issued in 1999 urged for a national initiative to make health care safer. Even though the report has indeed been generally credited with sparking initiatives to research and improve health-care safety, there has been no independent evaluation of its impact.
Following the release of the IOM report, the rate of patient safety publications jumped from 59 to 164 articles per 100,000 MEDLINE publications. All sorts of patient safety papers saw an increase in publication rates.
After the publication of the study, original research publications climbed from an average of 24 to 41 articles per 100,000 MEDLINE publications, while patient safety research grants jumped from 5 to 141 awards per 100,000 federally supported biomedical research awards. Prior to the IOM report, the most common topic of patient safety publications was malpractice, but organizational culture was the most common subject after the study's publication.
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which assessment is essential for the nurse to monitor in a patient who is receving an opioid analgesic
The nurse should evaluate the respiratory rate and pulse oximetry after administration of the medication.
Opioids are drugs that bind to opioid receptors and provide morphine-like effects. They are largely employed in medicine for pain treatment, including anaesthesia. Other medicinal applications include diarrhoea suppression, opioid use disorder replacement treatment, opioid overdose reversal, and cough suppression. When taken as prescribed by your doctor, opioid drugs can help treat acute pain, such as pain from surgery. However, there are hazards when the drugs are administered inappropriately.
Nurses are in charge of placing peripheral intravenous lines, configuring PCA pumps, inserting medicine into the pumps, and monitoring the patient's pain, sedation, and breathing. Patients who have had or are getting a course of treatment with a pure opioid agonist analgesic including such codeine sulphate should not be given mixed agonist/antagonist analgesics.
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The healthcare provider prescribes theophylline to be given intravenously for the client experiencing an acute asthma attack. What does the nurse teach the client is the function of this medication
Healthcare providers prescribe intravenous theophylline to people who are having acute asthma attacks. The nurse tells the client that this drug's function is a bronchodilator.
Theophylline is a bronchodilator. This medicine relaxes bronchial smooth muscle and relieves bronchospasm. This improves air exchange. Antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections. Antihistamines block the action of histamine. Expectorants are used to loosen mucus in the lungs. Antibiotics, antihistamines, or expectorants do not relax the smooth muscle of the bronchial airways in patients experiencing acute flares increase. These are the functions of this medication that can be explained by the healthcare provider to the client with an acute asthma attack
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Most denture related infections are caused by
Answer: The answer to this question is chronic candidiasis infection
Explanation: Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis, a hereditary immunodeficiency disorder, is persistent or recurring infection with Candida (a fungus) due to malfunction of T cells (lymphocytes). Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis causes frequent or chronic fungal infections of the mouth, scalp, skin, and nails.
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What is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training, if participating in vigorous-intensity exercise (e.g., jogging or running)
5 times a week is the recommended frequency for cardiorespiratory training if participating in moderate-intensity exercise like brisk walking.
Cardiorespiratory fitness (CRF) is the ability of the respiratory and circulatory systems to provide oxygen to the mitochondria of skeletal muscle for energy synthesis during physical activity. In adults, a low or unhealthy CRF is a powerful, independent predictor of CVD and all-cause death. CRF is a predictor of several health markers in adolescents, including cardiometabolic health, early CVD, academic achievement6, and mental health.
While RF is measured in some children, such as those who have congenital heart disease, asthma, or cystic fibrosis, CRF testing offers a broader variety of uses. CRF is a standardized health metric that can be followed over time & compared across groups.
Cardiorespiratory fitness has several advantages. It can lower the chance of developing heart disease, lung cancer, diabetes type 2 stroke, and other disorders. Cardiorespiratory fitness improves lung and heart health while also increasing emotions of well-being.
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Which health literacy factors will the nurse consider when developing a teaching plan for a 69-year-old homeless man with a grade school education diagnosed with prostate cancer
Homelessness, elementary school education, and patient age are the literacy factors related to health that the nurse should consider when designing a teaching plan who is suffering from prostate cancer.
Since the old man is homeless, he will have a difficult time understanding complex topics, so the nurse should try to simplify the teachings to make them easily understandable. The patient is also 69 years old and older people are less self capable and so the teaching plan should be such that there is less pressure on the patient for self-care. Also, if the patient is well educated or has recieved an elementary school education, then there will be a better understanding of prostate cancer and its effect and the patient will be able to manage his symtpoms more effectively. The nurse should provide maximum details in the simplest way possible for an effective teaching plan.
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A 20 - year - old woman has had worsening fatigue for the past year . On examination her mucus membranes are pale . No hepatosplenomegaly is present . Her CBC shows a Hgb of 7.1 g / dl . , Het 19.9 % , MCV 67 fl , platelet count 190,000 / uL . , and WBC count 5,400 / uL . There is no history of drug ingestion . Which of the following is the most likely etiology for her findings ?
A. Cobalamin deficiency
B. G6PD deficiency
C. Folate deficiency
D. Iron deficiency
A. Cobalamin (Vitamin B12) deficiency is the most likely etiology for her findings.
What is vitamin B12 deficiency?Vitamin B12 deficiency is a condition in which the body does not have enough vitamin B12 to function properly. Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient that helps to produce red blood cells, maintain the nervous system, and support the production of DNA.
A deficiency in vitamin B12 can cause a wide range of symptoms, including fatigue, weakness, constipation, nerve damage, loss of appetite, weight loss, and a type of anemia called megaloblastic anemia.
There are several causes of Vitamin B12 deficiency:
Malnutrition: not getting enough Vitamin B12 in the diet, people who follow a vegan or vegetarian diet, have a higher risk of developing a deficiency as vitamin B12 is mainly found in animal foods.Lack of intrinsic factor: Some people don't produce enough intrinsic factor, which is a protein that helps the body absorb vitamin B12 from food.Gastrointestinal disorders: such as Crohn's disease, celiac disease, bacterial growth, or surgery that affects the stomach or small intestineMedications: Long-term use of certain medications such as proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) and metformin can interfere with the absorption of vitamin B12Learn more about Vitamin B12, here:
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after further discussion, the nurse finds that the client is not willing to participate in the durg rehabilitation program and still uses cocaine frequently. WHat does the nurse instruct the client realted to infant nutrtition
The nurse finds that the client is not willing to participate in the durg rehabilitation program and still uses cocaine frequently, so she will instruct the client to stop breastfeeding for infant nutrition.
For infant nutrition, bone milk is stylish. It has all the necessary vitamins and minerals. Child food formulas are available for babies whose maters aren't suitable to or decide not to breastfeed. babies are generally ready to eat solid foods at about 6 months of age.
The World Health Organization( WHO) recommends breastfeeding up to 2 times or further. They also recommend to breastfeed a child for at lest a year for their good nutrition.
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You respond to an infant who is unresponsive, is not breathing, and does not have a pulse. You do not have a mobile device, and you shout for nearby help but no one arrives. What action should you take next
The immediate step to be taken towards the unresponsive infant who is not breathing properly is to provide CPR for about 2 minutes before leaving to activate the emergency response system.
CPR refers to Cardiopulmonary resuscitation. It is a technique of providing artificial ventilation to the person who is suffering from cardiac arrest and is sinking to death. In this cycle, two breaths are given in one cycle with force however not much pressure must be given into the lungs. The air is provided through the mouth. It is a life saving technique which can help to restore breathing in infants as well as adults. The child if unresponsive should be given CPR to ensure that they are able to breath and in case of emergency, they must be quickly shifted to NICU.
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What type of water contaminants presents the greatest health threat to most residents of developing countries
A client is admitted to the ambulatory care unit for an endoscopic procedure. The gastroenterologist administers midazolam 1 mg intravenously for sedation and titrates the dosage upward to 3.5 mg. The client becomes hypotensive (86/60 mm Hg), develops severe respiratory depression (SpO2 86%), and has periods of apnea. The nurse anticipates the administration of which antidote drug?
1.
Benztropine (10%)
2.
Flumazenil (36%)
3.
Naloxone (46%)
4.
Phentolamine (7%)
OmittedCorrect answer 2
36%Answered correctly
The nurse anticipates the administration of flumazenil antidote drug. Thus, the correct option is 2.
What is Antidote drug?Antidote drug are the agents which negate the effect of a poison or a toxin. Antidotes are used to mediate its effect either through preventing the absorption of the toxin, by binding and neutralizing the poison effect, antagonizing its end-organ effect, or by the inhibition of conversion of the toxin to more toxic metabolites.
Midazolam (Versed) is a benzodiazepine which is commonly used to induce conscious sedation in the clients undergoing endoscopic procedures. The initial dose of the drug is 1 mg and it is titrated up slowly until speech becomes slurred.
Generally no more than 3.5 mg is necessary to induce conscious sedation in the clients. It is commonly administered with an opioid analgesic because of their synergistic effects. Side effects of the drug can include airway occlusion, apnea, hypotension, and oxygen desaturation with resultant respiratory arrest.
Flumazenil (Romazicon) is an antidote drug which is used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines. Flumazenil is a drug which is used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines such as midazolam.
Therefore, the correct option is 2.
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Which disease is almost certain to cause death if infected patients do not receive postexposure prophylaxis
Rabies disease is almost certain to cause death if infected patients do not receive post-exposure prophylaxis.
Rabies is a preventable viral illness that is most commonly spread via a rabid animal's bite. The rabies virus attacks mammals' central nervous systems, resulting in brain illness and death. When clinical symptoms of rabies arise, the condition is almost invariably deadly, and treatment is usually supportive. There have been less than 20 reported examples of human survival from clinical rabies. Only a few individuals had no prior or post-exposure prophylactic history.
Lyssaviruses, such as the rabies virus and the Australian bat lyssavirus, cause rabies. When an infected animal bites or scratches a human or another animal, the disease spreads. If saliva from an infected animal comes into contact with the eyes, mouth, or nose, it can transmit rabies.
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describe the effects of varying the jet size or entrainment port opening on fio2 and total flow rate
Increasing jet size or opening the entrainment port will increase the FiO2 and total flow rate, while decreasing jet size or closing the entrainment port will decrease the FiO2 and total flow rate.
The jet size and entrainment port opening are features of oxygen delivery devices such as nasal cannulas or simple face masks that are used to control the amount of oxygen delivered to the patient. The jet size refers to the size of the opening where the oxygen is delivered to the patient, while the entrainment port is an opening that allows room air to mix with the oxygen being delivered.
When the jet size is increased or the entrainment port is opened, more oxygen is delivered to the patient, increasing the FiO2 (fraction of inspired oxygen). This means that the percentage of oxygen in the air the patient is breathing is higher. However, this also results in an increase in the total flow rate, which is the amount of oxygen being delivered to the patient overall.
On the other hand, when the jet size is decreased or the entrainment port is closed, less oxygen is delivered to the patient, decreasing the FiO2. This also results in a decrease in the total flow rate.
It's important to note that the desired FiO2 and total flow rate will depend on the patient's condition and treatment plan, and the nurse should adjust the oxygen delivery device accordingly and monitor the patient's oxygen saturation level.
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A client has a stage III pressure ulcer. Which nursing intervention can prevent further injury by eliminating shearing force
Th nursing intervention that can prevent further injury is "With the help of another staff member, use a drawsheet when lifting the client in bed."
Pressure ulcers, also known as pressure sores, bed sores, or pressure injuries, are localised skin and/or underlying tissue damage caused by long-term pressure, or pressure associated with shear or friction. The skin overlying the sacrum, coccyx, heels, and hips are the most usually affected sites, although it can also affect the elbows, knees, ankles, back of shoulders, or back of the skull.
Pressure ulcers are caused by applying pressure on soft tissue, which results in fully or partially restricted blood flow to the soft tissue. Shear is another reason because it can strain on blood vessels that supply the skin. Individuals who are immobile, such as those on continuous bedrest or who use a wheelchair on a regular basis, are more likely to develop pressure ulcers.
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While assessing the airway patency of a client after a bomb blast, the nurse suspects severe brain injury and gives a score of 7 using the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS). Which intervention is most appropriate for the client
The intervention most appropriate for the client is Preparing for endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation.
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a clinical scale that is used to accurately assess a person's degree of consciousness following a brain injury. The GCS evaluates a person's ability to execute eye movements, communicate, and move their body. These three behaviours comprise the scale's three elements: visual, verbal, and motor.
The GCS score of an individual can range from 3 (totally unresponsive) to 15. (responsive). This score is used to direct urgent medical care following a brain injury (such as a car accident), as well as to monitor and track the degree of awareness of hospitalised patients.
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How does a nurse determine which strategy would best enable the targeted individuals to gain more control over, and improve, their health
By evaluating available resources and the needs of the targeted individuals, a nurse can determine which strategy will be the best to enable the targeted individuals to gain more control over and improve their health.
What are the health promotion strategies?The basic health promotion strategies identified in the Ottawa Charter were: advocate (to increase the factors that promote health), enable (to allow all people to achieve health equity), and mediate (through collaboration across all sectors).Some well-known Health Promotion Strategies include: developing a healthy public policy.
Creating a welcoming environment.Increasing community cooperation.Developing and encouraging skill.Reorienting health-care delivery.Premature deaths are reduced through health promotion. Health promotion, by focusing on prevention, reduces the costs (both financial and human) that individuals, employers, families, insurance companies, medical facilities, communities, states, and nations would incur for medical treatment.Strategic planning in health care organizations entails outlining the specific steps required to achieve specific goals.To learn more about health promotion strategy refer to :
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When evaluating drug-related data from animal studies, which of these questions should be asked?
A. Was the dosing regimen used similar to that used by humans?
B. Was the route of administration similar to that used by humans?
C. Was the drug self-administered by the animal
Questions on the dosing regimen, the method of administration, and the drug that the animal personality are answered while assessing substance data from animal experimentation.
What makes anything a drug?Since "drug" is derived from the French term "drogue," which meaning dry herb, it is clear that the earliest drugs were derived from plant sources. The earliest people employed a variety of unusual therapies for ailments, involving plants, meat products, and minerals.
How do medicines function?Drugs affect how neurons use transmitters to send, interpret, and respond to information. Because some drugs, like cocaine and marijuana, have chemical structures that are similar to those of organic neurotransmitters in the body, they can stimulate neurons.
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When the dental assistant is placing the liners, base , or varnish, the cavity preparation should be examined and the pulpal involvement assessed. Explain the depths of the cavity preparation it relates to pulpal involvement
When the pulp chamber's entrance can be seen due to advanced caries or when the crown has been completely destroyed and only the roots are left, pulpal involvement is noted.
The center of a tooth is called the dental pulp, and it is made up of connective tissue, blood vessels, and cells. If this becomes infected, it could hurt and require root canal treatment to save the tooth. Pulp testing techniques based on optical technology include laser Doppler flowmetry (LDF), transmitted laser light (TLL), laser speckle imaging (LSI), pulse oximetry (PO), transmitted light plethysmography (TLP), and dual wavelength spectrophotometry (DWS). Numerous factors, like as severe caries, trauma, or unintentionally filling a cavity in the dentist chair, might expose the tooth pulp. There may be serious repercussions, such as discomfort, infection, and necrosis.
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An individual was admitted to the hospital after experiencing a mild tingling on the right side ofthe face and a sudden inability to speak. Using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a doctor would likely find
Using magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), a doctor would likely find any abnormality in the brain tissue of the left hemisphere.
Brain is responsible for all the actions in the human body. Any sudden change in the body movement is directly linked to the brain cells (nerves). The left hemisphere of the brain is responsible for all the language and speech and so it is important to check that part to identify the actual cause of the inability of normal speaking. MRI provides clear image of all the tissues and organs and the clinicians determines which part is affecting the regular speech of the patient. It is seen that if left part of the brain is damaged, the person may not be able to speak or hear properly. Reading will also become difficult in such patients.
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Nursing students are studying metabolic disorders of the skeletal system and correctly identify which factor to be the major cause of osteoporosis
Nursing students are studying metabolic disorders of the skeletal system and aging process is the factor to be the major cause of osteoporosis.
The skeletal system is your body's central frame. It consists of bones and connective towel, including cartilage, tendons, and ligaments. It's also called the musculoskeletal system. The mortal shell is the internal frame of the mortal body.
Osteoporosis causes bones to come weak and brittle — so brittle that a fall or indeed mild stresses similar as bending over or coughing can beget a fracture. Osteoporosis- related fractures most generally do in the hipsterism, wrist or chine. Bone is living towel that's constantly being broken down and replaced.
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Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to a. blocks transport of the neurotransmitter molecule through the axon membrane. b. enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule. c. increase the number of postsynaptic receptors. d. increase release of the neurotransmitter. e. increase synthesis of the neurotransmitter molecule.
Termination of the postsynaptic potential would be expected from a drug or process that acts to enzymatically degrade the neurotransmitter molecule.
The correct option is B.
Neurotransmitter molecules are promptly destroyed by enzymes in the synaptic cleft after release and attachment to postsynaptic receptors. They are also reabsorbed by presynaptic membrane receptors and recycled. High-affinity sodium-dependent GABA and glycine transporters take up GABA and glycine into nerve terminals and glial cells to reduce their effects on postsynaptic membrane receptors. High-affinity sodium-dependent GABA and glycine transporters take up GABA and glycine into nerve terminals and glial cells to reduce their effects on postsynaptic membrane receptors.
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serious adverse events of special interest following mrna covid-19 vaccination in randomized trials in adults
The most common adverse events of special interest following mRNA COVID-19 vaccines in randomized trials in adults are injection site reactions (pain, redness, or swelling), fatigue, headache, and muscle pain. Other less common adverse events of special interest include allergic reactions (such as anaphylaxis), nerve damage, Bell's palsy, myocarditis, thrombosis, and ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome.
The safety of mRNA Covid-19 vaccines is of great interest to the public, healthcare professionals, and regulatory agencies. In randomized trials in adults, there have been some serious adverse events of special interest that have been associated with mRNA Covid-19 vaccines.
The most common serious adverse events of special interest that have been reported in randomized trials in adults are anaphylaxis, Bell’s palsy, and thromboembolic events. Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction that can include symptoms such as difficulty breathing, hives, severe itching, swelling of the face and throat, and low blood pressure. Bell’s palsy is a type of facial paralysis that occurs when the facial nerve becomes compressed, resulting in facial weakness or paralysis. Thromboembolic events are blood clots that form in a vein or artery and may cause a stroke, heart attack, or pulmonary embolism.
In addition to the serious adverse events of special interest that have been reported in randomized trials in adults, there have been reports of other rare events associated with mRNA Covid-19 vaccines. These events include myocarditis, an inflammation of the heart muscle, and Guillain-Barre Syndrome.
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enroute to the hospital with a woman who is 9-months pregnant and in active labor, you notice that the umbilical cord is prolapsed
En-route to the hospital with a woman who is 9-months pregnant and in active labor, you notice that the umbilical cord is prolapsed than you should position the mother with her head down and/or hips raised.
Active labor Generally lasts about 4 to 8 hours. It starts when your condensation are regular and your cervix has dilated to 6 centimeters. In active labor Your condensation get stronger, longer and more painful.
Umbilical cord prolapse is an acute obstetric exigency that requires immediate delivery of the baby. The route of delivery is generally by cesarean section. The croaker will relieve cord contraction by manually elevating the fetal donation part until cesarean section is performed.
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A registered nurse is teaching a nursing student about the components of the magnet model. What information should the registered nurse provide about exemplary professional practice according to the revised magnet model
Information which the registered nurse should provide is " Strong professional practice is established, and accomplishments of the practice are demonstrated."
The Magnet Recognition Program model designates associations worldwide where nursing leaders successfully align their nursing strategic pretensions to ameliorate the association's case issues. The Magnet Recognition Program provides a roadmap to nursing excellence, which benefits the total of an association.
Exemplary professional practice is grounded on Magnet nursers who are independent, exercising clinical and organizational judgment within the environment of the larger, interdependent healthcare platoon. Magnet nursers make substantiation- grounded care opinions according to each case's unique requirements.
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During pregnancy a woman's cardiovascular system expands to care for the growing fetus. After birth, during the early postpartum period, the woman eliminates the additional fluid volume she has been carrying. What is one way she does this
One way a woman eliminates the additional fluid volume she has been carrying during the early postpartum period is through urinary elimination.
After birth, the woman's body works to return to its pre-pregnancy state and one of the ways it does this is by excreting the excess fluid through urine. This process is facilitated by the increased blood flow to the kidneys, which helps to filter and excrete the excess fluid. The body also increases urine production, which helps to get rid of the excess fluid more quickly. Other ways that a woman can eliminate additional fluid volume include sweating and bowel movements.
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