Amber is a
(a) metal
(b) rubber
(c) resin
(d) sugar
​

Let's know the formula

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail T=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{l}{g}}[/tex]

So

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail T\propto \sqrt{l}[/tex]

Hence if length is doubled time period will be √2 times

#2

Decrease by 5% will decrease the time period 5/2=2.5%

So

It's

The area under the acceleration time graph represents change in velocity

The graph is plotted with acceleration on the vertical axis and time on the horizontal axis. The area under such graph represents change in velocity

The area of an acceleration- time graph represents the change in velocity. The pace at which a body's velocity varies is represented by acceleration, which is a vector quantity.

The rate of change of velocity with respect to time is known as acceleration. According to Newton's second law, the eventual effect of all forces applied to a body is its acceleration.

The formula for acceleration is;

[tex]\rm a = \frac{v-u}{t}[/tex]

u is the initial speed

v is the final speed

t is the time interval

a is the acceleration of a ball

Hence the area of an acceleration- time graph represents the change in velocity.

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In a vacuum all colors of light travel with same speed and this is the reason a white ray travels through the vacuum without going through any dispersion..

Speed of light is the distance per time light waves propagate through different materials. The value for the speed of light in a vacuum is now defined as exactly 299,792,458 metres per second.

Therefore, In a vacuum all colors of light travel with same speed and this is the reason a white ray travels through the vacuum without going through any dispersion

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A light-year is a unit of measurement which is used to measure distance between the Earth and the sun.

This is defined as the distance light travels in the time it takes the Earth to orbit the Sun.

It is also the distance a beam of light travels in a single earth year which is why option C was chosen as the most appropriate choice.

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Answer: 80 coils

Explanation for 80 coils: voltage across the secondary winding is 10,000 V, and the voltage across the primary winding is 25,000 V. If the primary winding has 200 coils, how many coils are in the secondary winding...The voltage across the primary winding is 6000 V!

Answer:

Any of those terms can be converted to either of the other terms, so either term is correct. People are accustomed to everyday temperatures in Fahrenheit. The ideal gas law specifies that

P V = N R T     where T is in Kelvin which is Celsius + 273 deg.

The linear acceleration of collar D when θ = 60° is - 693.867 inches per square second.

In this question we have a system formed by three elements, the element AB experiments a pure rotation at constant velocity, the element BD has a general plane motion, which is a combination of rotation and traslation, and the ruff experiments a pure translation.

To determine the linear acceleration of the collar ([tex]a_{D}[/tex]), in inches per square second, we need to determine first all linear and angular velocities ([tex]v_{D}[/tex], [tex]\omega_{BD}[/tex]), in inches per second and radians per second, respectively, and later all linear and angular accelerations ([tex]a_{D}[/tex], [tex]\alpha_{BD}[/tex]), the latter in radians per square second.

By definitions of relative velocity and relative acceleration we build the following two systems of linear equations:

[tex]v_{D} + \omega_{BD}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \sin \gamma = -\omega_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \sin \theta[/tex]   (1)

[tex]\omega_{BD}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \cos \gamma = -\omega_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \cos \theta[/tex]   (2)

[tex]a_{D}+\alpha_{BD}\cdot \sin \gamma = -\omega_{AB}^{2}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \cos \theta -\alpha_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \sin \theta - \omega_{BD}^{2}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \cos \gamma[/tex]   (3)

[tex]-\alpha_{BD}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \cos \gamma = - \omega_{AB}^{2}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \sin \theta + \alpha_{AB}\cdot r_{AB}\cdot \cos \theta - \omega_{BD}^{2}\cdot r_{BD}\cdot \sin \gamma[/tex]   (4)

If we know that [tex]\theta = 60^{\circ}[/tex], [tex]\gamma = 19.889^{\circ}[/tex], [tex]r_{BD} = 10\,in[/tex], [tex]\omega_{AB} = 16\,\frac{rad}{s}[/tex], [tex]r_{AB} = 3\,in[/tex] and [tex]\alpha_{AB} = 0\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}}[/tex], then the solution of the systems of linear equations are, respectively:

[tex]v_{D}+3.402\cdot \omega_{BD} = -41.569[/tex]   (1)

[tex]9.404\cdot \omega_{BD} = -24[/tex]   (2)

[tex]v_{D} = -32.887\,\frac{in}{s}[/tex], [tex]\omega_{BD} = -2.552\,\frac{rad}{s}[/tex]

[tex]a_{D}+3.402\cdot \alpha_{BD} = -445.242[/tex]   (3)

[tex]-9.404\cdot \alpha_{BD} = -687.264[/tex]   (4)

[tex]a_{D} = -693.867\,\frac{in}{s^{2}}[/tex], [tex]\alpha_{BD} = 73.082\,\frac{rad}{s^{2}}[/tex]

The linear acceleration of collar D when θ = 60° is - 693.867 inches per square second. [tex]\blacksquare[/tex]

The statement is incomplete and figure is missing, complete form is introduced below:

Arm AB has a constant angular velocity of 16 radians per second counterclockwise. At the instant when θ = 60°, determine the acceleration of collar D.

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Answer:

126 / 2 = 63 = angle between one rope and the direction of the resultant force

t = F cos 73 = .45 F      force on stump due to one horse

T = 2 t = .90 F       force on stump due to both horses - T would be the resultant of the two horses each pulling with force F

Answer:

200 N to the right

Explanation:

Answer: They Are all gas giants.

Explanation:

Answer:

the answer is. C.

Explanation:

[tex] 0.36 \times 30 = 10.8[/tex]

the solution

The object's velocity accelerating from rest from the applied force and time is closest to 4 m/s.

The velocity of the object can be determied by applying Newton's second law of motion as shown below;

F = ma

where;

The acceleration of the object is calculated as follows;

a = F/m

at time, t 4.0 s, the corresponding force = 2 N

a = 2/2

a = 1 m/s²

Velocity of the object is calculated as;

v = u + at

v = 0 + 1 x 4

v = 4 m/s

Thus, the object's velocity accelerating from rest from the applied force and time is closest to 4 m/s.

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The heat capacity of the silver spoon at the given temperature difference is 817.65 J.

The heat capacity of theb silver spoon is the quantity of heat absorbed by the silver spoon. The heat capacity of the silver spoon at the given temperature difference is calculated as follows;

Q = mcΔθ

where;

Q = 50 x 0.237 x (89 - 20)

Q = 817.65 J

Thus, the heat capacity of the silver spoon at the given temperature difference is 817.65 J.

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Torque:-

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow \tau =14(0.018)[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\Rrightarrow \tau=0.25Nm[/tex]

option B

Explanation:

velocity = frequency × wave length

velocity = 440 × 0.78

velocity = 343 m/sec

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Comets have an extremely eccentric orbit around the Sun. They can travel hundreds of thousands of years through the solar system before returning to the Sun at perihelion. Comets, like all orbiting bodies, obey Kepler's Laws, which state that the closer they get to the Sun, the faster they move.

A comet is a dirty snowball many kilometers across that exists at a considerable distance from the Sun. However, when it gets closer to the Sun, the comet's surface warms up, causing its components to melt and vaporize, resulting in the comet's distinctive tail. The distance between the Earth and the Sun can be measured in comet tails.

Answer:

M a = Fc -M g

Use up as positive - a is the acceleration upwards

Fc = M (a + g)       force exerted by chair

Fc = 19.8 M m/s^2      where M is the mass of the astronaut

The force exerted by the astronaut accelerating straight up with an acceleration of 10 m/s² is m/5 Newton.

If you want to accelerate a body of mass 'm' with acceleration 'a' than a force of magnitude given by the product of mass and acceleration is needed.

Given is an astronaut accelerating straight up with an acceleration of 10 m/s².

Since the astronaut is moving in upward direction, the resultant resultant force is in upward direction. Now, assume that the force exerted by the astronaut on the chair is F[A].  The normal reaction force on the astronaut will also be same. Mathematically -

F[N] = F[A]

Now, we can write the resultant normal reaction force as -

ma - mg = F[N]

F[N] = m(a - g)

F[N] = m(10 - 9.8)

F[N] = m(0.2)

F[N] = m/5

F[A] = F[N] = m/5

where m is the mass of astronaut.

Therefore, the force exerted by the astronaut accelerating straight up with an acceleration of 10 m/s² is m/5 Newton.

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Answer:

solar

Explanation:

this is a form of solar panel

The mechanism for the given reaction by adding the missing bonds, charges, nonbonding electrons, and curved arrows is as represented in the attached image.

The representation of an organic reaction mechanism typically includes designation of the overall reaction type (which may be substitution, addition, elimination, oxidation, reduction, or rearrangement), the presence of any reactive intermediates, the nature of the reagent that initiates the reaction, the presence of any catalysis as facilitated by a catalyst, and ultimately it's stereochemistry.

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The mechanism for the given reaction is depicted in the attached picture by adding missing bonds, charges, nonbonding electrons, and curved arrows.

The existence of any reactive intermediates, the nature of the reagent that begins the reaction, the presence of any catalysis as helped by a catalyst.

Finally the stereochemistry of an organic reaction mechanism are all included in the depiction of an organic reaction mechanism.

Hence the mechanism for the given reaction is depicted in the attached picture by adding missing bonds, charges, nonbonding electrons, and curved arrows.

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Hi there!

We can use the following equation for a simple pendulum:

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}[/tex]

T = Period (4.89 s)
L = length (? m)
g = acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s²)

Rearrange the equation to solve for L.

[tex]T^2 = 4\pi ^2 \frac{L}{g}\\\\L = \frac{gT^2}{4\pi ^2}[/tex]

[tex]L = \frac{(9.8)(4.89^2)}{4\pi^2} = \boxed{5.936 \frac{m}{s}}[/tex]

A pendulum is a body hanging from a fixed point that swings back and forth under the effect of gravity. The length of a pendulum that has a period of 4.89 seconds is 5.936 meters.

A pendulum is a body hanging from a fixed point that swings back and forth under the effect of gravity. Pendulums are employed to govern the movement of clocks because the time interval for each full oscillation, known as the period, remains constant.

Given that the time period is 4.89 seconds, therefore, the length of the pendulum can be written as,

[tex]\rm T = 2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{L}{g}}\\\\4.89 = 2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{L}{9.81}}\\\\L = 5.936\ m[/tex]

Hence, the length of a pendulum that has a period of 4.89 seconds is 5.936 meters.

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For  the​ body's position at time t  is mathematically given as

s(t)=4.9t^2+5t+16

Generally, the equation for the velocity is mathematically given as

v=ds/dt

v=9.8t+5 as velocity

s=4.9t^2+5t+c

s(0)=16

16=c

s(t)=4.9t^2+5t+16

In conclusion the​ body's position at time t

s(t)=4.9t^2+5t+16

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The body position at the given time t is s = 4.9t² + 5t + 16 if the velocity v= ds/dt and the initial position of a body moving along a coordinate line.

A numerical representation of the distance between two items or locations is called distance. A physical length or an approximation based on other considerations in physics or common usage can be referred to as distance.

We have:

[tex]\rm v = \frac{ds}{dt}[/tex]

[tex]\rm v = 9.8t+5[/tex]  is the velocity

[tex]\rm s = 4.9t^2+5t+c[/tex] is the speed

At t = 0 s(0) = 16

16 = c

[tex]\rm s = 4.9t^2+5t+16[/tex]

Thus, the body position at the given time t is s = 4.9t² + 5t + 16 if the velocity v= ds/dt and the initial position of a body moving along a coordinate line.

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Answer:

Vaccum

Explanation:

You can test it .

Hi there!

We can use the work-energy theorem and apply it to this situation.

At the top of the ramp, the ball only has gravitational potential energy, and at the bottom of the ramp, the ball has BOTH translational and rotational kinetic energy.

We must use the following equations:
[tex]GPE = mgh \\KE_T = \frac{1}{2}mv^2\\\\KE_R = \frac{1}{2}I \omega^2[/tex]

m = mass of sphere (kg)
g = acceleration due to gravity (m/s²)

h = height of ramp (m)

v = final velocity (m/s)
I = Moment of Inertia (kgm²)

ω = angular velocity (rad/sec)

Since:
[tex]E_i = E_f\\\\mgh = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{2}I\omega ^2[/tex]

In order to make things easier, since the ball is not slipping, we can relate angular velocity to translational velocity:
[tex]\omega = \frac{v}{r}[/tex]

Also, recall the equation for the moment of inertia for a solid sphere:
[tex]I = \frac{2}{5}mr^2[/tex]

We can use these to simply our equation:
[tex]KE_R = \frac{1}{2}(\frac{2}{5}mr^2)(\frac{v}{r})^2 = \frac{1}{5}mv^2[/tex]

Now, we can rewrite the equation and solve for 'v'.

[tex]mgh = \frac{1}{2}mv^2 + \frac{1}{5}mv^2\\\\mgh = \frac{7}{10}mv^2\\\\v = \sqrt{\frac{10gh}{7}} = \sqrt{\frac{10(9.8)(2.2 - 1.87)}{7}} = 2.149\frac{m}{s}[/tex]

a)

We can begin by solving for the time taken for the ball to land on the ground. The ball only has a horizontal velocity, so this is essentially a free-fall situation. Use the rearranged kinematic equation:
[tex]t = \sqrt{\frac{2h}{g}} = \sqrt{\frac{2(1.87)}{9.8}} = .6178 s[/tex]

Now, use the following equation to solve for horizontal distance given horizontal velocity and time:
[tex]d_x = v_x t\\\\d_x = 2.149 * .6178 = \boxed{1.328 m}[/tex]

b)
We can use the previously-stated relationship between translational and angular velocity to solve for the angular velocity.

[tex]\omega = \frac{v}{r}[/tex]
It is given that the diameter is 0.14 m, so the radius is 1/2th the diameter, or 0.07 m.

Solve for the angular velocity:
[tex]\omega = \frac{2.149}{0.07} = 30.706 \frac{rad}{sec}}[/tex]

Using the above fall time and dimensional analysis to convert from rad/sec to revolutions, we can solve for the # of revolutions made by the ball:
[tex]\frac{30.706rad}{sec} * .6178 sec * \frac{1 rev}{2\pi rad} = \boxed{3.019 rev}[/tex]

Answer:

a thunder

Explanation:

It's because the difference in speed of light and sound

So we hear thunder later

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Therefore, Thunder Follows The Easiest Part. And it is not (A) because Thunder Follows A Lightening Not Vice Versa.

The true statement about the blocks momentum is : The momentum of the block has increased by approximately 1/2 F₀t₁  ( B )

Given that the change in momentum is equivalent to the Area which is under the force time graph

where :

Area under the force time graph = 1/2 F₀t₁ . Therefore we can conclude that the momentum of the block has increased by an equivalent value of the are under the time graph.

Hence we can conclude that the true statement about the blocks momentum is The momentum of the block has increased by approximately 1/2 F₀t₁ .

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Attached below is the missing part of your question

missing options

Objects with the same charge repel each other, and objects with opposite charges attract each other

According to Coulomb, the electric force for charges at rest has the following properties: Like charges repel each other; unlike charges attract. Thus, two negative charges repel one another, while a positive charge attracts a negative charge. The attraction or repulsion acts along the line between the two charges.

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The water present in the middle doesn't experience pressure as much as that experienced by water at the bottom. Pressure is more at bottom surface hence fluids flow from higher pressure to lower pressure. This is why the water rushes out from the bottom hole much faster than from the upper hole

The destructive interference formula for diffraction grating problems is [tex]d sin \theta = (n+\frac{1}{2})\lambda[/tex].

Destructive interference happens when the maxima of two waves are 180° out of phase a positive displacement of one wave is canceled exactly by a negative displacement of the other wave.

The formula for brighter patches resulting from constructive interference and darker patches resulting from destructive interference in a diffraction grating is:

[tex]\rm d sin \theta = n \lambda[/tex]

The grating spacing is denoted by d, the angle of light is denoted by a the fringe order is denoted by n, and the wavelength is denoted by [tex]\rm \lambda[/tex].

The destructive interference formula is now based on the fact that destructive interference occurs between the fringes.

Hence the destructive interference formula for diffraction grating problems is [tex]d sin \theta = (n+\frac{1}{2})\lambda[/tex].

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Answer:

A. dsin  =

Explanation: