The chromosome number in the primary oocyte has reduced by half after meiosis I. At the end of meiosis I, the sister chromatids separate and are no longer connected at the centromeres as the centromeres do divide in anaphase I of meiosis.
What is meiosis?Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the formation of gametes, such as sperm and eggs, with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This reduction in chromosome number is necessary for the proper formation of offspring during fertilization, as the resulting zygote will have the normal diploid chromosome number for the species.
Meiosis occurs in two distinct stages, called Meiosis I and Meiosis II, that each involve two rounds of chromosome division. During Meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material, a process called crossing over. Then, in anaphase I, the sister chromatids separate and are distributed to opposite poles of the cell. In Meiosis II, the chromosomes separate, and the cells divide, producing four haploid daughter cells.
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True or false, when heterosexual men were given oxytocin or a placebo prior to meeting an attractive woman, the oxytocin had no effect on single men, but it caused those in a monogamous relationship to stand farther away
The claim that when heterosexual males were given oxytocin or a placebo before encountering a beautiful lady, the oxytocin had no effect on single men but made monogamous men stand further away from the woman is True.
before meeting a beautiful woman, heterosexual men were administered oxytocin or a placebo?Before meeting a beautiful woman, heterosexual males were given either oxytocin or a placebo; oxytocin had no effect on single men, but it made monogamous men stand further away. 16.
What happens if oxytocin is administered to a male?The delay to the first mount, intromission, and ejaculation were shown to be dramatically decreased by systemic oxytocin therapy, indicating an increase in sexual activity.
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In plants, water and mineral transport are essential for survival. Which structures of a plant are directly involved in water and mineral transport?
All of the plant's components receive water, minerals, and nutrients from the soil via xylem. Plants have two different types of "transport" tissues: xylem and phloem. The xylem moves nutrients and water from the roots to the leaves, and the phloem moves food from the leaves to the rest of the plant.
what is xylem ?One of the two different kinds of transport tissue found in vascular plants—the other being phloem—is xylem. In addition to carrying water from the roots to the stems and leaves, xylem also carries nutrients.
what is phloem ?In vascular plants, the living tissue known as phloem carries photosynthates, or soluble organic molecules produced during photosynthesis, to the rest of the plant, particularly the sugar sucrose. Translocation is the term for this transport method.
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which of the following choices best explains how the sequence of nucleic acids that make up the genetic code is translated into the amino acid sequence in proteins?
The following choices best explains how the sequence of nucleic acids that make up the genetic code is translated into the amino acid sequence in proteins is an mRNA that is translated by a tRNA into an amino acid sequence
Protein synthesis is the process of forming protein molecules involving the synthesis of amino acids. The process of protein synthesis occurs in two stages, namely transcription and translation which occur in the nucleus and ribosomes. In the process of transcription, DNA is copied.
Translation is the process by which the genetic code of the DNA copy that has been carried by the previous mRNA is translated. In the process of translation of the genetic code will produce polypeptides as a constituent of protein. This process occurs in three stages: initiation occurs when the mRNA arrives carrying the DNA codons up to the ribosome. The second is elongation where the codons carried by the mRNA are translated into amino acids to form a polypeptide chain. Finally, the termination is where one of the stop codons meets the ribosome.
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Prostaglandins, and leukotrienes are found in virtually all body cells except red blood cells and act as paracrines or autocrines in response to chemical or mechanical stimuli. True/false
Almost all body cells, with the exception of red blood cells, contain prostaglandins and leukotrienes, which operate as para- or autocrine hormones in response to chemical or mechanical stimuli (true)
Potent eicosanoid lipid mediators called prostaglandins and leukotrienes, which are produced from arachidonic acid released by phospholipase, are engaged in a variety of biological processes that are homeostatic and inflammatory.
Prostaglandins are found in almost every tissue in both humans and other animals. They are produced by an enzyme mechanism from the fatty acid arachidonic acid. Each prostaglandin contains a 5-carbon ring and a total of 20 carbon atoms. They are a subclass of eicosanoids in the prostanoid class of fatty acid derivatives.
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which of the following conditions can be varied in an enrichment culture to isolate bacteria that prefer a specific set of conditions? -food source
-temperature
-pH
-All of the above are correct
The all of the above conditions can be varied in an enrichment culture to isolate bacteria that prefer a specific set of conditions.
What is bacteria?Bacteria are widespread, generally free-living creatures that typically consist of a single biological cell. They are a vast group of prokaryotic bacteria. Bacteria, which are typically a few micrometres in length, were among the first living forms to arise on Earth and are found in the majority of its habitats. Bacteria are single-celled living entities that are extremely small. Bacteria come in millions of distinct varieties. Many are advantageous to you and can be found in and on your body. These bacteria comprise your microbiome, which helps to keep your body healthy. Other germs can cause illness.
Here,
In an enrichment culture, various conditions such as food source, temperature, and pH can be varied to isolate bacteria that prefer a specific set of conditions. By controlling these conditions and selecting for bacteria that thrive under specific conditions, it is possible to isolate bacteria with specific metabolic and growth requirements.
This technique is commonly used in microbiology to isolate and study bacteria that are difficult to grow in conventional laboratory conditions.
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Unlike the other three kingdoms within domain Eukarya evidence indicates that protists do not share the same evolutionary lineage, so five new taxonomic groupings called _______ supergroups have been developed to explain evolutionary relationships among protists.
Unlike the other three kingdoms within the domain Eukarya (Animalia, Plantae, and Fungi), evidence indicates that protists do not share the same evolutionary lineage. As a result, five new taxonomic groupings called "Protist Supergroups" have been developed to explain evolutionary relationships among protists.
These supergroups include Excavata: A diverse group of protists that includes some of the earliest eukaryotic lineages, such as parasitic species and free-living flagellates.
Rhizaria: A group of mostly single-celled organisms that are characterized by a complex cytoskeleton and the ability to form pseudopods. SAR (Stramenopiles, Alveolates, and Rhizaria): A group of diverse protists that includes diatoms, brown algae, and some parasites.
Opisthokonts: A group of protists that includes fungi and animals, and is defined by the presence of flagella and/or undulating membranes. Amoebozoa: A group of amoeba-like protists that are characterized by their ability to form pseudopods.
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A neurotransmitter from a presynaptic neuron causes an inhibitory postsynaptic signal (IPSP) in the postysynaptic neuron. Which if the following events will occur FIRST
a. Sodium-gated ligand channels open
b. Potassium ligand-gated channels open
c. An action potential is initiated in the postsynaptic neuron
d. The postsynaptic neuron will hyperpolarize
A neurotransmitter from a presynaptic neuron causes an inhibitory postsynaptic signal (IPSP) in the postysynaptic neuron. The following events will occur first is D. The postsynaptic neuron will hyperpolarize
Neurotransmitters are chemical compounds in the body that function to carry and transmit messages between neurons. Neurotransmitters will carry messages across the synaptic gap from one neuron to another in the central nervous system.
IPSP is an electrical charge on the postsynaptic membrane caused by the binding of inhibitory neurotransmitters. The process of IPSP formation begins when the neurotransmitter binds to an inhibitor which causes the opening of chloride ion channels which are bound by ligands. This causes hyperpolarization due to the flow of negatively charged ions into the postsynaptic cell. Thus the postsynaptic membrane is less likely to generate an action potential.
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structures originating from the centriole that facilitate cell division is?
The structure that originates from the centriole that facilitates cell division is known as the centrosome.
What is cell division?Cell division may be defined as a type of biological process through which a parent cell significantly divides into two daughter cells. This process of Cell division typically takes place as part of a larger cell cycle in which the cell grows and replicates its chromosome before dividing.
Centrioles can significantly recruit microtubule-nucleating factors, called the pericentriolar material (PCM). It forms a larger structure named the centrosome that generally functions as the main microtubule-organizing center during both interphase and mitosis.
Therefore, the structure that originates from the centriole that facilitates cell division is known as the centrosome.
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pls help....................
The muscular system has a significant effect on other organ systems. Here are the effects of the muscular system on each organ system:
a) Skin system: The muscular system has a direct effect on the skin system as movement can affect blood flow and sweating, which can impact the regulation of body temperature.
b) Skeletal system: The muscular system works in tandem with the skeletal system, as muscles contract and relax to cause movement. The muscles also provide support and stability to the skeleton.
c) Nervous system: The muscular system and the nervous system are closely related, as nerve impulses from the nervous system control muscle contraction and relaxation.
d) Endocrine system: The endocrine system produces hormones that regulate muscle growth, metabolism, and repair.
What are the system about?The others are:
e) Circulatory system: The muscular system affects the circulatory system as exercise and physical activity increase blood flow, which helps to improve cardiovascular health.
f) Immune & Lymphatic System: Physical activity and exercise can help improve the functioning of the immune and lymphatic systems.
g) Respiratory System: The muscular system affects the respiratory system as movement and physical activity can increase the demand for oxygen and affect lung function.
h) Urinary System: Physical activity can affect urinary function, as movement can affect the pressure in the bladder and urinary tract.
i) Digestive system: Physical activity can affect digestive function, as exercise and movement can stimulate the digestive system and help to prevent constipation.
j) Reproductive system: Physical activity can affect reproductive function, as exercise can affect hormonal balance and affect fertility.
Therefore, the muscular system has a significant impact on many different organ systems, affecting various functions such as blood flow, hormone regulation, and digestion.
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See transcribed text below
6. Discuss the effects of the (muscular system on other organ systems. a) Skin system:
(10 M)
b) Skeletal system:
c) Nervous system:
d) Endocrine system:
e) Circulatory system:
f) Immune & Lymphatic System:
g) Respiratory System:
h) Urinary System:
i) Digestive system:
j) Reproductive system:
if you have two steel plates, one hot and one cold, and separate them in a vacuum, which of the following statements is true?
If you have two steel plates, one hot and one cold, and separate them in a vacuum, the statements true is they can exchange heat because they give off light. The hot plate gives off more light energy (electromagnetic waves) and the cold plate gives off less energy.
Electrically charged particles that are being accelerated create electromagnetic waves, and these waves can then interact with other charged particles to impose force on them. The energy, momentum, and angular momentum of EM waves are transferred from their source particle to the matter they interact with. Due to their sufficient separation from the moving charges that produced them, electromagnetic waves that are free to spread out on their own (or "radiate") without the ongoing influence of those charges are known as electromagnetic radiation. As a result, the far field is another name for EMR. The electromagnetic (EM) fields close to the charges and current that directly formed them are referred to as the near field in this context, specifically the electromagnetic induction and electrostatic induction processes.
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The claim that two steel plates may exchange heat because they emit light is valid if you have two steel plates—one hot and one cold—and separate them in a vacuum. Electromagnetic waves are emitted from both the hot and cold plates, with the hot plate emitting greater energy.
Electromagnetic waves are produced when electrically charged particles are accelerated; these waves can then interact with other charged particles to exert force on them. The matter that EM waves interact with absorbs the energy, momentum, and angular momentum that was originally carried by its source particle. Electromagnetic waves that are sufficiently free to spread out (or "radiate") without the continuing effect of the moving charges that produced them are referred to as electromagnetic radiation. The distant field is thus another term for EMR. In this context, the term "near field" refers to the electromagnetic (EM) fields close to the charges and current that directly created them, notably the electromagnetic induction and electrostatic induction processes.
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which amino acid is capable of forming a disulfide linkage when positioned near another amino acid of the same type? please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. answer choices methionine
Cysteine is capable of forming a disulfide linkage when positioned near another amino acid of the same type.
What is disulfide linkage?A disulfide linkage, also known as a disulfide bond or disulfide bridge, is a type of covalent bond formed by the oxidation of two cysteine residues in proteins, peptides, and other molecules. It is a strong, stable, and non-reversible bond that helps stabilize the tertiary structure of proteins and is important for protein folding and stability. Disulfide linkages are also important for maintaining the correct conformation of proteins, as well as for facilitating protein-protein interactions. In addition, disulfide linkages can be used to regulate the activity of proteins, such as enzymes, and to alter their activity in response to environmental changes. Disulfide linkages are also involved in the transport of molecules across membranes and in the formation of some glycoproteins.
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use the combined gas law to determine the volume of hydrogen gas (in milliliters) that would be produced at standard temperature and pressure (1 atm and 273 k).
Ideal gases have intriguing features, which make the combined gas laws applicable to them.
What is stated by the combined gas law?According to a popular interpretation of the combined gas law, for a sample of gas, the product of the initial pressure and volume and the initial temperature will equal the product of the initial pressure and volume and the initial temperature, or. P 1 V T 1 equals P 2 V T 2.
The combined gas legislation combines which three laws?The three previously established laws, Boyle's law PV = K, Charles law V/T = K, and Gay-law Lussac's P/T = K, are combined to form the combined gas law. Consequently, the combined gas law's equation is PV/T = K, where P is for pressure, T is for temperature, V is for volume.
This equation preserves the number of moles of the gas while modeling the relationship between the volume, temperature, and pressure of a gas under changing conditions.
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Full Question = In a laboratory experiment, a team of students collects 100 mL of hydrogen gas at 22 degrees Celsius and 90.659 kPa. Determine the volume the gas sample would have at standard temperature and pressure (273 K and 101.325 kPa).
2. Write three sentences that help explain why the frequencies of tusklessness in
male and female elephant populations tend to differ. In each sentence use one
of the following conjunctions: but, because, so. Include a different conjunction
in each sentence. Each sentence should use evidence from the text and/or your
frequency calculations.
Population refers to the total number of living things in a certain area. The population is the total number of organisms of a given species that are present in a given location at a given time.
What is population?
Three examples that demonstrate how male and female elephant populations typically differ in terms of the frequency of centerless individuals:
1. Increasing uncontrolled poaching acts as some kind of "selective pressure".
2. Tusk less animals get to reproduce more frequently, transmitting the uselessness gene to their progeny, and hence, increasing its frequency in the population.
3. Animals that carry the genes to grow tusks are removed from the population, and most of the surviving animals are those that do not have tusk and that carry the gene for tusk less ness.
All of a country's citizens, whether they live there permanently or are merely passing through, are referred to as its "population."
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List the hormones produced by the following tissues: heart, pineal gland, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, adipose tissue, pancreas, liver, kidneys, adrenal medulla, adrenal cortex, stomach/small intestine.
Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP), melatonin (from the pineal gland), thyroid hormone (TSH), parathyroid hormone (PTH), leptin (from adipose tissue), insulin (from the pancreas).
Which hormones is the parathyroid gland responsible for producing?The hormone parathyroid, which is produced by the parathyroid glands, is essential for controlling blood calcium levels.
How does the pineal gland work?The primary role of the pineal gland is to accept information from the environment about the condition of the light-dark cycle and transmit that information through the production and secretion of the hormone melatonin.
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1. The Punnett square below shows a cross between two rabbits. Black fur is dominant to brown fur.
a. What is the phenotype of each parent?
2:0
b. What is the genotype of offspring 3?
0:2:0
c. What is the phenotype of offspring 3?
2:0
d. What is the genotypic ratio?
1:2:1
e. What is the phenotypic ratio?
3:1
Did I get this right? If not pls help!
Answer:
you're right
Explanation:
Incase of next time, don't forget to always differentiate genotype from phenotype
according to sigmund freud, girls and boys develop feminine and masculine identities, respectively, when they
Begin to identify with their same-sex parent and give up their desire for their other-sex parent.
What was the theory of Sigmund Freud?Sigmund Freud's hypothesis, to put it simply, holds that unconscious motivations, memories, and recollections influence conduct. According to this view, the id, ego, and superego are the three parts of the psyche. The id is totally unconscious, whereas the ego operates in the conscious mind.
Why is Sigmund Freud so well-known? Who was he?Sigmund Freud was a neurologist in the late 19th and early 20th centuries. The psychoanalytic approach was created by him, and he is often considered as the father of modern psychology.
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Question:
According to Sigmund Freud, girls and boys develop feminine and masculine identities when they
a) begin to desire their parent of the other sex.
b) relinquish their desire for the other-sex parent and begin to identify with their same-sex parent.
c) begin to express their libido in socially acceptable ways.
d) reach the genital stage of development.
Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
A) During cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and four daughter cells result.
B) Most of the growth of the cell occurs during this phase.
C) The mitotic phase is longer than interphase.
D) During mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cells.
E) DNA of the cell is replicated during this phase.
The true statement regarding the mitotic phase of the cell cycle is during mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cell (d).
A cell cycle is a series of events that takes place in a cell as it grows and divides. There are two major phases of cell cycle : interphase and the mitotic (M) phase. Interphase, is intended to do preparation before mitotic phase. The cell grows and makes a copy of its DNA. Interphase consist of G1 phase, S and G2 phase. During G phase the cell grows larger and organelles are copied, while S phase, the DNA is duplicated.
Mitotic (M) phase, which involve cytokinesis, the cell distribute DNA into two sets equally and divides its cytoplasm becoming two new cells. Cytokinesis usually begins just as mitosis is ending. From all of this processes, interphase take a longer time than mitotic phase.
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disadvantages of the complement fixation test
Explanation:
The complement fixation test has several disadvantages.
First, the test is time-consuming and labor-intensive. It requires multiple steps and a long incubation period, making it difficult to use for rapid diagnosis.
Second, the sensitivity of the test is relatively low compared to other tests. This means that it may miss some cases of infection.
Third, the test is prone to false positive results due to the presence of non-specific antibodies in the sample. This can lead to incorrect diagnosis.
Fourth, the test is not as specific as other tests, which means it may produce false positive results due to cross-reactivity with other antigens.
Finally, the test is expensive and requires specialized equipment and reagents. This makes it difficult to use in resource-limited settings.
Under which circumstances would an error during DNA replication be most
likely to cause genetic variation?
A. The error prevents the parent cell from completing its cell cycle.
OB. The error occurs in a gamete and the resulting offspring survives.
C. The error is so minor that the cell can still fully function.
D. The error occurs early in development and causes observable
changes in the organism.
Answer:
During DNA synthesis, most DNA polymerases "check their work," fixing the majority of mispaired bases in a process called proofreading. Immediately after DNA synthesis, any remaining mispaired bases can be detected and replaced in a process called mismatch repair.
a urine microscopic on a sample with a ph of 6.0 shows abundant hexagonal yellowish-brown colored crystals. (T/F)
The given statement "a urine microscopic on a sample with a ph of 6.0 shows abundant hexagonal yellowish-brown colored crystals." is false because urine pH is not a reliable indicator of the type of crystals present in a urine sample.
The appearance and type of crystals in a urine sample can be influenced by factors such as the concentration of substances in the urine, the presence of other substances that can affect crystal formation, and the state of hydration. A microscopic examination of the urine sample is typically used to identify the presence and type of crystals, and a urine pH measurement is not a reliable way to determine the type of crystals present. To determine the type of crystals, it is important to perform a thorough analysis of the sample, including chemical tests and microscopy.
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complete the following diagrams of sexual life cycles by filling in the type of cell division, event, or cells. indicate whether the cell labeled i. in the bottom cycle is n or 2n
a. meiosis
b. fertilization
c. zygote
Here is the completed diagram for the sexual life cycle:
(a) Meiosis: i.2n; (b) Fertilization: Sperm + Egg → Zygote; (c) Zygote: i.2n
What is fertilization?Fertilization is the process by which two gametes (sperm and egg) combine to form a zygote, which is the initial cell of a new organism. This process usually takes place within the female reproductive system, and the sperm must navigate through the female reproductive tract to reach the egg. When a sperm successfully penetrates the egg, the egg's membrane changes to prevent other sperm from entering, and the genetic material of the sperm and egg combine to form a new cell with a unique genetic makeup. Fertilization is a critical event in sexual reproduction that leads to the formation of a new individual.
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Which of the following can help to preserve bilirubin in a urine specimen?
A. Centrifuge the specimen
B. Keep the specimen at room temperature
C. Add formalin
D. Keep the specimen out of the light
The action that can help to preserve bilirubin in a urine specimen is to centrifuge the specimen. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
What is Centrifugation?Centrifugation may be characterized as a type of biological methodology that is significantly utilized in order to separate two or more liquids in a mixture.
During the entire process, the denser component within the mixture typically migrates away from the axis while the lighter component migrates towards the axis.
It separates the liquid in the urine from any solid components that may be present, such as blood cells, mineral crystals, or microorganisms. Any solid materials are then viewed under a microscope. Apart from this, it also preserves bilirubin pigment.
Therefore, the action that can help to preserve bilirubin in a urine specimen is to centrifuge the specimen. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
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What is Enzyme ?
Guys Hey!!!
Enzymes are proteins that act as biological catalysts by speeding up chemical reactions. The molecules upon which enzymes may act are called substrates. They are essential for digesting food, helping muscle and nerve function, etc. Enzymes can either be proteins which they usually are, or RNA molecules (also known as ribozymes). Proteins are one of the major biomolecules; the others are carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and lipids.
types of genetic variation that frequently occurs between individuals of the same species include _________
The types of genetic variation that frequently occurs between individuals of the same species include SNPs, CNVs and different alleles.
Genetic variation is basically the difference which is present in the DNA among individuals of a population or the differences between different populations. There are multiple sources of genetic variation which include mutation as well as genetic recombination.
Genetic variation amongst the individuals of the same species can be the difference in their alleles which consequently affects their respective phenotypes. Other common genetic variations include SNPs, CNVs etc. SNPs are considered as the most commonly occurring genetic variation among the individuals of human population.
--The given question is incomplete, the complete question is
"Types types of genetic variation that frequently occurs between individuals of the same species include
a. SNPs
b. CNVs
c. Different alleles
d. All of the above"--
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which of the following items must be labeled with a biohazard label or be colored red or orange to indicate it is a biohazard?
Each sharps container must either be labeled with the universal biohazard symbol and the word "biohazard" or be color-coded red.
Sharps containers must be maintained upright throughout use, replaced routinely, and not be allowed to overfill.
What is a biohazard?
A biological substance which can endanger the health of humans, is referred to as a biological hazard or biohazard.A sample of a microorganism, virus, or toxin that can be harmful to human health may be included in this.The phrase and its corresponding symbol are typically used as a warning so that those who may be exposed to the substances are aware of the need for safety measures.Charles Baldwin, an environmental-health engineer working on the containment products for the Dow Chemical Company, created the biohazard emblem in 1966.To know more about the biohazard, click the link given below:
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The majority of cellular respiration takes place in the nucleus of cells.True or false
The majority of cellular respiration takes place in the nucleus of cells is referred to as a false statement.
What is Cellular respiration?This is referred to as a set of metabolic reactions occurring inside the cells to convert biochemical energy obtained from the food into energy which is usually in the form of ATP.
The nucleus controls the proteins and information transmitted to the mitochondria by anterograde regulation and we should note that the latter is the power house of the cell thereby making false the correct choice.
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Path to food thru the digestive system from a grasshopper
The pathway is like this: mouth to crop via esophagus, then from crop to gizzard and after that food reaches stomach and intestine.
What is the exact grasshopper digestive system?
The esophagus transports food from the mouth to the crop. The food is kept in the crop. Food then moves to the gizzard, where it is further ground up by chitin-tipped teeth. Food then exits the stomach and travels into the intestines, where it is digested by glands and absorbed by different organs.
Grasshoppers and cockroaches are multicellular animals. Therefore, a fully developed digestive tract serves as the site of the numerous nutritional processes that grasshoppers (or cockroaches) go through. The job of receiving, digesting, and absorbing nutrients from food falls to an organ and gland system known as the digestive system.
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Which of the following best explains the difference in the amount of available energy in the trophic levels of the desert ecosystem?
The following best explains the difference in the amount of available energy in the trophic levels of the desert ecosystem is at the highest trophic level there is very little energy available.
An ecosystem is a system formed between living things that interact with their environment. There are various kinds of ecosystems built by biotic and abiotic components on earth such as lake ecosystems, forest ecosystems, and desert ecosystems
Energy cannot be created but can be changed from one form to another. The energy pyramid illustrates the loss of energy when transferring food energy at each trophic level in an ecosystem. Every transfer of energy in the trophic from a smaller trophic level to a larger trophic level, there is always a reduction in energy. Thus, energy at the fourth or highest trophic level will only have a small amount of energy available due to loss of energy through metabolism at each lower trophic level.
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how light interacts with pigments in photosystems of the light reactions, and why certain wavelengths of light (green) are not helpful for photosynthesis
Light interacts with pigments in photosystems of the light reactions as Photosynthesis uses light and green light is not helpful for photosynthesis as it is poorly absorbed by chlorophyll.
When pigments take in light, this releases light energy that can then be used in the process of photosynthesis. In order for photosynthesis to take place, plant pigment molecules must only take in visible light. The spectrum of hues that make up the visible light that humans perceive as white light is actually present.
Chlorophyll has a difficult time absorbing green light, which is said to be the primary reason green light is not considered beneficial to plants.
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If lactose is the sole sugar source present in E.coli, then the repressor cannot bind to the _______ and lactose is broken down into _________ .
If lactose is the sole sugar source present in E.coli, then the repressor cannot bind to the operator and lactose is broken down into glucose and galactose.
E. coli love glucose as their primary wellspring of energy. Nonetheless, on occasion of low glucose fixations, microscopic organisms will utilize lactose all things considered.
Normally, the lac operon is switched off. This is on the grounds that the controller quality codes for a repressor protein which is effectively present and bound to the administrator. Doing as such, keeps RNA polymerase from going towards underlying qualities, consequently forestalling record of RNA for creation of the key proteins required for lactose digestion.
In the predefined situation, when hello levels of lactose are available, an isomer type of lactose, galactose , will proceed to tie with the repressor protein to make it idle. This will permit the administrator locale to be clear of any road obstructions and allow RNA polymerase an opportunity to interpret the qualities for the proteins.
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