ability to achieve maximum speed from a stationary position is called

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Acceleration Runs They test the ability to achieve high speed of locomotion from a stationary position or from a slow-moving position. Acceleration ability is improved indirectly by improving on explosive strength, technique and movement frequency

Explanation:

Answer 2

The ability to achieve maximum speed from a stationary position is called: acceleration ability.

A good health can be defined as the state of well-being in which all of the components of an individual's health are in balance. Thus, this state of well-being comprises six (6) important components and they are;

Physical. Spiritual.Emotional.Environmental.Social.Mental (intellectual).

In order to have a good health, improve well-being, body mass index (BMI), and wellness (heart health), physicians and medical professionals usually advise interested individuals to engage in physical activity such as an aerobic exercise.

An aerobic exercise refers to all forms of physical activity that an individual engages in, so as to increase the heart rate (from low to high intensity) in response to the level of oxygen required by any activated or working muscle in the human body.  Some examples of an aerobic exercise (cardio-fitness activity) includes; cycling, swimming, jogging, walking, skiing, etc.

In Physical health education, acceleration ability can be defined as the ability of an individual to achieve or gain maximum speed while moving from a stationary position. Thus, with an acceleration ability, it is possible for someone such as a sportsman to easily achieve a position of stability and a low-speed within the shortest possible time to the maximum self-propelled speed.

In conclusion, the acceleration ability of an individual is highly dependent on the following factors;

Flexibility.Body technique.Explosive strength.

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 Ability To Achieve Maximum Speed From A Stationary Position Is Called

Related Questions

What is an example of a non-observable warning sign for a mental health condition in someone else?
Select a response.


They are cutting their arms.

They are not participating in things they once loved.

They are feeling worthless or hopeless.

They are isolating themselves or pushing away friends.

Answers

Feeling worthless or helpless. It's the only answer that you can't observe from the outside

An example of a non-observable warning sign for a mental health condition is feeling worthless or hopeless. So, the correct option is (C).

What is Mental Health condition?

Mental illnesses are defined as health conditions which involve changes in feeling, thinking, or behavior. It may be associated with distress and/or problems functioning in social, work or family activities.

Mental illness collectively known to all diagnosable mental disorders which involve:

Several changes in thinking, emotion and/or behavior.Distress functioning in social, work or family activities.

It can involve various types of disorders like

Anxiety Disorders.Mood Disorders.Schizophrenia Disorders.Dementias.Eating Disorders.

Thus, an example of a non-observable warning sign for a mental health condition is feeling worthless or hopeless. So, the correct option is (C).

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A client who is manic threatens others on the unit. Which would be the initial nursing action in response to this behavior?

Answers

The nursing action in response to this behavior is Setting limits on aggressive and intimidating behavior.

Who is a manic?

A manic is an individual that has an abnormal high level of energy to do things the a normal individual may find difficulty in doing.

Manic can be caused by the following;

high levels of stress.

absence of sleep.

using control drugs such as cocaine or alcohol.

Nursing actions or interventions are a systematic care that is given by nurses towards the patient for fast recovery and health improvement.

The nursing action towards a manic include the following:

The nurse should first assess the mental state of the patient.

The nurse should form a rapport with the patient to obtain information that would be used for their treatment plan.

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A powder actuated tool must not be able to operate until its pressure agianst work surface is?

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The powder-actuated tool must not be able to operate unless it is forced against the work surface with a force that is at least 5 pounds (2.2 kg) greater than the tool's entire weight.

Safety principles while using powder-actuated tools?

Operate powder-actuated tools only in the presence of qualified, approved users who are familiar with the rules governing their usage (also known as explosive actuated fastening tools).Tools that use powder work like loaded weapons. Powder-activated instruments should be handled with the same care and safety measures as weapons.To operate and maintain the tool safely, refer to the manufacturer's instructions.Put on safety goggles, safety glasses, or a face shield together with a hard hat.Be sure to safeguard your ears.When working on ladders or scaffolds, you should always brace yourself to keep your balance.Keep equipment aimed in a secure direction. Never point a tool with a powder charge at someone.Just before using, load tools with powder action. Never remove loaded powder-actuated tools from a task.

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Which is the first step in the contraction phase of the excitation–contraction coupling?

Answers

The first step in the contraction phase of the excitation–contraction coupling is Ca2+ binds to troponin.

Excitation-contraction coupling, or ECC, is the process by which an electrical signal in a muscle cell causes that muscle cell to mechanically shorten. As suggested by its name, ECC consists of two linked phases: the excitation phase and contraction phase.

First, an action potential occurs at the muscle cell membrane (also called the sarcolemma). Next, calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and floods the cell. Then, the regulatory proteins detach from actin, allowing myosin to bind and cross-bridge cycling to proceed.

ECC is vital to the movement of all muscles in the body.

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Monitoring your mental well-being is similar to monitoring your physical health. what is a warning sign that you may be dealing with a serious issue?

Answers

Depression is a warning sign that you may be dealing with a serious issue.

What is a warning sign that you may be dealing with a serious issue?

A warning sign that you are dealing with a serious issue is depression because depression negatively affected the mental well-being. Depression is related to mind. If we get depressed or tensed, our mind did not work properly. People get depressed when they face tense situation or problem in their lives. This depression can leads to serious health problems. This is why doctor recommend depressed free environment for the mind in order to work properly.

So we can conclude that depression is a warning sign that you may be dealing with a serious issue

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The nurse is teaching nutrition to a class of high school students. What fact about adolescent eating patterns should the nurse consider when planning teaching?

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Overeating or binge eating by adolescents is a common habit. The food mainly includes fast food like burgers, pizza, tacos, etc., which have little nutritional value but higher calories. Too many calories lead to fat deposition, the leading cause of obesity and overweight in adolescents.

Adolescents must eat healthily because their bodies are undergoing physical changes that influence their nutritional and dietary requirements. Teenagers are growing increasingly self-reliant and making a lot of their own eating decisions. A growth spurt and increase in appetite are common among adolescents, who require nutritious diets to support their growth. Compared to younger children, adolescents typically consume more meals away from home. Their classmates have a big impact on them, too. Many teenagers prioritize meal convenience, and they could consume excessive amounts of unhealthy items like soft drinks, fast food, or processed meals.

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Signs of late heatstroke include?

Answers

a headache.
dizziness and confusion.
loss of appetite and feeling sick.
excessive sweating and pale, clammy skin.
cramps in the arms, legs and stomach.
fast breathing or pulse.
being very thirsty.

The label on a 750-ml bottle of italian chianti indicates ""11. 5 lcohol by volume"". How many milliliters of alcohol does the wine contain?

Answers

Volume of alcohol =[tex]\frac{100}{11.5}[/tex]​×0.75= 0.086250 L

Total volume given in bottle = 0.75 L

Since, the solution given contains 11.5% alcohol by volume.

To convert a milliliter measurement to a liter measurement, divide the volume by the conversion ratio. The volume in liters is equal to the milliliters divided by 1,000. In general milliliter is measured is smaller then liter in quantity . Also 1 L = 1000 ml. Though both liters (l) and milliliters (ml) represent the same quantity, their values differ.

250ml is equivalent to one quarter of a Liter. And 500ml is equivalent to half a Liter. To convert liters to milliliters, you'll need to multiply the Liter value by 1000.

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Dana’s 16-year-old friend confides in Dana that she is being abused. Which is the most appropriate action Dana can take to help her friend?

posting the problem on social media
making a joke to lighten the mood
calling the National Domestic Violence hotline
sharing a story about a similar situation

Answers

The best action that Dana can take to help her friend is to call the National Domestic Violence hotline.

What is domestic violence?

The term domestic violence has to do with the various activities that reflect violence at home. It includes but is not limited to physical and se-xual abuse of abuse, verbal abuse, cyber bullying etc. All of these must take place in the home for such actions to be considered as instances of domestic violence.

We know that domestic violence is sensitive and the victims often do not want their story to be told hence it should not be published online to prevent stigma. As such, the best action that Dana can take to help her friend is to call the National Domestic Violence hotline.

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Answer:

C

Explanation:

Edge 2022

_____ and _____ are often the 2 most important reasons specific foods are consumed in north america.

Answers

The Taste and Texture are often the two most important reasons specific foods are consumed in North America.

The taste matters as it is the most important factor that determines food selection or preference. Its a type of pleasure people experiences when eating a particular food.

The appearance and texture of food is the second major factor. These sensory aspects are thought to influence, in particular or specific food choice.

The factors such as- taste, odor, appearance, texture, temperature, sound, and trigeminal nerve which together constitute flavor are sensory features of a food which people use to assess palatability. The Palatability is the hedonic evaluation of odor-sensory food cues under standardized conditions.

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Adult food-borne botulism can be prevented by thoroughly cooking food (minimum 80°c for 20 minutes) before it is eaten.
a. true
b. false

Answers

Answer: a. True

Explanation:

Dierdre has never needed much sleep. Even as a kid, she was always up early. She has a healthy diet and exercises regularly, so her health is good. She has read that she should get eight hours of sleep, but she naturally wakes up after about six and has plenty of energy. What is the BEST advice for Dierdre?

Answers

Answer: If she is taking care of herself and is well rested, that is enough sleep for her body.

When rick pops a handful of peanuts into his mouth at the ballgame, he is engaging specifically in the process of:_______.

Answers

When rick pops a handful of peanuts into his mouth at the ballgame, he is engaging specifically in the process of ingestion.

What is ingestion?Ingestion is the process of consuming any substance by an organism by swallowing or absorbing it.Mostly it is accomplished by eating or drinking (e.g. food, water, medicine, etc.) through the mouth into the GI tract.Single cell organisms ingest by absorbing the substances through their cell membrane.Ingestion is the first process of digestion.After ingestion, food is broken down physically (mastication) and chemically (by enzymes).The digested foods are then absorbed through the blood to the cells.The digested foods are then converted into the parts of a cell.The undigested products are then excreted out as feces.

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What Is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

HIV is a virus that attacks the immune system and weakens its ability to combat other infectious diseases

HIV is a virus that attacks the bone marrow and interferes with the production of blood cells.

HIV is a virus that affects the liver and can cause acute or chronic liver infection.

HIV is a fatal disease that attacks the immune and nervous systems.

Answers

Answer:

HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus) is a virus that attacks the immune system. (The immune system fights infections and diseases in a person's body.) Over time, HIV weakens a person's immune system so it has a very hard time fighting diseases. HIV causes AIDS (Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome).

so the answer will the First option

Answer:option 1

Explanation:

HIV, or Human Immunodeficiency Virus, is a virus that attacks and weakens the immune system of the human body. It specifically targets CD4 cells, which are a type of white blood cell that plays a crucial role in the immune response against infections and diseases.

According to the usda my plate, what percentage of one’s diet should come from high-protein sources?

Answers

Animal based foods such as - meat, poultry, fish, eggs and dairy foods.plant based foods such as- fruit, vegetable, grains, nuts, seeds, often lack one or more.

For healthy persons diet protein is important diet which is depend on their age and sex. protein is a part of every cell in the body. It helps the body to build and repair cells. protein is a major component of the skin , muscle, bone, organs, hair and nails.

Protein is made by amino acids of long chains which is 20 amino acids, amino acid is determines the structure and function of each protein  such as alanine, glycine, lysine, etc.

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What action is most important in limiting the nurse's risk of back injuries?

Answers

The heavy lifting is the most significant risk factor for the development of musculoskeletal injuries, specifically the lower back of nurses.

Also nursing involves a large amount of heavy lifting when repositioning or moving patients. As, a research has shown nursing to be the occupation with the highest prevalence of heavy lifting.

According to a, study found that nurses who regularly manually reposition, transfer, or lift their patients are more at risk from LBP than nurses who do not carry out these duties.

There are the cases of 25% of nurses experience poor sleep due to fatigue, psychosocial stress, perceived exhaustion, musculoskeletal pain, insufficient sleep has significantly contributed to an increased risk of LBP in healthcare workers.

The equipment and resources available to nurses affect the epidemiology of LBP.

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Sarita is choking. Brianna must now give care starting with 5 back blows. How should brianna position sarita when giving back blows?

Answers

Brianna should stand to the side and just behind Sarita when giving back blows.

When a foreign object gets stuck in the windpipe or neck and blocks the airway, choking happens.

The American Red Cross advises using a "five-and-five" method of administering first aid if the person is choking and unable to talk, cry, or laugh loudly and these methods are :

1) 5 back blows

2) 5 abdominal thrusts

3) Alternate between 5 blows and thrusts.

A responsive infant can have a foreign body obstruction removed from their airway using the back blow method, which is a life-saving emergency treatment.

Correct way to give 5 back blows is:

1) Approach an adult who is choking from behind and to the side. 

2) To provide support, cross one arm across the person's chest.

3) The upper body should be parallel to the ground as the person is bent over at the waist.

4) Use the heel of your palm to strike the person's back five times in succession between the shoulder blades.

Hence, Brianna should stand to the side and just behind Sarita when giving back blows.

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A nurse is caring for a client with blindness due to diabetic retinopathy. Which interventions should the nurse implement for this client?

Answers

The nurse should create a therapeutic and safe environment for the client who is blind while fostering as much independence as possible

What interventions should the nurse implement for this client ?

Offer the client an elbow for guidance while walking slightly ahead and describing the environment. Announce room entry and exit to orient and avoid startling the client

When caring for a client who is blind, the nurse should create a safe therapeutic environment and foster client independence by orienting the client to the surroundings, announcing room entry and exit

guiding the client by offering an elbow and walking slightly in front, using a clock-face description to orient the client to the location of objects, and asking the client directly about preferences.

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Which type of exercise contributes most to building strong bones?
CA. swimming
O B. lifting weights
C C. walking briskly
• D. jumping rope

Answers

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

The benefits of lifting weights include building muscle, burning body fat, strengthening your bones and joints.

He purpose of __________ law is to remedy a wrong done to a single injured plaintiff.

Answers

Answer: Tort law

Explanation:

The Tort law focuses on whether a person or persons failed to perform appropriately based on an individual relationship with the plaintiff that resulted in a wrong or injury.

Which act required the epa to enforce regulations designed to protect the general public from exposure to airborne health hazards?.

Answers

The Clean Air Act (CAA) required the EPA to enforce regulations designed to protect the general public from exposure to airborne health hazards.

What is The Clean Air Act (CAA)?The Clean Air Act (CAA) is the primary federal air quality law in the United States, with the goal of reducing and controlling air pollution across the country. It is one of the United States' first and most prominent modern environmental laws, having been passed in 1963 and updated numerous times subsequently.The Clean Air Act, like many other key federal environmental acts in the United States, is administered by the United States Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) in collaboration with state, local, and tribal governments. To carry out the mandates of the law, the EPA creates numerous administrative regulations. Regulatory programs are frequently technical and sophisticated.The Clean Air Act (CAA) mandated that the EPA implement laws aimed at protecting the general public from airborne health dangers.

As it is given in the description, the Clean Air Act (CAA) mandated that the EPA implement laws aimed at protecting the general public from airborne health dangers.

Therefore, the Clean Air Act (CAA) required the EPA to enforce regulations designed to protect the general public from exposure to airborne health hazards.

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chose one of the following movement strategies in a game of basketball
defending against attack
creating, defending, and exploiting space
setting up attack
attacking opposition basket and scoring
and state a movement sequence involved in this strategy. then explain 2 quality of movement principles (speed accuracy force timing ect.) needed to perform this skill effectively. you must use secondary sources.

Answers

When creating, defending, speed and timing is required to ensure that space is completely exploited.

What is spacing in Basketball?

Spacing in Basketball is a strategy employed by the attacking team to spread out maximally in a basketball court in order ensure that the players stand the best chances of scoring points when attacking.

Speed and timing is required to ensure that space is completely maximized.

In conclusion, the movement strategies in basketball include creating, defending, and exploiting space.

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Which activity best demonstrates a nursing unit manager's attention to ana standards for ethics required of that position?

Answers

Membership on the institutions ethic board.

Ana's code of ethics developed as a guide for carrying out nursing responsibilities in a manner consistent with quality in nursing care and the ethical obligations of the profession.

There are numerous approaches for addressing ethics these includes adopting or subscribing to ethical theories, including humanist, feminist, and social ethics, adhering to ethical principles, and cultivating virtues. The Code of Ethics for nurses reflects all of these approaches. The word "ethical" and "moral" are used throughout the Code of Ethics.

The Code of Ethics for nurses is a dynamic document. The ANA's Code of Ethics for Nurses guides ethical decision-making. There are four main principles of ethics:- autonomy, beneficence, justice, and non-maleficence.

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What are two ways to tell if bleeding is life-threatening?

Answers

Answer:

If the blood is spurting or steady flowing AND if it is dark red or bright red

The two ways to tell if bleeding is life-threatening are to check if it is spurting or pulsating blood or steady slow flow blood and whether it is bright red color or dark red color blood.

The purting or pulsating blood is usually bright red in color. It can be life-threatening. The steady slow flow blood is usually dark red in color. It can be potentially life-threatening.

In cases of severe bleeding, direct pressure should be applied immediately to the wound with any clean material which is available at the time. Pressure should be continued until the bleeding is controlled. The wound above the affected person's heart should be elevated. The person should be lying down with the legs elevated.

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A client has taken steroids for 12 years to help manage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (copd). when making a home visit, which nursing assessment is of greatest importance to this client?

Answers

When making a home visit, checking the temperature of the client is of greatest importance to this client with COPD taking steroids.

Checking the client's temperature is crucial. The most frequent cause of respiratory discomfort is infection. Patients with COPD who are taking corticosteroid maintenance doses are especially vulnerable to infection. For this client who is taking steroids, temperature measurement is more crucial than pulse rate for baseline and ongoing assessments. Evaluation of turgor and skin tone is less significant.Oral corticosteroids have been proven to cause severe unfavorable side effects in patients with stable COPD, including myopathy, respiratory muscle weakening, and osteoporosis.

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Which people or institutions have the right to use electronic health records?

a. friends
b. pharmacies
c. support groups
d. medical blogs

Answers

The answer is pharmacies

Answer:

The answer to the question is,
B. pharmacies


hope this helps and have a good day^^

U.s. prisons are ill-equipped to treat inmates with mental disorders because they?

Answers

Prisons are ill-equipped to treat inmates with mental disorders because serious mental illness has become so prevalent that there are not enough staff in prison to do so.

What is Serious mental illness in  jails?

Serious mental illness has become so prevalent in the US corrections system that jails and prisons are now commonly called “the new asylums.” In point of fact, the Los Angeles County Jail, Chicago’s Cook County Jail, or New York’s Riker’s Island Jail each hold more mentally ill inmates than any remaining psychiatric hospital in the United States. Overall, approximately 20% of inmates in jails and 15% of inmates in state prisons are now estimated to have a serious mental illness. Based on the total inmate population, this means approximately 383,000 individuals with severe psychiatric disease were behind bars in the United States in 2014 or nearly 10 times the number of patients remaining in the nation’s state hospitals.

With this information, we can conclude that Serious mental illness has become so prevalent in the US corrections system that jails and prisons are now commonly called “the new asylums.”

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Skyler uses a surgical procedure that rina might encojnter with her clients is_____, which removes the epiderrmal layer and requires a recovery period

Answers

Skyler uses a surgical procedure that Rina might encounter with her clients is dermabrasion, which removes the epidermal layer and requires a recovery period.

After dermabrasion, your new skin will be sensitive and red.

Swelling will begin to decrease within a few days to a week, but can last for weeks or even months.

It might take about three months for your skin tone to return to normal.

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What can cause attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?
A. low levels of gamma-amino butyric acid
B. low levels of serotonin
C. low levels of endorphins
D. low levels of acetylcholine

Answers

Low levels of gamma-amino butyric acid can cause attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). option A

What is hyperactivity disorder?

Hyperactivity disorder can simply be defined as chronic or serious condition including attention difficulty, hyperactivity and impulsiveness.

So therefore, low levels of gamma-amino butyric acid can cause attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

Therefore, the cause of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is low levels of gamma-amino butyric acid.

The correct answer is option A

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A 67-year-old man was found to have a plasma calcium level of 12.2 mg/dL during a follow-up visit. The man had a 3-year history of Hodgkin lymphoma. He was recently diagnosed with nephrolithiasis for which he had been treated with hydrochlorothiazide forthe past 3 weeks. Which of the following best explains the most likely mechanism of thiazideinduced hypercalcemia?

a. Activation of the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger in the distal tubule
b. Increased Ca2+ reabsorption in the proximal tubule
c. Decreased secretion of parathyroid hormone
d. Decreased renal excretion of vitamin D
e. Activation of Na+/K+/2Cl− symporter in the thick ascending loop of Henle
f. Increased glomerular filtration of Ca2+

Answers

Activation of the Na+/Ca2+ exchanger in the distal tubule is the most likely mechanism of thiazide hypercalcemia

Thiazide-hypercalcemia is a well-known clinical condition. By inhibiting the thiazide-sensitive NaCl transporter in the distal convoluted tubule, which is closely related to calcium transport, thiazides cause an increase in sodium excretion.

Thiazides hypercalcemia decreases urine calcium levels while raising blood calcium levels via promoting calcium reabsorption from the luminal membrane into the interstitium in exchange for sodium. High calcium levels are a well-known adverse effect of thiazide hypercalcemia diuretics including hydrochlorothiazide (Microzide) and chlorthalidone, which are used to treat high blood pressure. By blocking calcium from being discharged in the urine, which can also result in kidney stones, these drugs can boost calcium levels.

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