The question is kind of confusing but from what I understand; missense mutations happen when an amino acid is changed to another amino acid. To find out more specifically, look at a codon chart trust me it helps so much lol (just search codon chart and go to images). missense mutations can also cause a premature stop codon so look for a changed amino acid and a stop codon when u look at the codon chart. maybe if u see the different pairs you can get a more specific answer. I hope this helps :)
Describe the unique anatomical features of cardiac muscle. What role does the unique structure of cardiac muscle play in its function
Answer:
The cardiac muscle is made up of branched muscle cells, which have 1 or 2 nuclei and which the contact area between the heart fibers gives rise to specialized regions at the level of the plasma membrane called intercalary discs. The intercalary discs unite the cardiac muscle cells with each other, which provides greater adhesion to the tissue and intervenes in the rapid communication between cells. This allows its simultaneous contraction and the production of the beat.
Explanation:
The intercalary discs are the union systems that associate the cardiac muscle cells to form the myocardial fibers, the cardiac muscle is the muscle tissue of mixed components, which is located exclusively in the walls of the heart. For this reason, it has the function of generating the necessary contractions for the blood to reach all parts of the body.The intercalary discs are a special type of intercellular junction, a gap that guarantees electrical communication between these cells; and on the other hand, it provides places of adhesion and anchorage of one cell with another. The intercalary discs provide the structural foundation that allows the heart to behave as a functional syncytium.
HELP ASAP!!!! 50 points!!
In this task, you’ll record the direction of a compass as it’s placed at different points around a magnet. The investigation will try to answer the question, Do two magnets create magnetic force fields that allow them to interact without touching?
Part D :
How might someone dispute the results of this investigation? How might you counter the argument?
Answer:
It could be argued that there is a separate force acting upon the investigation. Or that the room is invalidating the results for some reason. Or that an error was made in measurement.
There are a thousand and one ways to try to dispute an investigation like this. However, for every argument that can oppose it, a counterargument can easily be made.
For instance, controlling the variables invalidates about 90% of any possible claims to the contrary. The majority of arguments would stem from the fact that it is nearly impossible to completely prove something in fear of external factors. The solution? Control the external factors.
So, in conclusion, a person could dispute the results of the investigation by claiming that something invisible like magnetics could not possibly be proven to exist, because there are all sorts of things that could be influencing the investigation. The way to counter the argument would be to prove yourself that the environment is controlled, and that nothing could be influencing the investigation.
Answer:
guy ontop is correct
Explanation:
A true reversion occurs when the wild-type DNA sequence is restored to encode its original message by a second mutation at the same site or within the same codon. Which of the following isoleucine codon(s) could be mutated once to form a methionine codon, and then mutated at a second site to restore an isoleucine codon?
A. AUC.
B. AUU.
C. AUA.
D. None of these codons.
Answer:
The correct answer is option d- none of these.
Explanation:
The genetic code for methionne is AUG and genetic code for isoleucine are AUC, AUA, AUU. As we can see that there are first two codons are similar for both methionine and isoleucine.
So mutation at to any other site other than third psostion not possible that can convert isoleucine to methionine and this same mutation site is the only mutation position mutation can revere back methionine to isoleucine.
Thus, none of the given can restore an isoleucine codon.
10.
All of the following are examples of specialized cells except
Answer:
Zygote
Explanation:
what is the function of bile
Answer:
Bile breaks down fats into fatty acid during digestion.
Answer:
Bile helps with digestion. It breaks down fat into fatty acids. Which can be taken into rhe body by the digestive tract. Bile contains:mostly cholesterol
The Gram stain provides a lot of clinically useful information but it won’t give you all the information you need for identification and treatment. About which of these do you NOT learn anything from the Gram stain?
Answer: d) The ability of the bacteria to process nutrients.
Explanation:
Incomplete question.
Options,
a) Structure of the cell wall b) Bacterial morphology c) Susceptibility to antimicrobial drugs d) The ability of the bacteria to process nutrients.
Gram staining is a type of differential staining to study bacteria, and is used to see cell morphology and to differentiate between gram-positive bacteria that appear violet and gram-negative bacteria that appear pink or red.
To perform the staining, fix the samples with methanol for one minute or heat and add a dye called crystal violet and wait one minute. Then rinse with water and add lugol for one minute. Then add acetone alcohol for 5-30 seconds. At this point, gram-negative bacteria discolor while gram-positive bacteria do not. After this, a contrast staining is performed by adding safranin or basic fuchsin for one minute. This stain will turn the gram-negative bacteria pinkish-reddish.
Crystal violet is a cationic dye that penetrates all bacteria through the bacterial wall. Lugol is a compound consisting of iodine and potassium iodide and acts as a mordant. The iodine enters the bacteria and forms an insoluble complex with the crystal violet, causing the crystal violet to bind more strongly to the bacterial cell wall. The added alcohol and acetone are used for decolorization, since the iodine/violet crystal complex is soluble in the alcohol and acetone. Thus, gram-positive bacteria do not decolorize, while gram-negative bacteria do.
A contrast stain such as safranin or fuchsin is used to highlight gram-negative cells. After contrast staining, gram-negative cells are pink or red, while gram-positive cells remain purple.
The wall of gram-positive bacteria consists of about forty layers of peptidoglycan which does not allow alcohol to pass through it because it is very thick, while that of gram-negative bacteria consists of a single layer of peptidoglycan. These differences cause gram-positive bacteria to retain the violet color and gram-negative bacteria to discolor.
So, with this type of staining we can certainly see the structure of the cell wall, because those that retain the violet dye even after treatment with a decolorant are gram-positive (many layers of peptodoglycan) and those that easily lose the first dye and take up the second are gram-negative (single layer). It also gives us an idea of the shape and morphology, which when stained will be visible under the microscope.
It also informs us about susceptibility to antibiotics, since some act only on gram-positive bacteria and others only on gram-negative bacteria. For example, gram-positive bacteria are sensitive to beta lactamase/penicillinase and gram-negative bacteria are susceptible to broad-spectrum penicillins such as piperacillin. However, this type of staining will not tell us about the bacteria's ability to process nutrients, because that is not a process related to the structure of the cell wall.
Which of the following events contributes to the termination of a signal generated by the binding of a ligand to a receptor tyrosine kinase? Only one answer is correct
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
2. Kinases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
3. Kinases phosphorylate key residues.
4. The receptor tyrosine kinase dimerizes.
5. GTPase removes a phosphoryl group from GTP.
6. Phosphatases phosphorylate key residues.
Answer:
1. Phosphatases hydrolyze key phosphorylated residues.
Explanation:
Receptor Tyrosine Kinases (RTKs) are high-affinity transmembrane protein receptors that bind to a wide variety of ligands (e.g., growth factors, cytokines, hormones). These receptors (RTKs) have a transmembrane domain and therefore these proteins act as membrane receptors, as well as exhibit catalytic activity. The intracellular C terminal region of RTKs contains catalytic domains responsible for both autophosphorylation and tyrosine phosphorylation of their protein substrates. Moreover, Protein Tyrosine Phosphatase (PTPs) are critical enzymes that remove phosphate groups from tyrosine residues in different substrates (including RTKs), thereby regulating key signaling pathways such as cell proliferation, cell differentiation, and cell-cell adhesion.
why your 21st century sophisticated, how do you explain the role of the plant in the change of the air in the jar
Answer: The gas of Fire constrains the atoms that make up oxygen in the air. Plants release oxygen, and take in carbon dioxide.
The phylogenetic tree above represents the three domains of organisms on our planet. According to this tree, organisms in domain Eukarya are closer related to organisms in domain Archaea. Organisms in kingdom Eukarya can be distinguished from organisms in kingdom Archaea by which of the following distinctions?
Group of answer choices
The presence of ribosomes for protein synthesis.
The use of a cell wall for protection and support
The presence of a nucleus in their cells
The storage of genetic material in DNA molecules.
Answer:
The storage of genetic material in DNA molecules.
The suprachiasmatic nuclei enable the nervous system to respond to daily light/dark alterations through their stimulation of
Answer:
The suprachiasmatic nuclei enable the nervous system to respond to daily light/dark alterations through their stimulation of melatonin.
Explanation:
Melatonin is a hormone produced naturally by the body. Its function is to regulate the body's circadian cycle. This hormone is stimulated and begins to act by changing between a light environment and a dark environment. This stimulation interacts with the suprachiasmatic nuclei making the nervous system understand this change and luminosity of the environment and respond to the action of melatonin.
Which of the following is the best definition of anaerobic respiration?
Answer:
C.
Explanation:
Anaerobic respiration is a process of cellular respiration. In this type of cellular process of respiration, oxygen is not needed to break down complex food substances such as glucose. Energy is generated in the process which is used for other cell functions.
Therefore, the answer is C.
In the diagram below, which part of the human brain coordinates balance, movement, and other muscle functions so that the body moves smoothly? A B C
Answer:
c
Explanation:
c is the cerebellum
b is the spinal chord
a is parietal lobe
Por qué algunas enfermedades se padecen solo una vez?
Answer:
por que a mi saber, cuando te infectas con una enfermedad viral al contagiarte y después sanar tu cuerpo crea anticuerpos que estos asu vez hacen que seas inmune a ese virus y otras veces las enfermedades son erradicadas con la vacunación.
What is the term that refers to a deep divide between tissues of the brain?
Gyrus
fissure
sulcus
fusior
Answer:
fissure!
Explanation:
Whic type of graph would you use if you wanted to see if one variable had an affect on another variable?
A scatter plot or scattergram chart will show the relationship between two different variables or it can reveal the distribution trends. It should be used when there are many different data points, and you want to highlight similarities in the data set.
Answer:
line
Explanation:
A line graph is used to see if there is a relationship between variables.
what's the target cells of melatonin?
Explanation:
The suprachiasmatic nucleus appears as a target of melatonin in mammals.The pineal hormone may thus be involved in a feedback loop of the mammalian photoneuroendocrine system.
________________ best summarizes how Durkheim's approach to religion differed from that taken by Wallace.
Answer:
Durkheim underscored the common, public, and all-encompassing nature of religion. It also speaks to the definitions that it embodies and how it causes people to emote.
Explanation:
Durkheim is a sociologist of french origins who believed that society was more powerful than the individual.
This according to him, was so because society is held together by ideas that resonate across more than one individual. These ideas show up like norms, beliefs, and values which are subscribed to by many thus creating a collective consciousness. This collective consciousness makes it easy to predict how people generally are likely to behave either as a people or an individual.
Cheers
Which of the following requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions?
Core integration
Postural development
Dynamic balance
Neuromuscular strength
Answer:
Postural development
Explanation:
The agonist muscles are sets of muscles responsible for causing joint motion, whereas antagonist muscles are muscles that directly opposite agonist muscles (i.e., antagonist muscles generate an opposing joint torque to the agonist muscles). In a given movement, agonist muscles exhibit concentric contractions while antagonist muscles show eccentric contractions in order to stabilize the joint. Postural development is achieved by concerted adjustments of dorsal muscles and ventral muscles. The dorsal muscles are activated when the body sways forward and the muscle fascicles shorten. During backward sway, these muscles lengthen, while ventral muscles are primarily activated.
Dynamic balance is the condition that requires constant agonist-antagonist muscle contractions.
The agonist-antagonist muscle contraction is the movement where one muscle contracts while the other muscle is relaxing or lengthening. The muscle contracts are agonist whereas the muscle that relaxes is the antagonist here.
Core integration: In such conditions, the constant movement of muscle contraction and relaxation does not require. It is a specific movement and increased stability of the movements.Postural development: continuous development and growth of postural muscles comprising the nervous systemDynamic balance: It would be the ability to balance in motion or changing positions. In this case, muscles require constant both agonist and antagonist contractionsNeuromuscular strength: motor commands according to the central nervous system to the ability to move in the nervous system, hence it does not require constant muscle movements.Thus, the correct answer is - Dynamic balance.
Learn more about dynamic balance:
https://brainly.com/question/10275827
A muscle that is stimulated so frequently that the relaxation phase is eliminated is said to exhibit _______. Question 13 options: tetanus recruitment treppe wave summation
Answer:
tetanus
Explanation:
Tetanus causes a strong tonic contraction in skeletal muscles. This triggers a series of intermittent, progressive, and extremely painful muscle spasms. Tetanus is presented by patients who have stimulated a muscle too often, without allowing a moment of rest.
130 and 14C are isotopes of 12C, which has 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 6 neutrons. What is the arrangement of subatomic particles in 14c?
A. 6 electrons, 7 protons, and 6 neutrons.
The correct answer is C. 6 electrons, 6 protons, and 8 neutrons.
Explanation
An isotope is a type of atom that is characterized by having a nucleus with a different number of neutrons. Additionally, isotope atoms are those that have the same number of protons in the nucleus (in the case of carbon 6 protons), but different mass numbers. In the case of the isotope of carbon, it has 8 neutrons (2 more neutrons than the regular carbon) and 6 protons in the nucleus, that is, that its mass is 14 (6 protons + 8 neutrons equals 14). According to the above, the correct answer is C.
Provide details about Meiosis.
Explanation:
a type of cell division that results in four daughters cells each with half the numbers of chromosomes of the parent cell , as in the production of gametes and plant spores
predators are... a. primary producers b. primary consumers c. secondary consumers
Answer:
Primary consumers
They eat the majority of prey
Some pink flamingos are not flying birds. Therefore, it is false that all pink flamingos are flying birds.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
B
Explanation:
Answer:
its false.
hope it helps
stay safe healthy and happy...If you took a sample of magnetotactic bacteria from the northern hemisphere to the southern hemisphere, would you expect them to survive
Answer:
Yes.
Explanation:
Yes, magnetotactic bacteria can survive in the southern hemisphere if the suitable environment is available for them. These bacteria requires freshwater and marine habitats and prefer environments that contain little to no oxygen means anaerobic conditions. This type of environment is also present in the southern hemisphere so we can conclude that this bacteria can survive in that environment.
Why did Mendel use pea plants in his experiments?
Answer:
For Gregor Mendel, pea plants were fundamental in allowing him to understand the means by which traits are inherited between parent and offspring. He chose pea plants because they were easy to grow, could be bred rapidly, and had several observable characteristics, like petal color and pea color.
Explanation:
#carryonlearning
The extinction vortex represents the idea that even if an organism is extant, it may have a gene pool that will not support its long-term survival.A. TrueB. False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
Extinction vortex is a model used by scientists to understand extinction dynamics within a community. This model allows scientists to assess and understand how a population can become highly vulnerable to elements of its habitat, becoming increasingly apt for extinction. According to this model, any organism is capable of extinction, as all are susceptible to having a gene pool that will not allow its survival, regardless of the environment.
what must be true about two objects if heat is flowing between them
Answer:
The objects must be the same temperature.
Explanation:
if heat is flowing between two objects, so both the objects must have the same temperature because the heat in object 1 passes to the object 2 due to the conduction property present in these objects. The heat flows from one body to another body until both have the same amount of heat energy as well as temperature so that's why we can say that both objects must be the same temperature.
A mutation is identified in a tumor sequencing study. Which of the following pieces of evidence would most strongly suggest that the mutation is a passenger mutation?
a. The same gene is mutated in many other individuals with the same kind of cancer.
b. The mutation impacts the function of a known tumor suppressor gene.
c. The mutation is a silent point mutation in a protein-coding sequence.
d. The gene carrying the mutation is known to participate in the cell cycle.
Answer:
The mutation is a silent point mutation in a protein-coding sequence.
Explanation:
A mutation is a change or alteration in DNI sequences that introduce new variants. Many of these are eliminated, but some of them might succeed and be incorporated into each individual. Mutations can be damaging or beneficial.
There are two types of mutations in cancerous cells:
· Driver mutations, which refer to genetic changes that provide malign cells an adaptative advantage. These mutations drive the cells to tumoral evolution.
· Passenger mutations, also known as neutral mutations, refer to those that do not provide any advantage nor disadvantage to the cancerous cell. These mutations can be between DNI segments where the driver mutations are. Some of these passenger mutations might become driver mutations with time.
explain water cycle with the help of diagram
Explanation:
The water cycle is defined as a natural process of constantly recycling the water in the atmosphere. It is also known as the hydrological cycle or the hydrologic cycle. During the process of the water cycle between the earth and the atmosphere, water changes into three states of matter – solid, liquid and gas.hope it helps.stay safe healthy and happy...Fill in the blanks: Antibodies are produced by _______________________________________ and bind to specific ________________________________ on erythrocytes, causing ________________________________, or clumping of erythrocytes.
Answer:
Antibodies are produced by _white cells__ and bind to specific _antigens_ on erythrocytes, causing __agglutination__, or clumping of erythrocytes.
Explanation:
Macrophages are one of the different types of cells that intervene in the organism's defense system against strange substances and pathogen agents. These cells are the principal actors in the immune response.
Macrophages have several functions. They are the principal phagocytes of tissues, capable of recognizing different strange molecules that penetrate the organism, such as bacterias, parasites and, viruses. Macrophages phagocyte these substances and eliminate them, a process known as phagocytosis. When macrophages are activated, they release cytokines that favor inflammation response, which is used to neutralize the pathogen agent. When macrophages phagocyte strange substances, they show the antigens in their surfaces to be recognized by lymphocytes.
Antigens are defined as the strange substances that enter the organism and trigger a series of cellular events that produce defense mechanisms. Antibodies recognize antigens as invaders.
In the organism, there are leucocytes or lymphocytes (white cells) in charge of immune defense. These are B cells, which produce antibodies, and T cells that can destroy infected cells from the body. They all circulate in the blood.
Antibodies are globular proteins produced by lymphocytes in response to the presence of strange molecules. Each type of antibody recognizes and combines with a particular antigen, immobilizing it. After that, the antigen is destroyed by other components of the immune system.