A nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a bronchoscopy. Which of the following is the nurse's monitoring priority? A. Palpating peripheral pulses B. Auscultating heart sounds C. Confirming the gag reflex D. Measuring blood pressure

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

C. Confirming the gag reflex

Explanation:

:)


Related Questions

Jane goes to an all-you-can-eat restaurant and makes three trips to the buffet. After finishing food from her third trip, she felt sick and throws up. Which of the following economic explanations best matches Jane's situation? a. Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third place was positive but less than that of the second plate. b. Jane's marginal benefit from her third trip to the buffet was larger than her marginal benefit from her second trip c. Jane was charged extra for the third plate at the buffet. d. Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third plate was negative.

Answers

Answer: a

Explanation:

i d k

Final answer:

Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third plate of food at a buffet was negative because she became sick after eating, which indicates a decrease in satisfaction or utility.

Explanation:

In the given scenario, the concept of marginal benefit in economics is highlighted, which is the additional satisfaction or utility that a person receives from consuming an extra unit of a good or service. In Jane's case, the term eating extra food at a buffet serves as an analogy for this concept.

The correct answer to this situation is - d. Jane's marginal benefit from eating the third plate was negative. This is because, after her third trip to the buffet, she didn't derive any additional satisfaction or benefit but instead felt sick. This suggests that her marginal benefit at the third plate was indeed negative.

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Is socioeconomic disparity a health disparity ?I am doing a project and I am confused.The teacher asked me to pick a health indicator and a health disparity . Would HIV prevalence work for a health indicator and would socioeconomic status work for the disparity or am I wrong ?

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Answer:

I think that you are correct; however, it might be best to check with your teacher or your peers (if your teacher is scary) if that would be possible.

Hope this helps :)

Fill The Blank, Charles Whitman was called the Texas Tower murderer. He was a student who went to the University of Texas at Austin in the late 1960s. One day, for unexplained reasons, he climbed the tower in the middle of the campus and began randomly shooting people. He had to be killed. Upon autopsy, it was found that there was evidence of abnormal activity in his __________________.

Answers

He had to be put to death. His amygdala showed signs of unusual activity, according to an autopsy.

The Texas Tower killer was Charles Whitman. He attended the University of Texas in Austin as a student in the late 1960s. He once ascended the campus' central tower for unknown reasons and started killing people at random. Two regions of the brain, the amygdala and hippocampus, are crucial for emotion, memory, and behavior. The almond-shaped amygdala is a brain region that plays a role in processing emotions like fear and rage. The medial temporal lobe contains a curving structure called the hippocampus that is crucial for the development and maintenance of memory.  The processing of emotional memories and the control of emotions are tasks shared by the amygdala and hippocampus.

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cheryl wants to find out if stretching before exercise causes people to have less injury during exercise. the best way to answer this question would be to use .

Answers

Answer:

Explanatwhat do you need again

After teaching a group of community health nursing students about the trends affecting occupational and environmental health nursing, the instructor determines that more teaching is needed when the students identify which of the following as a trend?
A) Continued escalation of health care costs
B) Upturn in the global economy
C) Increase in worldwide competition
D) Increase in technologic hazards

Answers

Answer:

B. Upturn in the global economy is the answer.

Explanation:

When a women in a persistent vegetative state was told to imagine playing tennis, and fMRI of her brain showed increased activity in motor areas of her cortex, similar to what healthy volunteers showed.
True or false

Answers

True. When a woman in a permanent vegetative state was instructed to picture herself playing tennis, her fMRI revealed increased activity in the motor regions of her cortex, much like what was seen in healthy volunteers.

People who are in a vegetative state regularly go to sleep and wake up, and their eyes open as well as move, but usually they are completely incapable of thinking or acting consciously.True. When a woman in a permanent vegetative state was instructed to picture herself playing tennis, her fMRI revealed increased activity in the motor regions of her cortex, much like what was seen in healthy volunteers.

A vegetative state is characterised by wakefulness but not much awareness, while a coma is characterised by very low wakefulness as well as awareness.

Patients with severe brain damage who are in a persistent vegetative state (PVS) as well as post-coma unresponsiveness (PCU) have a disorder of consciousness in which they experience partial arousal rather than full awareness.

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degrees of freedom refer to the number of independent components in a control system and the number of ways each component can vary

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A control system's freedom levels refer to the amount of independent ways each element can operate.

The number of distinct variables which can be estimated in a data analysis is known as the degrees of freedom. These variables' values are not constrained, but if the data set is to meet the estimate parameters, the values do impose limitations on other variables. Graduations of Freedom Problem. a control problem that arises during the design of a complicated system that must produce a particular outcome; the design challenge is to figure out how to limit the system's numerous degrees of freedom because it can accomplish the desired outcome. A GMP is defined by a specific set of traits called invariants, which do not change from one performance.

(_____ refers to independent components of a control system and the number of ways each component can function.)

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Medical offices rely on their support roles to function smoothly. Which of the support roles discussed in the lessons seem the most important and why?

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All support roles in a medical office are important, but the most crucial role is arguably that of the medical administrative assistant, as they are responsible for managing the day-to-day operations and ensuring the smooth flow of work in the office.

What are support roles in a medical office?

The importance of different support roles in a medical office can vary depending on the size and complexity of the office, as well as the specific needs of the patients and healthcare providers. However, some support roles that are typically considered critical in medical offices include:

Medical billing and coding specialists: They ensure that the medical office is accurately reimbursed for services provided to patients, which is critical for the financial stability of the office.

Medical receptionists: They are often the first point of contact for patients, and play a crucial role in scheduling appointments, managing patient flow, and maintaining patient confidentiality.

Medical records technicians: They maintain accurate and complete medical records, which are essential for providing high-quality patient care and protecting the confidentiality of patient information.

Medical assistants: They perform a variety of clinical and administrative tasks, such as taking patient vital signs, preparing exam rooms, and assisting healthcare providers with patient care.

Clinical support staff: This can include licensed practical nurses, certified nursing assistants, and other healthcare providers who assist with patient care and perform important clinical tasks.

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Which of the following is not representative of the Dietary Guidelines recommendations for meal planning?
incorporating several servings of plant sources of protein per week
selecting low-fat dairy choices over high fat
eliminating all fruits to lose weight
consuming whole grain breads and cereals

Answers

It is not suggested in the Dietary Guidelines to eliminate all fruits from your diet if you're trying to lose weight.

Take in lots of fruits and vegetables. Use a minimum amount of ghee, butter, and vanaspati, and make sure to use moderate amounts of animal products and edible oils. To avoid being overweight and obese, don't overeat. To maintain a healthy weight, exercise frequently and stay physically active.It is not suggested in the Dietary Guidelines to eliminate all fruits from your diet if you're trying to lose weight. For the body to function properly and to maintain overall health, there are six types of nutrients that are necessary. These include lipids, proteins, lipids, water, vitamins, as well as minerals. The diet-planning principles of sufficiency, balance, calorie (energy) control, nutrient density, moderation, as well as variety are crucial ideas in deciding on a healthy diet. Energy (kilojoules), protein, total fat, fat content, total carbohydrates, sugars, and sodium must all be listed on the nutritional information panels of all foods.

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how many deaths does heart disease and cancer combined cause

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697,000 from heart disease and 609,360 deaths from cancer are expected to occur in the US.

How does heart disease lead to death?

The most prevalent form of heart disease, coronary heart disease (CHD), claims the lives of over 382,820 people each year. Around 805,000 Americans experience a heart attack each year.

Risk factors for sudden death include any illness that stresses the heart or harms its tissue. Young persons may experience the following conditions that might cause sudden cardiac death: an enlarged heart muscle (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy).

Therefore, in the United States, heart disease claims the lives of about 697,000 people annually or 1 in every 5 fatalities.

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Benner describes five stages of nursing proficiency as students develop into expert nurses. Which of the following is not a stage of development described by Benner? A. Novice B. Expert practitionerC. Inexpert beginnerD. Competent practitioner

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Option C, Patricia Benner is a nursing theorist who developed the concept of "From Novice to Expert." She described five stages of nursing proficiency practitioner as students develop into expert nurses.

The five stages are novice, advanced beginner, competent practitioner, proficient practitioner, and expert practitioner. The novice stage is characterized by a lack of experience and knowledge. The advanced beginner has nursing acquired some knowledge and is able to apply it in practice, but still lacks the experience to handle complex situations. The competent practitioner has more experience and can nursing consistently apply their knowledge to various situations. The proficient practitioner has acquired the necessary knowledge, skills, and judgement to handle complex cases. The expert practitioner is highly knowledgeable and skilled and can provide advanced level care, acting almost instinctively.

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Selection is a term used by communication theorists to describe the determination of causes and effects in a series of interactions.
True or False?

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False. Through the use of four different types of schema to categorize information and punctuation, which is the identification of causes and effects in a sequence of interactions.

Chosen information must be ordered in some meaningful way in order to make sense of the universe. Communication theorists refer to the process of identifying causes and effects in a chain of encounters as selection. Attribution is when you judge your sibling to be lazy because he never arrives on time. The process through which populations of living things adapt and evolve is known as natural selection. A population's members are naturally varied, which means that they are all distinctive in some respects. This variety indicates that some people have characteristics that are more environment-friendly than others.

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A client presents to the Emergency Department with 30% total body surface area (TBSA) burns. The client weighs 176lbs. Use the Parkland Formula (4ml) to calculate the hourly rate for the first 8 hours.
600ml/hr
b. 1200ml/hr
c. 1760ml/hr
d. 2670ml/hr

Answers

A client present for the first eight hours, the hourly rate is 600 ml.

If you only need to calculate the infusion rate, or even the amount of medication to be infused per hour, divide the total volume in mL by the total number of hours the medication is to be infused over to get the percentage in mL per hour.

Utilize the equations below: Total volume (mL) x infusion time equals flow rate (mL/hr) (hr) Total volume (mL) x flow rate (mL/hr) equals infusion time (hr). One mL is infused per moment, or 60 mL per hour, if the rate is set at 20 drops per minute. The rate rises to 120 mL per hour if you double it to 40 drops per minute.A client present for the first eight hours, the hourly rate is 600 ml.

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I only have 8 minutes left

Answers

Answer:

I believe this is Piaget. I'm not sure though.

Explanation:

Muscle soreness associated with strenuous exercise is at least partly due to: A. an excess of ATP that builds up during vigorous exercise. B. the presence of lactic acid produced during fermentation in muscle cells. C. the large amount of carbon dioxide that builds up in the muscle. D. the accumulation of alcohol from anaerobic respiration. E. None of the choices are correct.

Answers

The presence of lactic acid created during fermentation in muscle cells is at least partially responsible for the muscle soreness felt after intense activity.

What causes some of the muscle discomfort that follows a hard workout?

Muscle fatigue and soreness are caused by lactic acid accumulation. Anyone who has put in a hard exercise will be familiar with "feeling the burn," the state of exhaustion and discomfort that develops after repeatedly lifting heavy objects or running at full speed.

What happens when you exercise hard?

The heart beats faster when adrenaline levels are higher. Muscle capillaries widen, resulting in a 20-fold increase in blood flow. The ribcage muscles help the diaphragm pull in up to 15 times.

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Choose from the following options that describe Lymph nodes:
You are required to select 3 correct options.

1. Contains bone marrow for the production of white blood cells

2. Produces the hormone insulin for blood glucose regulation

3. Being found in various parts of the body such as throat, armpits, chest, abdomen
and groin.

4. Trap bacteria for lymphocytes to attack and kill.

5. Tend to swell if you have an infection

Answers

Answer: The following describe Lymph nodes:

Contains bone marrow for the production of white blood cells; Produces the hormone insulin for blood glucose regulation; Being found in various parts of the body such as throat, armpits, chest, abdomen and groin,

Explanation: The lymphatic system, which is a component of the immune system, is made up of tiny, bean-shaped structures called lymph nodes. They are dispersed throughout the body and are essential for filtering lymph, a fluid that travels throughout it, as well as for spotting and reacting to invading objects like viruses and bacteria.

Lymph nodes contain white blood cells, including T and B cells, which help to fight infection and disease. Swelling of the lymph nodes can be a sign of infection or other medical condition.

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During the early part of the twentieth century, the biological disease model of mental problems led to?
a. the belief that mental illness had no physical basis.
b. improved treatments.
c. more controlled research methods.
d. eugenics and segregation.

Answers

During the early part of the twentieth century, the biological disease model of mental problems led to improved treatments and more controlled research methods.

During the early part of the 20th century, the biological disease model of mental problems gained popularity and led to significant changes in the way mental illness was understood and treated. This model emphasized the idea that mental illness was a physical disease, with causes rooted in the brain and nervous system. This led to the development of new treatments, such as psychotherapy and psychoactive medications, and to more controlled research mental problems, including the use of standardized diagnostic tools and outcome measures. This approach helped to destigmatize mental illness and led to improved care for those suffering from mental health problems. However, the biological disease model of mental illness also contributed to the eugenics and segregation of people with mental illness, which is a dark chapter in the history of mental health treatment.

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which of the following is considered a transient complication? group of answer choices A) burning on injection B) nerve damage C) hematoma D) anaphylaxis

Answers

C. Hematoma. Clinically speaking, subdural hematomas can occasionally resemble TIAs. Similar to scenario one, people with subdurals may have previously experienced head trauma that they may or may not remember.

We discuss three cases where subdural hematomas were later discovered after being first diagnosed with, treated for, and tested for TIAs. A thorough neurologic assessment is necessary for patients who have symptoms similar to TIAs. Aside from heart attacks, migraines, seizure disorders, and mass lesions, the differential diagnosis for TIAs also includes arteriosclerotic extracranial vascular disease, cardiac emboli, and migraine. Before starting a treatment programme, it is important to identify the cause of the symptoms because the prognosis and treatments vary. Prior to beginning anticoagulant medication, specific diagnoses must be ruled out.

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stan has been diagnosed as having a substance use disorder. the therapist explains to stan that the disorder severity is considered mild. based on the criteria for rating levels of severity of substance use disorders, stan would have ____ symptoms.

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Stan would have two or three symptoms. ( A physical or mental problem experienced by a person that may indicate an illness or condition. )

What is the nature of symptoms?

There are three main types of symptoms:

Recurrent symptoms: When symptoms improve or disappear completely, they are called remission symptoms. For example, cold symptoms can last for several days and go away without treatment. Chronic symptoms:

These are long-lasting or recurring symptoms.

What is the distinction among signs and symptoms and complications?

Common cold symptoms include a runny nose and sneezing, but these can also be symptoms of allergies. Complications are the unfavorable consequences of disease. Complications usually occur as the disease worsens. Complications can cause someone to the experience certain symptoms.

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Which of the following conditions is frequently monitored using a point-of-care instrument?
A) chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
B) diabetes mellitus
C) renal failure
D) septicemia

Answers

The most common causes of chronic dyspnea are pulmonary asthma, COPD, heart failure, and interstitial lung disease.

Describe asthma?

Allergies, air pollution, and other air irritants, other medical disorders, such as respiratory illnesses, exercise and physical exercise, weather and ambient temperature, intense emotions, and some medications are among the most frequent asthma triggers. a long-term illness that causes the  airways of the lungs to shrink and swell, making breathing challenging. Wheezing, coughing, chest tightness, breathlessness, and fast breathing are some of the symptoms.

Describe pollution?

 Natural pollutants include volcanic ash, for example. Humans can also produce them.

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Of the following spirometry results, which are associated with obstructive pulmonary disorders? Select all that apply.
Reduced forced vital capacity
Reduced forced expiratory volume in 1 second
Reduced total lung capacity
Reduced ratio of forced expiratory volume in 1 second to forced vital capacity
Increased total lung capacity

Answers

A restrictive lung condition is seen when the FEV1/FVC ratio is normal but the FVC is lowered. Pulmonary fibrosis and infections like pneumonia can be among them.

What does a decreased FVC mean?

Features of the test While a normal ratio implies normal spirometry or restrictive limitation, a lowered FEV1/FVC ratio shows airflow blockage.

A lower FEV1/FVC ratio points to an obstructive condition like COPD or asthma.

What distinguishes obstructive from restrictive spirometry defects?

Conditions that make it difficult to completely evacuate the air in the lungs are considered obstructive lung disorders. Patients with restrictive lung disease have trouble filling their lungs with air completely. The predominant symptom of both restrictive and obstructive lung disease is shortness of breath when exerting oneself.

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Suppose you want to estimate the percentage of people who got a flu vaccine who did not get the flu. You take a sample of 100 people who got the flu vaccine Match the following:
A. variable
B. parameter
C. population
D. statistic
E. sample
F. individual

Answers

A. Variable - The characteristic being measured (for example, whether a person got the flu or not)

B. Parameter - A numerical value that describes a population (for example, the population proportion of people who got the flu despite getting the vaccine)

What inform the matchings of other factors?

C. Population - The complete set of individuals or objects of interest (for example, all people who got the flu vaccine in a certain time period)

D. Statistic - A numerical value calculated from a sample (for example, the sample proportion of people who did not get the flu despite getting the vaccine)

E. Sample - A subset of individuals or objects selected from a population (for example, 100 people who got the flu vaccine and were chosen for the study)

F. Individual - A single element of a population or sample (for example, one person who got the flu vaccine and was included in the sample)

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The study on ethical decision-making models for nursing students built on related studies of:

A) Hepatitis C patients and child participants
B) AIDS patients and elderly participants
C) Hepatitis C patients and elderly participants
D) AIDS patients and child participants

Answers

The study on ethical decision-making models for nursing students built on the related studies of Hepatitis C patients and elderly participants. Thus, the correct option is C.

What is Ethical decision-making?

Ethical decision-making in nursing refers to the framework of nurses use in making informed decisions while evaluating the major outcomes of their actions. In the daily practice, nurses face many ethical issues such as health disparities, patient confidentiality, and informed consent as well.

As the health-care professionals, the doctors and nurses are guided by moral principles in the decision-making process, namely, autonomy, non-malfeasance, beneficence, justice, fidelity, and the veracity.

Therefore, the correct option is C.

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4. What safety interventions must you consider before ambulating Trudy?

Answers

Ensuring that Trudy has been properly assessed and cleared for ambulation by health care provider assessing  gait and mobility to ensure  has the ability to safely ambulate; Provision her with appropriate walking aids such as a cane or walker; ensuring that the environment is free from potential fall hazards;Provide adequate assistance from a caregiver or health care professional.

What is ambulation?

Ambulation is the medical term for walking or moving about. It is typically used to describe a patient's ability to walk independently, with or without assistance.It is the act of walking or moving around. It is a type of physical activity that is important for maintaining physical and mental health.

Ambulation can help to improve cardiovascular and muscular health, reduce the risk of falls, and improve balance, coordination, and posture. It can also help to reduce stress, improve mood, and increase energy levels.

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sample situation that illustrate inferential statistics

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In deductive statistics, you choose a sample of 11th graders at random from your state, and you gather information on their SAT scores and other traits.

What is inferential statistics?

Based on your sample data, you can use inferential statistics to estimate and test hypotheses about the entire population of 11th graders in the state.

T-tests that compare group averages, analyses of variance, correlation, and regression, and multidimensional modeling procedures, are a few examples of inferential statistics that are frequently used in survey data analysis.

Therefore, inferential statistics describe many ways to study samples of populations to suggest differences between those populations.

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Approximately what percent of men have reported being victims of drink spiking?
A. 5%
B. 1%
C. 11%

Answers

Answer: C 11%

I believe

if someone who suffers from allergies begins sneezing at the site of plastic flowers they are illustrating: if someone who suffers from allergies begins sneezing at the site of plastic flowers they are illustrating:

Answers

If someone who suffers from allergies begins sneezing at the site of plastic flowers, they are illustrating generalization.

Extraction of common characteristics from a group of things and subsequent creation of a generalized entity are both examples of generalization. In a bottom-up method, if two or more entities share some attributes, they can be generalized to a higher-level entity. The person has developed a generalized entity for the flowers and thus experiences sneezing even with the plastic flowers.

When your immune system reacts to a food or substance that typically doesn't trigger a reaction in most people, such as pollen, bee venom, or pet dander, allergies can develop. Antibodies are chemicals made by your immune system. Your immune system produces antibodies that label a specific allergen as hazardous even when it is not when you have allergies.

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Can animals lose their hearing from fireworks ?

Answers

Maybe? I think that animal’s eardrums are weaker than ours.
If the animal is close enough then yeah

a nurse completing discharge teaching with a client who has a permanent pacemaker. which of the following statements by the client is correct?

Answers

Option A) The client should avoid all sources of electromagnetic interference, such as cell phones and microwaves, who has a permanent pacemaker.

A permanent pacemaker is a medical device that uses electrical impulses to regulate the heartbeat and maintain a normal heart rhythm. The client microwaves should avoid all sources of electromagnetic interference, such as cell phones and microwaves, as they can interfere with the functioning of the pacemaker. Additionally, the client should also inform all healthcare providers about their pacemaker and follow the manufacturer's recommendations for care and maintenance to ensure its proper functioning.

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The complete Question is:

Which of the following statements by a client with a permanent pacemaker is correct, according to their discharge teaching with a nurse?

A) The client should avoid all sources of electromagnetic interference, such as cell phones and microwaves.

B) The client may resume all physical activities, including contact sports.

C) The client should avoid MRI scans at all costs.

D) The client should keep the pacemaker site dry and avoid getting it wet while showering or bathing.

Antiretroviral drugs have different mechanisms of action. Which action below is not a common antiretroviral mechanism?Facilitating exit from an infected host cell.Blocking the protease enzyme.Inhibiting entry to a potential host cell.Inhibiting the reverse transcriptase enzyme.

Answers

Mode of action of current ARVs: Blocks reverse transcriptase, a protease enzyme that interferes with copying of the HIV genetic code (NRTI; NNRTI), thereby preventing maturation of new virions (PI).

What is an instance of maturation?

During the maturation process, weight, height, weight gain, and muscle tissue enlargement are observed. As children grow, they develop motor skills and coordination, gate control, and gross and fine motor skills.

What is the human maturation?

Maturation is the developmental process that occurs as we grow and change. There are many types of maturity, such as physical maturity and cognitive maturity. Physical maturation occurs as our bodies grow and change with age. Cognitive maturity is the process of developing thinking as we grow.

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