17. According to the 2020 guidelines, what are the
recommended steps when giving CPR to cardiac arrest
patients?
A. Airway, Breathing, Chest compressions
B. Chest compressions, Airway, Breathing
C. Airway, Breathing, Check pulse
D. Check pulse, Airway, Breathing

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

the answer is A

Answer 2

The recommended steps when giving CPR to cardiac arrest patients according to the 2020 guidelines are: Chest compressions, Airway, Breathing.

The 2020 guidelines for CPR and ECC from the American Heart Association (AHA) recommend that lay rescuers begin CPR with chest compressions, followed by a check of the airway and breathing. This is because chest compressions are the most important thing that lay rescuers can do to help a person in cardiac arrest. Chest compressions help to circulate blood to the brain and heart, which can help to keep the person alive until professional help arrives.

Here is a more detailed explanation of the steps involved in CPR:

Call 911 or your local emergency number. This is the first thing you should do if you see someone collapse and is unresponsive.Begin chest compressions. Place the heel of one hand on the center of the person's chest and place the other hand on top of the first hand. Lock your elbows and lean forward, using your body weight to compress the chest by 2 inches. Compress the chest at a rate of 100 to 120 compressions per minute.After 30 chest compressions, check the airway and breathing. Tilt the person's head back and lift their chin to open the airway. Look for chest rise and listen for breathing. If the person is not breathing, give two rescue breaths.Continue chest compressions and rescue breaths in a ratio of 30:2 until help arrives.

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Related Questions

Isabel wants to sign up with the online social network teenbook, which she heard about from her friends at school.

Answers

Isabel should only provide her full name to best ensure her safety on the online social network TeenBook.

Isabel should only provide her full name to TeenBook to best ensure her safety. Providing any other information, such as her school, city of residence, age, and favorite foods, could potentially make her more vulnerable to online predators and other dangers. It's important for users to be cautious about the personal information they share on social network media and only provide the minimum amount necessary to maintain their privacy and security. Isabel should only provide her full name to best ensure her safety on the online social network TeenBook. It is not recommended to disclose personal information such as school, city of residence, age, and favorite foods to strangers or unknown entities online.

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The complete Question is:

Isabel wants to sign up with the online social network TeenBook, which she heard about from her friends at school.

The TeenBook site asked Isabel for some personal information to complete her registration.

In addition to her full name, TeenBook asked for the name of her school, the city where she lives, her age, and her favorite foods.

What is the only information that Isabel should give to best ensure her safety?

After teaching a group of students about the various settings for community health nursing, the instructor determines that this teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as an example of ambulatory service setting?
A) Local preschool
B) Halfway house
C) Continuing care center
D) Family planning clinic

Answers

Family planning centre The term "ambulatory service setting" refers to a range of locations where community health nurses provide daytime or evening services without requiring patients to stay overnight.

Describe nursing?

Nurses must do this by keeping an eye on the patient and recording any pertinent data to help with therapeutic decision-making. A qualified health care worker with expertise in maintaining and promoting health may work independently or under the supervision of a doctor, surgeon, or dentist. For further information, see licenced practical nurse, licenced vocational nurse, and registered nurse.

What do doctors do?

Doctors and surgeons identify and treat illnesses and injuries.

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3. Think of a way that you protect your health that has been influenced by information about
public health or public service announcements. What healthy habit do you have because of
information that you have received about it? Explain how vou learned about this issue and why
the message was so powerful

Answers

The  healthy habit I have because of information that I have received about public health or public service announcements is exercising regularly which is very ideal for the body system.

What is Exercise?

This is referred to as a form of physical activity which makes an individual to be fit and it also improves the overall well being and an example is running, weight lifting etc.

Exercises are important as it helps to improve the blood circulation in the body. The blood contains nutrients and  oxygen which ensures that the body cells are well nourished and able to function optimally thereby reducing the risk of various types of diseases or ilness.

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Compared to products made with whole grains, refined grain products _____ fiber, vitamins, minerals, and healthy fats.

Answers

Compared to whole grains, refined grains are lower in fiber, vitamins, minerals, and healthy fats.

What do whole grains contain compared to refined grains?

The fiber, nutrients, and phytochemicals found in whole grains improve insulin sensitivity, improve glucose metabolism, slow food absorption, and prevent blood sugar spikes.[8] Grains tend to be low in fiber and nutrients and high in glycemic index and glycemic load.

Do Whole Grains Mean More Fiber?

Fiber content varies by grain type, but in all cases, whole grains contain more fiber than refined ones. For example, 100 grams of whole wheat flour contains 10 to 12 grams of fiber, while the same amount of refined (white) flour has 2-3 grams of fiber.

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Which of the following statements is CORRECT about scientific method?1. Common sense is usually a good substitute for the scientific method when trying to understand the world.2. All of the above are correct.3. The scientific method can be used only to understand scientific phenomena.4. A hypothesis that does not generate a testable prediction is not useful.5.It is not necessary to make observations as part of the scientific method.

Answers

A hypothesis is useless if it does not lead to a tested prediction. In the scientific method, a hypothesis is made with the intention of testing it to determine its veracity.

A hypothesis is what?

A proposition for an explanation of an observable event or a testable assertion about the connection among a number of variables constitutes a scientific context.

A straightforward hypothesis just hypothesizes the link between two independent and dependent variables. Examples: When you stay up all night, you'll be worn out the following day. Your phone will charge more quickly if you turn it off.

A phenomena is what?

In a scientific setting, a phenomena is something that has been seen to happen or exist.

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Someone who separates from key parts of who they are in order to keep disturbing memories or perceptions from reaching conscious awareness suffers from ______ disorder.

Answers

Answer: Dissoactive amnesia

Explanation:

Ive seen it before

The nurse needs to verify feeding tube placement using the gastrointestinal (GI) pH measurement test. The NG tube placement was confirmed via x-ray 6 hours ago. After several attempts the nurse is unable to aspirate GI fluid from the tube. Thde tube is secure and the external marking of the tube are in the original place. The patient appears to be tolerating the tube feedings and is not experiencing any distress. What should the nurse do

Answers

If the nurse is unable to aspirate GI fluid from the feeding tube after several attempts and the patient appears to be tolerating the tube feedings and is not experiencing any distress, the nurse should follow the following steps:

Re-verify the tube placement using the x-ray: The nurse should obtain another x-ray to confirm the placement of the feeding tube as it may have been dislodged since the last x-ray was taken.
Assess the patient's vital signs: The nurse should closely monitor the patient's vital signs to ensure that there are no signs of distress or complications.
Check for blockages: The nurse should check the feeding tube for any blockages, such as mucus, clotted formula, or medication, and remove the blockage if necessary.
Consult with the healthcare provider: The nurse should immediately consult with the patient's healthcare provider for further guidance and recommendations.
It is important for the nurse to follow proper procedures and protocols to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient, and to report any unusual occurrences or changes in the patient's condition promptly.

Was this helpful ?
ANSWER-

In this situation, the nurse should take the following steps:

Assess the patient: The nurse should assess the patient for any signs of distress or discomfort and monitor vital signs to ensure that the patient is stable and tolerating the feeding tube.

Re-confirm tube placement: The nurse should re-confirm the tube placement using x-ray or another method, such as ultrasound or endoscopy.

Notify the physician: If there is any doubt about the placement of the feeding tube, the nurse should notify the physician immediately to request a re-evaluation and to determine the next steps.

Stop feeding: Until the tube placement is re-confirmed, the nurse should stop feeding and discontinue the feeding administration.
Document: The nurse should document the situation, including any attempts to aspirate and the results, the patient's response, and the actions taken.

It is important for the nurse to take appropriate action to ensure the safety and well-being of the patient and to prevent potential complications. In this case, re-confirming the feeding tube placement and notifying the physician are crucial steps to ensure that the patient receives the appropriate care.

The common thread or threads among the different definitions of burnout include
a. physical, but not mental, exhaustion
b. high feeling of personal accomplishment
c. impersonal responses to others
d. a and c
e. b and c

Answers

The common thread among the different definitions of burnout includes physical and mental exhaustion and impersonal responses to others (d. a and c).

Burnout is a state of physical, emotional, and mental exhaustion that can result from prolonged stress and intense work. It is characterized by feelings of detachment and emotional exhaustion, as well as a reduced sense of personal accomplishment. This can result in a decreased ability to cope with stress and a decrease in motivation. Burnout is often associated with a lack of energy and enthusiasm, as well as an increased sense of cynicism and detachment from others. Therefore, the common threads among different definitions of burnout include physical and mental exhaustion and an impersonal response to others, as opposed to high feelings of personal accomplishment.

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Mr. Masterson informs David that he has trouble lying flat on his back because of a previous injury from a car accident, and he does not think he will be able to lie flat for the ECG. How should David handle this situation?

Answers

If Mr. Masterson informs David that he has trouble lying flat on his back for ECG due to a previous injury from a car accident, David should suggest him semi-recumbent position.

How David describes ECG to Mr. Masterson?

David must give Mr. Materson a thorough explanation of the procedure of ECG.

When Mr. Masterson informs David that he has difficulty resting flat on his back because of prior damage from an automobile accident and that he does not believe he will be able to lie flat for the ECG, David must suggest that he be placed in a semi-recumbent position of around 45 tiers.

Therefore, David must suggest a semi-recumbent position.

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Which of the following activities best reflects a public health nurse's role in the public health function of assessment?
A)Prioritizing the issues of a community to determine appropriate interventions
B)Evaluating for potential safety hazards in a childcare center
C)Ensuring that children in a day care center are properly immunized
D)Working with officials to develop a program for solving a problem

Answers

Option (A). Prioritizing the issues of the community to determine the appropriate interventions activities best reflects a public health nurse's role in the public health function of assessment.

What are some examples of interventions?

Examples include tutoring, facilitator-led courses or workshops, one-on-one coaching, case management, electronic or telephone communication with participants, and maintaining competency of the implementing organization. A full description of the intervention should be: ready to use.

What are educational interventions?

In educational settings, intervention is often used to describe intensive classroom sessions that represent deviations from existing classroom practice. School interventions can be individual or group.

Why are the interventions used?

Effective early intervention prevents problems from occurring or addresses them head-on when they do occur, before they become worse. It also helps children develop a full range of personal strengths and skills that prepare them for adult life.

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Based on the sketchy history available for J.M., which assumption best identifies thepathophysiologic basis of her fluid and electrolyte imbalance?A)J.M. probably suffered a stroke and was unable to regulate her fluid intake appropriately as a resultof disorientation and confusion.B) J.M. lost sodium-rich fluid with vomiting and diarrhea. The water that J.M. drank further dilutedthe sodium concentration.C)J.M. lost isotonic fluid with the vomiting and diarrhea but caused a dilutional hyponatremia bydrinking too much water afterwards.

Answers

With vomiting and diarrhoea, B. J.M. lost fluid from the GI tract that was rich in sodium. J.M. further diluted the sodium concentration by drinking water.

Fluid imbalance can result from hypovolemia, hypervolemia, or normovolemia with fluid maldistribution. Trauma is one of the most frequent causes of hypovolemia, which is typically accompanied by a considerable amount of blood loss. Dehydration is another common cause, which primarily results in the loss of plasma rather than entire blood. Hypovolemia can result in reduced blood volume in the circulation, decreased venous return, and, in extreme situations, arterial hypotension. Based on current understanding of the pathophysiology of fluid imbalance, optimising blood oxygenation, perfusion pressure, and circulation volume should be the major goals of fluid management to maintain adequate oxygen delivery.

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The complete question is:

J.M. is an 83-year-old great-grandmother of five who is admitted to your clinical unit with a diagnosis of hyponatremia and fluid volume deficit. J.M. lives alone since her husband died 3 years ago. Her daughter lives nearby but is very busy working and taking care of her own grandchildren. The daughter found her mother lying on the living room couch very confused and disoriented. There were several empty bottles of water lying on the coffee table. J.M. is unable to state how long she has not been feeling well, but her daughter states that her mother has been complaining of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for 1 week.

1. Based on the sketchy history available for J.M., which assumption best identifies the pathophysiologic basis of her fluid and electrolyte imbalance?

a. J.M. lost isotonic fluid with the vomiting and diarrhea but caused a dilutional hyponatremia by drinking too much water afterwards.

b. J.M. probably suffered a stroke and was unable to regulate her fluid intake appropriately as a result of disorientation and confusion.

c. J.M.'s nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea activated the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, causing the release of aldosterone that further exacerbated J.M.'s fluid deficit.

d. J.M. lost sodium-rich fluid (gastrointestinal [GI] tract) with vomiting and diarrhea. The water that J.M. drank further diluted the sodium concentration.

which of the following items would be an example of useful expert testimony when writing a persuasive speech about the importance of universal access in health care?

Answers

Answer:

Information quoted from leading physicians in the American Medical Association report on universal access in health care

Explanation:

HELP PLEASE !!!!!!
During a forehand volley, step 5 includes taking a short jab step forward with a follow through to the keep the racquet in front of you.

Question 1 options:
True
False
Question 2 (3 points)
When striking a pitched ball, you should ___

Question 2 options:

A. have a shoulder width stance
B. hold the bat above your dominant shoulder
C. have your eyes on the pitcher
D. all of the above

Question 3 (3 points)
Saved
When dribbling a basketball, you should use the palm of your hand.

Question 3 options:
A. True
B. False
Question 4 (3 points)
Saved
When pivoting in basketball, you must keep one foot grounded at all times.

Question 4 options:
A. True
B. False
Question 5 (3 points)
Which of the following is NOT a key component to dribbling a soccer ball?

Question 5 options:

A. keeping your toe down
B. locking your ankle
C. make solid contact with the ball with the heel of your shoe
D. your non-dominant foot should be behind you for balanice

Answers

Answer:

True and a and c and b and b and d i think

Explanation:

The answer to question 1 is "true", the answer to question 2 is "D" which is all of the above in pitched ball, the answer to question 3 is "false" ,the answer to question 4 is "false." and the answer to question 5 is, "Your non-dominant foot should be behind you for balance." (D).

What is the significance of the soccer ball?

Dribbling involves controlling the soccer ball with the feet while moving around the field, and players must keep their toes down and lock their ankles to maintain control of the ball.

Hence, the answer to question 1 is "true", the answer to question 2 is "D" which is all of the above in pitched ball, the answer to question 3 is "false" ,the answer to question 4 is "false." and the answer to question 5 is, "Your non-dominant foot should be behind you for balance." (D).

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_________ is unintentional bipolar question, Yes (no) question, tell me everything question, open to closed question, double-barreled, unintentional leading, guessing question, curious question, too high or too low, and the don't ask and don't tell question.

Answers

Respondents are only asked for one piece of data, which is quite limiting. closed, two-sided question There can only be two polar replies.

Bipolar disorder what is it?

Extreme emotional mood fluctuations are a sign of bipolar disorder, formerly known as manic depression.Bipolar disorder is a brain ailment that affects a person's ability to function, energy, and mood. Patients with bipolar disorder experience intense emotional episodes, often known as mood swings, that typically last a few days to a few weeks.

what is the disorder?

A disorder is a group of problems that severely interferes with a person's capacity to go about their everyday lives and causes them difficulty, distress, handicap, and/or suffering. A mental disorder is defined as a cognitive, emotional, or behavior disability that is medically serious.

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A man arrives at the ED with a superficial injury to the scalp (length 1 cm) and a deep laceration to the right hand (length 5 cm). List the ICD-10-CM codes.
A. S61.411A, S00.00XA
B. S61.412A, S01.01XA
C. S61.432A, S00.01XA
D. S61.442A, S01.01XA

Answers

The correct answer is B - S61.412A, S01.01XA. S61.412A represents the code for the superficial injury to the scalp, and S01.01XA represents the code for ICD-10-CM the deep laceration to the right hand.

The "X" in the codes represents the seventh character extension, which is used to indicate the initial encounter for a treatment of an injury. The "A" at the end of the codes represents the episode of care, with "A" indicating that this is the first time the patient has been treated for the injury. It's important to note that ICD-10-CM codes are constantly updated, and the codes provided in this answer are accurate as of my knowledge cutoff of 2021. It's always best to check with the most current version of the ICD-10-CM codes to ensure the accuracy of your coding.

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Those who actively make choices to improve their health and quality of life, such as eating right and exercising, are practicing _________.

Answers

Wellness. ( Wellness is about practicing healthy habits every day to improve your physical and mental health so that you not only survive but thrive. )

What are 7 types of Wellness?

Wellness is commonly seen in seven dimensions.

mentally, physically, socially, economically, spiritually, environmentally and professionally. These dimensions are interdependent and influence each other. When one aspect of her of our happiness is out of balance, other aspects are affected.

Why Wellness Matters ?

Overall physical health promotes a balance between physical activity, diet, and mental health to keep your body in top shape. can be encouraged.

What is the key to Wellness?

A quick overview: Wellness is maintained by paying attention to your daily life on four levels.

physical, mental, emotional and spiritual health. There are 5 simple keys or exercises to achieve this.

Self-love, breathing, positive choices, balance, trust.

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the experience of blindsight in certain people who have suffered brain damage best illustrates the importance of our normal human capacity for?

Answers

The experience of blindsight in certain people who have suffered brain damage best illustrates the importance of our normal human capacity for Dual processing of visual information.

Blindsight refers to the phenomenon where a person is unable to consciously see an object or process visual information in a specific part of their visual field, but their actions and behavior suggest that they are unconsciously Dual processing the information. This highlights the role of unconscious processing in our blindsight visual perception and shows how important it is for our normal visual functioning. Dual processing refers to the idea that the human mind uses two separate cognitive processes to process information, which operate in parallel and often interact with each other.

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The complete Question is:

The experience of blindsight in certain people who have suffered brain damage best illustrates the importance of our normal human capacity for____________

_______ training is a type of exercise training that includes repeated sessions of high-intensity exercise alternated with periods of lower-intensity exercise.

Answers

The HIIT training is a type of exercise training that includes repeated sessions of high-intensity exercise alternated with periods of lower-intensity exercise.

HIIT stands for High Intensity Interval Training. In this kind of exercise training, the body undergoes two alternating sessions which have high intensity (high energy requiring) and low intensity (comparatively lesser energy needed which cools down/ relaxes the body) exercises are included.

It provides cardiovascular strength, improves core of the body and stamina as well. It is used for quick weight loss and abs gaining. It increases the heart rate of the person significantly. HIIT forces your body to use energy from fat as opposed to carbs.  

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After the carbohydrates, what category label would you give to the fiber and
vitamins? Why?

Answers

Fiber will be listed as directly covered carbohydrates because fiber is contemplated as a form of carbohydrate.

What food label is fiber on?

If you're observant of the amount of fiber on a nutrition facts label, first find carbohydrates on the nutrition facts label. You will find the number of carbohydrates pinpoint near the bottom of the label. Fiber is a type of carbohydrate that the body can't digest. Though most carbohydrates are broken down into sugar particles called glucose

Complex carbohydrates, or polysaccharides, consist of hundreds or even thousands of monosaccharides

So we can conclude that Fiber is a type of indigestible carbohydrate.

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In water (H2O), there are two atoms of hydrogen (H) and one atom of oxygen (O) per molecule. The atomic mass of hydrogen is approximately 1.008 g/mol and the molecular mass of water is approximately 18.015 g/mol.

To calculate the grams of hydrogen in 10.05 grams of water, we need to first determine the number of moles of water present:

moles of water = mass of water / molecular mass of water

moles of water = 10.05 g / 18.015 g/mol

moles of water = 0.5575 mol

Since there are two hydrogen atoms in each molecule of water, the number of moles of hydrogen is twice the number of moles of water:

moles of hydrogen = 2 x moles of water

moles of hydrogen = 2 x 0.5575 mol

moles of hydrogen = 1.115 mol

Finally, we can calculate the grams of hydrogen by multiplying the number of moles of hydrogen by the atomic mass of hydrogen:

grams of hydrogen = moles of hydrogen x atomic mass of hydrogen

grams of hydrogen = 1.115 mol x 1.008 g/mol

grams of hydrogen = 1.12352 g

Therefore, there are approximately 1.12352 grams of hydrogen present in 10.05 grams of water.

What is  hydrogen?

Hydrogen is a chemical element with the symbol H and atomic number 1. It is the lightest and most abundant element in the universe, constituting roughly 75% of all baryonic mass. Hydrogen is a colorless, odorless, and tasteless gas that is highly flammable.

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A 20-year-old female is applying for nursing school and is required to be tested for immunity against several illnesses. Testing that looks at which of the following would be the best to determine immunity?
a. Culture and sensitivity
b. Agglutination
c. Precipitation
d. Titer

Answers

D) A higher titer identifies the existence of more antibodies. The phrase "titer" refers to the amount of antibodies existing in a serum sample. By nurse examining the organism's culture and sensitivity to an antibody, one can decide what sort of infection-causing agent that is present.

Agglutination or precipitation are not terms used to describe an examination to determine immunity.Some of these methods include immunohistochemistry (IHC), antigen start seizing enzyme-lined immunoassay test (ELISA) (ACE), and immunofluorescence. Viral antigens were discovered in samples of nasal swab tissue, basically the entire blood supply, serum, milk, and BVDV-infected tissue. A higher titer identifies the existence of more antibodies. The phrase "titer" refers to the amount of antibodies existing in a serum sample. By nurse examining the organism's culture and sensitivity to an antibody, one can decide what sort of infection-causing agent that is present. This type of immunity is known as passive immunity so because infant has did receive antibodies instead of producing them on its own. Immune cells produce antibodies,

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according to the biopsychosocial model, when bella engages in risky behavior, her vulnerability to developing

Answers

The biopsychosocial model states that bella's susceptibility to exhibiting deviant behavioral inclinations increases as she engages in risky conduct.

What is meant by biopsychosocial?

The "biopsychosocial (BPS) model" focuses on the connections between social, psychological, and biological aspects. When applied to health, this approach highlights the value of maintaining healthy in all areas of our lives.

What are the biopsychosocial model's three facets?

The biopsychosocial approach methodically considers biological, psychological, and social components as well as the intricate connections among them in order to understand health, illness, and the delivery of healthcare. The biopsychosocial paradigm urges doctors to examine all pertinent biological, psychological, and social components that may be influencing the onset or maintenance of disorders like depression.

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Therapeutic communication skills can be applied to the nurse-patient relationship as well as nurse-nurse relationships. When communicating with a preceptor in a feedback situation, which of the following communication responses would be appropriate:
A) Asking multiple questions
B) Reflection
C) Probing
D) Anxious silence

Answers

Both the nurse-patient connection and nurse-nurse interactions can benefit from therapeutic communication techniques. as soon as speaking with a reflection preceptor.

A reflection is what?

When light reflects off a something, that is reflection. Its light will refract at the same angle as it struck a smooth, glossy surface, such as glass, water, or polished metal, recording your reaction to the experiences, opinions, events, or new knowledge.

Clarity – what is it?

The property of being transparent or clear to the sight; pellucidity clearness of pure water

Clarity equates to clarity. A mountain's stream of clear water possesses clarity. Similar to a beautiful singing voice, which is clean and pure, Clarity in a scenario aids in people understanding what actually transpired.

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mothers who do not consume enough calories during pregnancy actually might be putting their children at risk of being

Answers

Mothers who do not consume enough calories during pregnancy the child may be obese later in life.

What are food calories?

A calorie is the amount of energy released when the body breaks down (digests, absorbs) food. The more calories food has, the more energy it can provide to the body. When you consume more calories than you need, your body stores the extra calories as body fat. Even fat-free meals can have lots of calories.

What foods has high in calories?

Examples of high-calorie foods are:

Protein: Red meat, pork, peeled chicken (for health reasons, don't fry roasted or fried chicken), salmon or other fatty fish, beans, whole milk, eggs, cheese, full-fat yogurt. Carbohydrates: Potatoes, brown rice, whole grain pasta, whole grain, whole grain bread.

What exactly is 1 calorie?

A calorie was originally defined as the amount of heat required to raise 1 gram of water 1 degree Celsius at 1 standard atmospheric pressure. This calorie has been defined in joules since 1925, and since 1948 he has defined 1 calorie as approximately 4.2 joules.

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The assumption that cultures progress from under-developed to developed through structural and food culture changes is termed the _____.​a. social dynamic of modernizationb. developmental perspective of food culturec. consumer food choice modeld. globalizatione. urbanization

Answers

Answer:

a.) is correct

Explanation:

B) The term "developmental perspective of food culture" refers to the idea that societies move from being underdeveloped to being developed as a result of structural and dietary changes. ​

What does food culture's developmental perspective look like?

The Cultural Development of Food. In addition to having an impact on food, eating, and nutrition, social dynamics and trends also reflect societal structural changes. (Local to international organizations) Globalization = Commercialization (Indigenous to mass produced)

What does "foodways" mean?

Foodways comprise practices for producing, preserving, presenting, gathering, marketing (both buying and selling), and using food products for purposes other than eating.

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john muir, the yosemite, published in 1912 question the excerpt could best be used to explain the significance of which of the following historical situations?

Answers

The excerpt from John Muir's "The Yosemite" could best be used to explain the significance of the Hetch Hetchy Valley Dam Controversy.

In the excerpt, Muir passionately describes the beauty and value of Hetch Hetchy Valley, which was considered one of the most precious and sublime features of Yosemite National Park. He argues that the valley was in danger of being dammed and turned into a reservoir to provide water and light to San Francisco, a plan that he believed was commercially motivated and would result in the destruction of the valley. He Yosemite expressed disbelief that anyone would want to destroy such a beautiful and valuable natural resource and decried the use of bad arguments to justify the destruction of parks. Hetch Hetchy Valley excerpt highlights the conflict between those who valued nature for its aesthetic and recreational value, and those who saw it as a resource to be exploited for economic gain.

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The complete Question is:

"Hetch Hetchy Valley, far from being a plain, common, rock-bound meadow, as many who have not seen it seem to suppose, is a grand landscape garden, one of Nature's rarest and most precious mountain temples. . . . The sublime rocks of its walls seem to glow with life, whether leaning back in repose or standing erect in thoughtful attitudes, giving welcome to storms and calms alike, their brows in the sky, their feet set in the groves and gay flowery meadows, while birds, bees, and butterflies help the river and waterfalls to stir all the air into music. . . .

"This most precious and sublime feature of the Yosemite National Park, one of the greatest of all our natural resources for the uplifting joy and peace and health of the people, is in danger of being dammed and made into a reservoir to help supply San Francisco with water and light, thus flooding it from wall to wall and burying its gardens and groves one or two hundred feet deep. This grossly destructive commercial scheme has long been planned and urged . . . because of the comparative cheapness of the dam. . . .

"That anyone would try to destroy [Hetch Hetchy Valley] seems incredible; but sad experience shows that there are people good enough and bad enough for anything. The proponents of the dam scheme bring forward a lot of bad arguments to prove that the only righteous thing to do with the people's parks is to destroy them bit by bit as they are able."

John Muir, The Yosemite, published in 1912

The excerpt could best be used to explain the significance of which of the following historical situations?


Describe how you incorporated the three elements of positive interaction that promoted the individual’s participation in the activity

Answers

Incorporating the three elements of positive interaction to promote an individual’s participation in an activity would require providing positive reinforcement and giving feedback.

How to incorporate the elements of positive interaction ?

Provide regular positive reinforcement, such as praise and recognition, to individuals who participate actively and positively. Engage individuals by giving them a role and responsibilities in the activity, creating opportunities for collaboration and teamwork, and making sure that everyone has a voice.

Provide regular and specific feedback on the individual's performance and potential for growth, helping them to understand their strengths and areas for improvement.

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keith, a clothing store owner, offers product suggestions to customers based on their current purchases. which of the following is keith targeting to increase?

Answers

Keith, the clothing store owner, is targeting to increase repeat business by offering product suggestions to customers based on their current purchases.

By making personalized suggestions based on a customer's current purchases, Keith is showing that he values their individual tastes and preferences. This can lead to increased customer satisfaction, as the customer feels that their needs targeting and wants are being taken into consideration. Additionally, offering relevant product suggestions can encourage customers to return to the store for future purchases, which is the primary goal of increasing repeat business. Offering product suggestions also has the potential to increase sales of related products, but this would be a secondary benefit. Keith is not likely to be targeting to increase product returns, as his goal is to provide value to the customer and encourage them to return for future purchases.

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The Complete Question is:

Which of the following is Keith, a clothing store owner, targeting to increase through offering product suggestions to customers based on their current purchases?

A) Customer satisfaction

B) Product returns

C) Repeat business

D) Sales of unrelated products

disorder characterized by anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape might be difficult?

Answers

Answer: social anxiety

Explanation:

It may be hard to be around people, but its worse to be alone.

Which of the following youth groups has shown a continued increase in the rate of obesity, while other groups have shown stabilization in the obesity rate in recent years

Answers

The youth group that has shown a continued increase in the rate of obesity while other groups have shown stabilization in the obesity rate is the Hispanic youth group, as the obesity rate among Hispanic youth has continued to rise.

What is the significance of the Hispanic youth?

This youth group is highly associated with obesity, and this may be due to genetics, cultural attitudes, access to healthy food and physical activity, etc., but it leads to a range of health problems such as type 2 diabetes, cardiovascular disease, etc.

Hence, the youth group that has shown a continued increase in the rate of obesity while other groups have shown stabilization in the obesity rate is the Hispanic youth group, as the obesity rate among Hispanic youth has continued to rise.

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stella wants to give her baby the best start during prenatal development, so she is researching the latest findings on nutrition and teratogens. she's frustrated because the findings on caffeine

Answers

She's frustrated because findings on the caffeine have been mixed on whether it has ill effects.

What Does Caffeine Do in Your Body?

Caffeine is a stimulant and increases brain and nervous system activity. It also increases circulation of chemicals such as cortisol and adrenaline in the body. A small amount of caffeine keeps you refreshed and focused.

Is a caffeine good for health?

Such high levels of caffeine can cause serious health problems and even death. Caffeine consumption may be safe for adults, but it is not a good idea for children. Adolescents and young adults should be careful about consuming too much caffeine or mixing caffeine with alcohol or other drugs. is needed.

Is caffeine drug or alcohol?

caffeine is (pronounced: ka-FEEN) a drug because it stimulates the central nervous system and increases alertness. Caffeine gives most people a temporary boost of energy and improves their mood.

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