You are playing a game called Tsunami Duck Pond. In Tsunami Duck Pond there are 100 ducks that get pummeled by tidal waves. You have to reach your hand into the tsunami and select a duck. If there is a star on the bottom of the duck, you win. The game claims to have 20 ducks with stars among the 100 ducks. After each round you must place the duck back in the tumultuous water. Let W=the number of times you win if you play this game 10 times.

a. Explain why Wis a binomial random variable.
b. Find the probability that you win exactly 3 times.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

a) W is a binomial random variable because in each trial there are only two possible outcomes, and the probability of a success is always the same.

b) 0.2013 = 20.13% probability that you win exactly 3 times.

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

a. Explain why W is a binomial random variable.

For each time a duck is selected, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it has a star, or it does not. Also, after a duck is selected, it is placed back in the water which means that in each trial, the probability of finding a duck with star is the same. This is why W is a binomial random variable.

b. Find the probability that you win exactly 3 times.

Let W=the number of times you win if you play this game 10 times.

This means that [tex]n = 10[/tex]

The game claims to have 20 ducks with stars among the 100 ducks.

This means that [tex]p = \frac{20}{100} = 0.2[/tex]

We have to find P(X = 3). So

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 3) = C_{10,3}.(0.2)^{3}.(0.8)^{7} = 0.2013[/tex]

0.2013 = 20.13% probability that you win exactly 3 times.

Answer 2

W is a binomial random variable because in each trial there are only two possible outcomes, and the probability of a success is always the same.

There is 20.13% probability that you win exactly 3 times.

Given that,

In Tsunami Duck Pond there are 100 ducks that get pummeled by tidal waves.

The game claims to have 20 ducks with stars among the 100 ducks.

Let, W = the number of times you win if you play this game 10 times.

We have to determine,

Explain why W is a binomial random variable.

Find the probability that you win exactly 3 times.

According to the question,

A duck is selected, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it has a star, or it does not. Also, after a duck is selected, it is placed back in the water which means that in each trial, the probability of finding a duck with star is the same. This is why W is a binomial random variable.

To find the probability that you win exactly 3 times.

Let, W=the number of times you win if you play this game 10 times.

Therefore,

The game claims to have 20 ducks with stars among the 100 ducks.

Then, The probability that you win exactly 3 times is,

[tex]P(X =x) = \ ^nC_x \times P^{x} \times (1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

When, x = 3 and n = 10

Therefore,

[tex]P(X =3) = \ ^{10}C_3 \times (0.2)^{3} \times (1-0.2)^{10-3}\\\\P(X =3) = \ ^{10}C_3 \times (0.2)^{3} \times (0.8)^{7}\\\\\\P(X =3) = \dfrac{10!}{7!. 3!} \times 0.008 \times 0.20\\\\P(X=3) = 0.2013 = 20.13 \ percent[/tex]

There is 20.13% probability that you win exactly 3 times.

To know more about Probability click the link given below.

https://brainly.com/question/23270039

 


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The cost of staying in a hotel is given by the formula C=50d+20, where C is the cost in £ and d is the number of days a person stays. Find the cost of staying for:
a) 6 days
b) 2 weeks
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Answers

Answer:

a) £320

b) £720

c) 2 days

Step-by-step explanation:

The question is all about inputting values and finding a result or rearranging and finding a result.

a) d = 6. C = 50(6)+20      = 320

b) d = 2x7 (7 days a week)  C = 50(2x7) + 20     = 720

c) C = 120 ... 120 = 50d+20

100 =50d      d = 100/50      = 2

, 4), perp. to y=-2x - 4​

Answers

Answer:

+1/2

Step-by-step explanation:

If the slope of the given line is -2, the slope of a line perpendicular to the given line is the negative reciprocal of -2, or +1/2.

Help please! Could you explain it too?

Answers

Answer:

a. Not proportional

b. Proportional;

k = ⅞

Step-by-step explanation:

A proportional relationship is usually represented in the format, y = kx. k here represents constant of proportionality. This shows that x and y are directly proportional.

a. y = -2x + 9 is not a proportional equation.

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81^3x÷3^4x=729 solve for x

Answers

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

x=45816 , 1.89552335

Answer:

Answer:

x=0.333333,−0.333333

Step-by-step explanation:

(813)(x) /3^4

x=729

Simplifies to:

6561x2=729

Let's solve your equation step-by-step.

6561x2=729

Step 1: Divide both sides by 6561.

6561x^2 /6561 =  729 /6561

x2= 1 /9

Step 2: Take square root.

x=±√ 1 /9

x=0.333333,−0.333333

Are these teams?
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Answers

no there are not like teams
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Answer with explanation, one doesn’t have a variable

)) How many solutions does this equation have?
12 + 4t - 14t = -13t - 18

Answers

Answer:

t = -10

Step-by-step explanation:

Ok so,

12 - 10t = -13t -18

12 - 10t + 13t = -13t + 13t - 18

12 + 3t = -18

12 - 12 + 3t = -18 - 12

3t = -30

t = -10

hope this helps! have a good day!

Tony invests $3,000 dollars in an account earning 12% interest per year. How long will it take
him to make $3960 dollars in simple interest?

3 years
5 years
8 years
11 years

Answers

Answer: 11 years

Step-by-step explanation: 3960 divided 12%= 33,000 divided 3000=11

Answer: it will take 11 years

The tolerance limits for a circuit breaker are Amperes. This means that any circuit breaker that breaks at an amperage less than 39.5 breaks at too low a level and any that breaks at an amperage greater than 40.5 breaks at too high a level. If a shipment of circuit breakers possesses break points that are normally distributed with mean 39.3 and standard deviation 0.2, then what percentage of the shipment is defective

Answers

Answer:

84.13% of the shipment is defective

Step-by-step explanation:

When the distribution is normal, we use the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the zscore of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Normally distributed with mean 39.3 and standard deviation 0.2

This means that [tex]\mu = 39.3, \sigma = 0.2[/tex]

What percentage of the shipment is defective

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Less than 39.5:

This is the pvalue of Z when X = 39.5. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{39.5 - 39.3}{0.2}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex]

[tex]Z = 1[/tex] has a pvalue of 0.8413.

Greater than 40.5:

1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 40.5. So

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]Z = \frac{40.5 - 39.3}{0.2}[/tex]

[tex]Z = 6[/tex]

[tex]Z = 6[/tex] has a pvalue of 1

1 - 1 = 0

Total:

0.8413 + 0 = 0.8413

84.13% of the shipment is defective

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Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

First, you put the equation into the standard “slope/intercept” form.

4x -y = 2 subtract 4x from both sides ; -y = -4x + 2 Multiply by -1 :

y = 4x - 2

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Answer:

y = 4x + 1

Step-by-step explanation:

first put the equation 4x-y=2 into the form y = mx + b where m is the slope and b is the y-intercept (for example, y = 2x - 1 would have 2 is the slope and -1 is the y-intercept)

4x - y = 2

subtract 4x from both sides

-y = -4x + 2

multiply both sides by -1

y = 4x - 2

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-3 = -4 + b

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Answers

Answer:

$43,618

Step-by-step explanation:

Find the price of the car after this price increase.  Multiplying $38,600 by 1 yields the original price, whereas multiplying it by 0.13 yields the price increase.  Thus, we can answer this question by multiplying $38,600 by 1.13:

$38,600*1.13 = $43.618.  This is the price for which the dealer sells the car.

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Answers

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Step-by-step explanation:

3-8+(12x + 12)+2y=

-5+(12x +12)+2y=

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps! :)

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

Answer:

360°

Step-by-step explanation:

Based on what I know that the total of degrees has to be 360°. So, two sides of the rhombus have to have two acute angles and two obtuse angles. So, the  Image shows that the 63° is an acute angle. So, multiply 63 by 2 which is 126. Then subtract 126 from 360 which is 234. Then, divide 234 by 2 which is 117. Lastly, add 63 with 63 and 117 with 117 which is 360.

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Answers

Answer:

angle a is 110

angle B is 110

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Answers

Step-by-step explanation:

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its obtuse. Hope this helps :)

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Answers

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Answers

Answer:

c = 14.9 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

Applying the Law of Sines, we would have the following:

c/sin(C) = b/sin(B)

c = ??

C = 180 - (150 + 12) = 18°

b = 10 cm

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c = (10*sin(18))/sin(12)

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Answers

Answer:

15.87%

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given;

x¯ = 33

μ = 43

σ = 10

Let's first find the z-score from the formula;

z = (x¯ - μ)/σ

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Answers

Answer:

60 grams

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

That would be 18.45 and that’s my answer

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Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

You are correct.

Answer:

Complementary

Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

Answer:

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Step-by-step explanation:

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Answers

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Have a nice day!

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