The organization that would make reimbursement payments directly to the insured individual for covered medical or health expenditures is B. Commercial insurer.
The conclusion is that a commercial insurer is the organization that would directly reimburse the insured individual for covered medical expenses. This type of insurer provides health insurance coverage to individuals or groups and typically follows a fee-for-service model, where the insured individual receives medical services and then submits a claim for reimbursement to the insurer.
Administrative-services-only (ASO) plans, preferred provider organizations (PPOs), and health maintenance organizations (HMOs) operate differently in terms of reimbursement. ASO plans are typically arrangements where an organization, such as an employer, self-insures its employees and contracts with a third-party administrator to handle administrative tasks, but the reimbursement is not directly made to the insured individual. PPOs and HMOs generally have specific networks of healthcare providers and may offer discounted rates or require copayments or coinsurance from the insured individual, rather than providing direct reimbursement.
In summary, when it comes to reimbursing the insured individual for covered medical expenditures, a commercial insurer is the organization that would typically make direct reimbursement payments.
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Complete Question:
Which of the following organizations would make reimbursement payments directly to the insured individual for covered medical expenditures?
A. Administrative-services-only plan
B. Commercial insurer
C. Preferred provider organization
D. Health maintenance organization
Which client is considered at risk for skin alterations?
Answer: People who don't wear sunscreen or are around a lot of radiation.
Explanation: I am 99% sure that is the right answer.
Pressure, shear, and friction from immobility put an individual at risk for altered skin integrity. Patients who are overweight, paralyzed, with spinal cord injuries, those who are bedridden and confined to wheelchairs, and those with edema are also at highest risk for altered skin integrity.
What signs of magnesium toxicity will the nurse look for improvement in, to tell that the antidote is effective?
The symptoms and signs and symptoms of magnesium sulfate toxicity (ie. hypotension, areflexia (lack of DTRs), respiratory depression, respiration arrest, oliguria, shortness of breath, chest pains, slurred speech, hypothermia, confusion, circulatory fall apart).
Calcium gluconate: the antidote for magnesium toxicity is calcium gluconate 1 g IV over 3 mins. Repeat doses may be essential. Calcium chloride also can be used in lieu of calcium gluconate. The counseled dose for calcium chloride for magnesium toxicity is 500 mg of 10% calcium chloride IV given over 5-10 mins.
Magnesium sulfate and calcium channel blocking off drugs as antidotes for acute organophosphorus insecticide poisoning - a systematic assessment and meta-analysis.
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Infection with which apicomplexan has been associated with fecal-contaminated drinking water?
Answer:
we used a more water to drink like two later a day
Which strategies could be used to reverse the current trend occurring in the United States? Check all that apply.
Bicycle
Explanation:
bicycle safety advocacy programs includ e policies and car drivers and bicycle drivers educational efforts to provide safety
Radiographic findings for copd include:______.
a. an abnormally white lung field.
b. an abnormally wide mediastinum.
c. an abnormally black lung field.
d. widespread mixed radiodensities.
Answer:
C
Explanation: I think this is right
What two activities relate to the "evaluation" aspect of critical thinking? estimating the severity of a problem breaking down the problem into parts finding the source of the problem determining the time needed to solve the problem generating alternatives to solve the problem
Evaluation in critical thinking involves:
estimating the severity of a problemdetermining the time needed to solve the problemWhat is evaluation in critical thinking?Evaluation in critical thinking refers refers to the ability or process of analyzing a given situation and making conclusion based on previous or similar situations.
In conclusion, during evaluation in critical thinking, it is important to estimate the severity of a problem, in order to determine the time needed to solve the problem.
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A growing trend in food advertising is to market heavily to?
Nutrition during childhood and adolescence is essential for growth and development, health and well-being.
What is food advertising and marketing ?The heavy marketing directed towards youth, especially young children, appears to be driven largely by the desire to develop and build brand awareness/recognition, brand preference and brand loyalty.
Marketers believe that brand preference begins before purchase behavior doesBrand preference in children appears to be related to two major factors: children's positive experiences with a brands parents liking that brand.Learn more about Food advertising here:
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Which of the following CANNOT be used to stablize blood sugar
when it falls below normal fasting level?
A. Dietary carbohydrates
B. Amino Acids
C. Liver glycogen
D. Stored fatty acids
Amino Acids cannot be used to stabilize blood sugar when it falls below normal fasting level and is denoted as option B.
What is Sugar?This is a substance which has a sweet taste and is derived when certain substances such as carbohydrates and fatty acids are broken down.
Protein when broken down results in amino acid which isn't involved in the metabolism of sugar thereby making it inappropriate.
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Which documentation in the health record is most correct for the third stage of labor?
Answer: Begins with the time of delivery of the fetus and ends with the time of the delivery of the placenta.
Explanation:
The documentation that is correct in the health record for the third stage of labor is it starts from the moment the fetus is delivered and finishes when the placenta is delivered.
The period after the baby is delivered but before the placenta of the mother is delivered is known as the third stage of labor. The placenta is naturally detached from the uterine wall, the umbilical cord stops beating, and the placenta travels through the birth canal during this last stage of labor. How quickly the placenta separates from the uterine wall and how well the uterine muscle contracts in the first few days after delivery determine how much blood is lost. To avoid postpartum hemorrhage, actively control the third stage of labor during obstetrical delivery. Active management entails early umbilical cord clamping and cutting, continuously controlled cord traction, and prophylactic injection of a uterotonic drug with the baby's delivery.
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If the infant weighs 2600 grams, and the order is for 185 mg/kg/day, what dose should be administered every 6 hours?
The dosage required for the baby is 120.25 mg/kg/ every 6 hours.
What dose should be administered to the baby?The dose to be administered every six hours is calculated as follows:
Dosage = 185 mg/kg/day
For a 2.6 kg baby, amount required = 185 * 2.6 = 481 mg/kg/day
For a six hours, amount required = 481 * 6/24 = 120.25 mg
Therefore, the dosage required for the baby is 120.25 mg/kg/ every 6 hours.
In conclusion, the dosage depends on body weight.
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Foodborne illnesses are most often caused by?
A range of bacteria, viruses, and parasites are to blame for the majority of foodborne illnesses, which are infections. Food contamination and foodborne illness can also be brought on by harmful poisons and chemicals.
What about foodborne illnesses?Politicians, journalists, and members of the foodservice industry are frequently quoted when claiming where foodborne diseases are most frequently exposed to consumers. It is frequently believed that the majority of foodborne diseases are brought on by eating food where meals are made to order, whether in restaurants or households.The norovirus is the most typical cause of foodborne illness in the United States. Watery diarrhea, gaseousness, vomiting, and flu-like symptoms are brought on by the virus.The majority of cases of foodborne disease are caused by microbial contamination (bacterial, viral, or parasite contamination).When someone becomes ill after ingesting tainted food or drink, they are said to have a foodborne sickness. It is also known as food poisoning, foodborne illness, and foodborne infection. Foodborne disease is thought to be brought on by more than 250 substances.Learn more about foodborne illness here:
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Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and systemic allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem?
Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and systemic allergic reactions can cause loss of tone and it also has different similar features with a type of cardiovascular problem.
What is Loss of tone?This is the referred to as the degree of constriction by a blood vessel such as artery etc relative to its maximally dilated state. This poses a lot of health risks as a result of it resulting in insufficient blood supply to different parts of the body which could lead to death of cells.
Loss of tone gives rise to increase in blood pressure and other health related diseases such as hypertension etc . They can be caused in the body by sepsis, systemic allergic reactions.
This is therefore main reason why loss of tone was chosen as the most appropriate choice.
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Rumors about ebola outbreak in the community and you need to investigate it further. What is the first step of action?
Rumors about Ebola outbreak in the community and we need to investigate it further. So, the first step of action is to conduct Polymerase chain reaction (PCR).
Ebola virus disease(EVD) can only be detected after it shows some sort of symptoms like fever, headache, and weakness. This infection is are often seen in patients suffering from common diseases like malaria and typhoid fever.
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is a commonly used diagnostic method because it detects low levels of Ebola virus. This method can detect presence of few virus particles in a small amount of blood.
The ability to detect increases when the amount of virus increases in the body. When there is no longer enough virus particles in the blood, then this method is no longer effective.
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Preventive mental health is based on the assumption that psychological disorders result from.
help me im dying lol
In addition to decreased ihca, what are some other benefits of implementing a rapid response system?
In addition to decreased IHCA, what are some other benefits of implementing a rapid response system are Option A and D :
Decreased ICU length of stay.Decreased in total hospital length of stay.What is rapid response?Rapid response systems is known to be a kind of a programs that are made or set up so as to make better the safety of hospitalized patients whose condition are known to be deteriorating very fast.
Note also that a rapid response team is seen as a group of clinicians that nurses and other hospital staff can run to if there is at any time a need to provide some kind of critical care expertise at the bedside of a patient who is known to have a condition that is deteriorating.
Hence, In addition to decreased IHCA, what are some other benefits of implementing a rapid response system are Option A and D :
Decreased ICU length of stay.Decreased in total hospital length of stay.Learn more about rapid response system from
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See full question below
In addition to decreased IHCA, what are some other benefits of implementing a rapid response system? Select all that apply
Decreased ICU length of stay
Decreased emergency department admissions
Increased ICU admissions
Increased Hospital Length of Stay
Decreased in total hospital length of stay
A nurse teaches a patient to take acamprosate with meals. What is the rationale for the nurse's teaching?
Which type of lipids are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation?
Unsaturated fats are lipids that are considered to be heart-healthy and associated with reduced inflammation.
Healthy fats are those that are unsaturated. They lower inflammation, reduce cholesterol, and normalize heart rhythms, according to research.They are composed of carbon atom chains with a reduced number of hydrogen atoms connected due to the presence of one or more double bonds. They are often liquid at ambient temperature due to their structure.Saturated fats, on the other hand, are "saturated" with hydrogen atoms, which means they have the most hydrogen atoms surrounding the carbon atoms. At room temperature, saturated fats are normally solid.Because they raise bad cholesterol, saturated fats have long been associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease (LDL). Unsaturated fats, which are liquid at room temperature, are regarded as healthy fats because they have a range of positive effects on health, including lower blood cholesterol levels, less inflammation, stable cardiac rhythms, and more.learn more about Unsaturated fats here: https://brainly.com/question/4073863
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What percent of women experience no significant symptoms of menopause?
Answer:
Few (2.7 percent) suffered no symptoms
Explanation:
you file your income tax return using which form?
w-2
1099
1040
w-4
You file your income tax return using the 1040 form.
What is an income tax return?
The form used to submit information about a taxpayer's income and related taxes to the income tax department is known as an income tax return. ITR 1, ITR 2, ITR 3, ITR 4, ITR 5, ITR 6, and ITR 7 are among the several variants. You cannot carry certain losses forward when you file a tardy return.
A person who receives a salary has two options for filing their income tax return: ITR-1 or ITR-2. However, in order to determine whether the ITR form applies to you, you must be aware of all of your revenue sources for the whole fiscal year. ITR filing errors result from utilizing the wrong ITR form to submit the return.
Individual taxpayers file their taxes with the IRS using Form 1040. The form determines whether the filer will receive a tax refund or additional taxes that are owed. Form 1040 requests personal information such as name, address, Social Security number, and the number of dependents.
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A persistent infection is one in which?
A persistent infection is one in which the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
What is persistent infection?Persistent infections are those in which the virus is not eliminated but instead hangs around in a few of the infected person's cells.Without instantly killing or even severely damaging the host cells, persistent infections can involve both silent and productive infection stages. Latent, chronic, and slow infection are three categories of overlapping persistent virus-host interactions.Modifying host immune response as well as viral and cellular gene expression are two ways used to maintain persistent infections.Different factors, such as modifications to cell physiology, superinfection by another virus, and physical stress or trauma, might cause a latent infection to reactivate.Numerous chronic viral infections frequently reactivate in the presence of host immunosuppression.Know more about persistent infection https://brainly.com/question/23321728
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I hope you are trying to ask the question given below:
Question:
A persistent infection is one in which
A) the virus remains in equilibrium with the host without causing a disease.
B) viral replication is unusually slow.
C) the disease process occurs gradually over a long period.
D) host cells are gradually lysed.
E) host cells are transformed.
Emphysema, gum disease, skin discoloration, and leukemia are all possible effects of which drug?
Emphysema, gum disease, skin discoloration, and leukemia are all possible effects of: Tobacco
Tobacco are substance that is made from plant and it major ingredients is nicotine which is harmful to the body when consume.
What are the effects of Tobacco ?Tobacco Smoking can cause adverse effect on the body's systems because nicotine which is the ingredients in tobacco can cause harm to kidney when it is absorbed into the blood stream.
Adverse effect of tobacco include:
Gum diseaseStomach ulcersStomach cancerMouth cancerHeart diseaseRespiratory diseases etcInconclusion Emphysema, gum disease, skin discoloration, and leukemia are all possible effects of: Tobacco
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How many calories should you eliminate from your diet if you want to lose two pounds in two weeks?.
Answer: Decreasing your overall calories by 500 to 1,000 calories per day will turn into a weight loss rate of one to two pounds a week.
Win luria, who has diabetes mellitus, feels thirsty all the time. which term best describes win's condition?
Polydipsia best describes win's condition.
The term "polydipsia" refers to a state of intense thirst. Numerous urinary problems that make you frequently urinate are frequently related to polydipsia. This may cause your body to continually feel the need to rehydrate itself after urinating. Physical procedures that result in you losing a lot of fluid can potentially be the cause.This condition is regarded as one of diabetes's very first signs. In people with type 2 diabetes, it occurs frequently. Polydipsia in diabetics is brought on by elevated blood glucose levels. Your kidneys create more urine as your blood glucose levels rise in an effort to flush the additional glucose from your body. Your brain is telling you to drink more because your body is losing water in the meanwhile.learn more about Polydipsia here: https://brainly.com/question/5150276
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Which term describes a condition in which central vision is lost but total blindness does not occur?
According to the research, macular degeneration is the term that describes a condition in which central vision is lost but total blindness does not occur.
What is macular degeneration?It is a degenerative alteration of the central part of the retina known as the macula, which is responsible for central vision.
Some symptoms of macular degeneration are distorted vision of objects and total blindness does not occur.
Therefore, we can conclude that macular degeneration is the term that describes a condition in which central vision is lost but total blindness does not occur.
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What do a professional coder for an obstetrical practice and a professional coder for a orthopedic clinic both have in common and explain
A professional coder for an obstetric clinic and a professional coder for an orthopedic clinic have in common the patient's postural well-being, because in the obstetric clinic, care for the posture of the pregnant woman must be equally treated in the orthopedic clinic.
What is Obstetric Physiotherapy?Obstetric Physiotherapy is an area that consists of preparing women for a healthy pregnancy and postpartum period. In such a way that it helps in the adaptation of the biomechanical changes so that you can enjoy this stage with comfort and safety.
With this information, we can conclude that Obstetric physiotherapy is a type of physiotherapy that focusses on gynaecological and pelvic floor issues.
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Which characteristic of a healthy family relationship does this describe? devotion appreciation communication problem solving together
Answer:
c
Explanation:
I just took the test
Answer: C, communication
Explanation: good Bye :)
Which classification of medications are most commonly used to treat patients with schizophrenia?.
The classification of medications most commonly used to treat patients with schizophrenia is antipsychotics.
What is schizophrenia?Schizophrenia is a psychiatric diagnosis denoting a persistent, chronic and mental illness characterised by abnormal perception, thinking, behavior and emotion.
Schizophrenia is a mental ailment that causes people suffering from it to exhibit violence.
However, the classification of medications most commonly used to treat patients with schizophrenia is antipsychotics, which counteracts psychosis.
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Equipment with the highest potential for serving as ignition sourcces in surgical fire include?
Laser beams or fibers, electrosurgical units and fiber optic light cables serve as ignition sources with highest potential in surgical fires.
There is a requirement of three basic elements for a surgical fire to happen in an operating room. The first thing that is required is an ignition source, that is, something to create a spark. The second requirement is something that can burn like a fuel and the final requirement is an oxidizer. High potential ignition sources are electrosurgical units, laser beams or fiber optic light cables. Fuel can be drapes, towels or alcohol solutions and oxygen or nitrous oxide can act as oxidizers.
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A 31-year-old woman tries a new facial cosmetic product and a day later has red papules from 0.2 to 0.5 cm scattered over her skin. She sees her traditional healer 2 days later, and on physical examination some of the lesions are now vesicular and oozing clear fluid, whereas others are crusted. An herbal preparation is applied over the next 3 days and the lesions subside. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this woman?
a. Eczematous dermatitis
b. Erythema multiforme
c. Impetigo
d. Lichen simplex chronicus
e. Urticaria
Eczematous dermatitis is the most likely diagnosis for this woman
The condition known as eczematous dermatitis makes your skin dry, red, itchy, and rough. It is one of many different dermatitis kinds. The skin barrier function is damaged by eczematous dermatitis (the "glue" of your skin). Your skin becomes more vulnerable to infection, dryness, and sensitivity as a result of this lack of barrier function.
Eczematous dermatitis cannot be contracted from another person or spread to others. Eczema does not indicate that your skin is sick or that it is contagious. Because Eczematous Dermatitis frequently runs in families, some people may believe that the disease is contagious.
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What important developmental milestones happen in each of the three trimesters of pregnancy?.
Answer:
search it up find the answer
Explanation:
find the answer