Which of the following is a characteristic most likely associated with I-SBAR-R?
A. Recommendation
B. Background
C. Readback
D. Identify
E. Assessment

Answers

Answer 1

I-SBAR-R is a communication tool used in healthcare settings, where "R" stands for Readback. The correct answer is C. Readback. This involves repeating the information received to ensure accurate understanding and communication between the parties involved.

During the readback phase of I-SBAR-R, the receiver of the information repeats or restates the key details or instructions they have received from the sender. This allows the sender to confirm if the message was accurately transmitted and understood. It serves as a verification mechanism and helps to identify and rectify any misinterpretations or misunderstandings.

Readback promotes active listening and engagement between healthcare providers, enhances communication reliability, and reduces the risk of errors or miscommunication. By repeating the information, the receiver can clarify any uncertainties, seek clarification if needed, and ensure that the intended message has been accurately received.

Implementing readback as part of the I-SBAR-R communication process improves patient safety, teamwork, and overall communication effectiveness in healthcare settings. It fosters a culture of clear and accurate communication, ultimately leading to better patient outcomes. Hence, C is the correct option.

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Related Questions

Narisety SD, Frischmeyer-Guerrerio PA, Keet CA, Gorelik M, Schroeder J, Hamilton RG, et al. A randomized, double-blind, placebo-controlled pilot study of sublingual versus oral immunotherapy for the treatment of peanut allergy. J Allergy Clin Immunol 2015;135:1275-82

Answers

The FDA has approved the first medication to treat children's peanut allergies. Palforzia has been approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration today to lessen allergic reactions, including anaphylaxis, that may arise from unintentional exposure to peanuts.

What is peanut allergy?Immune system misinterprets peanut proteins as being toxic, which leads to peanut allergy. Immune system releases substances into your bloodstream that lead to symptom onset whether you come into direct or indirect contact with peanuts. There are numerous ways to become exposed to peanuts: Direct interaction.The reaction is brought on by an excessively vigilant immune system that views the proteins in peanuts as a threat. Chemicals are released as a result of the immunoglobulin E antibody's synthesis. An allergic reaction, which could possibly be lethal, is the result.A common food allergy is a sensitivity to peanuts. In the US, about 1 in 50 kids suffer from a peanut allergy. By maturity, only approximately 1 in 5 people will still have their allergy. Anaphylaxis, a potentially fatal allergic reaction sign, can result from peanut allergies.

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The nurse is assessing a patient's pain. When the patient describes his pain as cramping and burning, which component of the pain history is being addressed

Answers

The quality or intensity of the patient's pain background is addressed when the patient characterizes his pain as burning and cramping.

What aspects of pain evaluation are there?

A historical and physical examination, a functional evaluation, a psychosocial assessment, and a multidimensional assessment are all included in the assessment of pain.

The following multidimensional technique must be used to evaluate pain:

The quality or intensity of the patient's pain background is addressed when the patient characterizes his pain as burning and cramping.

What aspects of pain evaluation are there?

A historical and physical examination, a functional evaluation, a psychosocial assessment, and a multidimensional assessment are all included in the assessment of pain.

The following multidimensional technique must be used to evaluate pain:

Location Symptoms that are relatedDurationSeverity

Why is the assessment of pain part of the patient evaluation?

For physicians to communicate about the patient's present pain condition and reactions to the treatment plan, recording of pain assessment and the impact of therapies is crucial.

Why is the assessment of pain part of the patient evaluation?

For physicians to communicate about the patient's present pain condition and reactions to the treatment plan, recording of pain assessment and the impact of therapies is crucial.

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the nurse is caring for a newborn who is 18 inches long weighs 4 pounds 14 ounces has a head circumference 13 inches and a chest circumference 10 inches

Answers

Hypoglycemia

Giving the infant a rapid-acting source of glucose, such as a mixture of glucose/water or formula as an early feeding if the infant is able to take by mouth, is the urgent treatment for hypoglycemia.

What is Hypoglycemia ?

When the blood sugar (glucose) level is too low, hypoglycemia occurs. The primary fuel for the body and the brain is glucose. Low blood sugar in a newborn infant can occur for a variety of causes. It may result in issues including trembling, a blue tint to the skin, as well as difficulties breathing and eating.

Inadequate intake of food. The mother's and the baby's blood types are incompatible. Birth abnormalities, endocrine problems, and metabolic conditions are already present. inadequate oxygen intake during birth (birth asphyxia)

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A woman in scrubs enters a mother's room while the nurse is completing an assessment. The woman states the doctor is in the nursery and has requested the infant be brought back for an examination. What will the nurse do

Answers

The nurse will ask the woman to see her postnatal hospital identification badge.

If the birth took place in a facility, the mother and child should be postnatal examined before being released. 6 to 8 weeks after the birth of your child, you should have your postnatal check to ensure that you feel well and are healing appropriately.

Soon after birth, blood pressure should be checked. A detailed and holistic assessment of the mother and her new infant is possible only through postnatal care. It strives to make sure both mother and child are healthy and that the mother has the resources she needs to care for her newborn child, including assistance and knowledge.

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_____________________ deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.

Answers

More than 1,000 deaths are prevented each year by the newly improved pneumococcal conjugate vaccine used with infants.

Pneumococcal disease alludes to any disease brought about by pneumococcal bacteria. These microorganisms can cause many kinds of diseases, including pneumonia, which is a contamination of the lungs. Pneumococcal microbes are one of the most widely recognized reasons for pneumonia.

Pneumococcal conjugate immunization is a pneumococcal immunization and forms antibodies used to safeguard infants, small kids, and grown-ups against sickness brought about by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumonia.

There are three pneumococcal form immunizations PCV13, PCV15, and PCV20. The various immunizations are suggested for various individuals in light of their age and clinical status. In general, the immunization is 60% to 70% successful in forestalling obtrusive illness brought about by serotypes in the antibody.

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Which nursing action can the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are working in a clinic where clients have diabetes

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Measure the ankle-brachial index is the nursing action that can be used by the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who are working in a clinic where clients have diabetes.

With diabetes, your frame doesn't make sufficient insulin or can't use it as properly as it needs to. Diabetes is a persistent (lengthy-lasting) fitness situation that affects how your body turns food into energy. Your body breaks down most of the meals you devour into sugar (glucose) and releases it into your bloodstream.

In keeping with the latest research, type 2 diabetes can not be cured, but people will have glucose ranges that go back to the non-diabetes range, (complete remission) or pre-diabetes glucose stage (partial remission) The primary manner through which people with type 2 diabetes gain remission is by means of losing enormous quantities.

The strain doesn't reason diabetes but it can have an effect on your blood sugar levels and how you appear after your circumstance. Having diabetes to manipulate the pinnacle of existence's ordinary USA and downs can itself be a reason of pressure. It's no longer usually smooth to stay with and this could additionally feel more difficult whilst many human beings don't apprehend it.

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The nurse is gathering data from a client in crisis. When determining the client's perception of the precipitating event that led to the crisis, which is the most appropriate question to ask

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IV Solu-Cortef is a medication that can be given by a nurse to help with an adrenal crisis.

What exactly is an adrenal crisis?

Acute adrenal crisis is a potentially fatal condition caused by low levels of cortisol, a hormone produced and released by the adrenal gland. Alternative of acute adrenel chrises, Acute adrenal insufficiency; Adrenal crisis; Addisonian crisis.

what happen during aderenal chrises?

An addisonian crisis might result from the body's failure to enhance cortisol production in response to stress. A life-threatening condition known as an addisonian crisis is characterized by low blood pressure, low blood sugar, and high blood potassium levels.

The term adrenal crisis refers to a condition in which a person's cortisol levels drop, causing weakness and dizziness.

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Drugs that block or change the effects of addictive substances are called _____ drugs.

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The antagonist drugs block or change the effects of the addictive drug.

The most suggested/prescribed antagonist drugs are disulfiram and naloxone. These two drugs are used for medication have different mechanisms of action in the body.

Together/combinedly they might be effective in treating individuals dually diagnosed with cocaine and alcohol dependence. Disulfiram is also known as Antabuse whereas, Naltrexone is also known as Vivitrol. Vivitrol can also be used to prevent relapse to opioid dependence.

Antabuse belongs to a class of drugs called Psychiatry Agents. The Antabuse medication is used in disorders by producing unpleasant side effects and sensitivity to alcohol.

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A shoulder rehabilitation program should be designed to restore shoulder stability through inclusion of neuromuscular reeducation and muscle balance. Question 11 options: True False

Answers

Answer:

I think the answer is true

efffects of curcumin on oxidative stress

Answers

Curcumin is able to reduce oxidative stress by decreasing the phosphorylation level of stress-associated cellular kinases.

What is Curcumin?

Curcumin is a natural plant compound generated by the species Curcuma longa.

This compound (Curcumin) can reduce the oxidative stress of cells by activating signaling pathways that reduce the phosphorylation and activation of kinases.

In conclusion, Curcumin reduces oxidative stress by decreasing the phosphorylation of kinases.

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Emphysema, chronic bronchitis, and related lung diseases are all grouped under the broad term of:

Answers

Emphysema, chronic bronchitis and related lung diseases are all grouped under Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD).

What is COPD?COPD refers to a group of diseases that block the airflow and cause breathing-related problems. It is a term for a range of lung diseases like emphysema and chronic bronchitis.These diseases progress gradually, making it harder to breathe over time.Main cause of COPD is smoking.Lung diseases cannot be reversed but can be managed by lifestyle changes.Chronic bronchitis irritates your bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from your lungs.Emphysema is the breakdown of the walls of the tiny air sacs (alveoli) at the end of the bronchial tubes, in the bottom of your lung.

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Symptoms of ________ deficiency include glossitis, dermatitis, cheilosis, eye disorders, sun sensitivity, and confusion.

Answers

Answer:

riboflavin

Explanation:

Where should the nurse instill an ophthalmic medication in a 6-year-old child?

Answers

The nurse should inject ophthalmic drugs into the lower conjunctival sac of a 6 year old child. The areas where eyedrops are injected are the sclera, upper conjunctival sac, or outer canthus.

The structures surrounding the eyes and acute or chronic eye disorders are treated using eye drops and ointments. As they are supplied directly to their site of action and are consequently more effective than drugs taken orally, they constitute the cornerstone of treatment for eye illness.

Topical eye treatment must be given the same priority as medications that are taken systemically in order for patients to get the most therapeutic benefit.

In order to properly administer topical medications, nurses, patients, and caregivers must have a solid awareness of their therapeutic effects and any potential side effects.

Applying eye drops and ointment is advised:

At the right momentwith the right forceover the right pathto the right personinto the right eye

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To deconstruct a medical term always start with the:

Answers

The suffix is added to deconstruct the medical term.

Medical professionals use medical terminologies to study components, medical techniques, processes, diseases, medicines, and parts of the body.   These medical terminologies are constructed by combining prefixes, root words, and suffixes.

The prefix is the starting of the term, which indicates the color, location, direction, etc.,The root word is the subject, which indicates the part of the body.The suffix is the end of the term, which indicates the disease, disorders, and condition.

For example Bradycardia,

Prefix- Brady ( abnormally slow)

root word- cardi ( heart)

suffix- ia (abnormal state)

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What did a famous Harvard University public health study identify as a factor that doubles the risk of heart disease

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Harvard University public health study identify pessimism as a factor that doubles the risk of heart disease .

A pessimistic perspective on life may be harmful to heart health.

Over the course of ten years, the study followed 3,000 men and women between the ages of 52 and 76. Participants were polled prior to the study to gauge how well their outlooks matched up with optimistic and pessimistic personality qualities.

According to the study, males who were assessed to be the least pessimistic were four times as likely to acquire heart disease. The study's most pessimistic participants also had a greater than twofold increased risk of dying from coronary heart disease.

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for a patient with a new onset of Meniere disease, which meal choice indicates understanding of dietary modifications provides by the nurse to prevent attacks

Answers

Low-salt (sodium) diet for Meniere's disease

Vertigo and hearing loss are two symptoms of the inner ear ailment
Meniere's disease. Meniere's illness typically only affects one ear.

Meniere's illness can strike at any age, but it typically manifests between the ages of 20 and 40. Although it's regarded as a chronic ailment, there are a number of therapies that can assist manage the symptoms and lessen the long-term effects on your life.
The initial line of treatment frequently entails dietary changes, such as limiting salt, caffeine, alcohol intake, and the use of numerous medicines.
Just draw attention to the fact that daily glucose intake is not mentioned in the current debate over which diet should be recommended for MD patients.


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Dr. D delegates patient examinations, medical record documentation, and prescriptive authority to her PA to save time. Is this permissible

Answers

Yes it is permissible for the PA to perform functions such as patient examinations, medical record documentation etc.

What is PA?

This is referred to a physician assistant who has been trained and supervised by the physician for some years.

This individual is therefore permissible to perform all the activities which are listed above.

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What is not the priority of an emt at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

Answers

Emergency medical technicians (EMTs) have various important roles excluding the establishment the perimeter control.

Protecting people and property while minimising any adverse effects on the environment are the responsibilities of trained awareness level responders who are "first on the scene" during the occurrence of hazardous material. Emergency medical service (EMS) protocols are the accepted operating procedures that paramedics and emergency medical technicians (EMTs) must adhere to when assessing, treating, transporting, and delivering patients to definitive care.

There are certain role of responders that needed to be taken care of during such incidents.

Responders should avoid driving or walking through any spilled or released substances, including smoke, fumes, and puddlesPrevent unneeded equipment infectionAvoid being seen when you approach a sceneAvoid interacting with people leaving hazardous locationsRescue attempts should not be made unless you are trained and have the necessary PPEReport to the command post any suspicious people, shipments, or containers

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Michael was recently diagnosed with a tumor of the pituitary gland and underwent surgery to remove the entire mass. After surgery the nurse noted that michael was producing an extremely large volume of urine. What might be causing michael to do this?.

Answers

The removal of Michael's tumour may have rendered him incapable of producing antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

The pituitary gland is known as the "master gland" because the hormones it generates regulate so many distinct bodily processes. It detects the body's demands and sends messages to various organs and glands to control their activity and maintain a suitable environment. It secretes hormones into the bloodstream that act as messengers to transfer information from the pituitary gland to distant cells, so controlling their activity. For instance, the pituitary gland generates prolactin, which stimulates milk production in the breasts.

The pituitary gland also helps store and secrete two important hormones - Antidiuretic hormone and oxytocin.  Anti-diuretic hormone aids in blood pressure regulation by working on the kidneys and blood arteries. Its most significant function is to conserve fluid volume by decreasing the amount of water lost through urine.

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which client condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids destruction of the auditory nerve

Answers

The client's hearing condition is likely to improve significantly with the use of hearing aids after the auditory nerve is destroyed.

What hearing condition?

Hearing loss is a condition that reduces the human being's ability to hear sounds, also influencing the development of language and making it difficult to establish communication.

With this information, we can conclude that Hearing acuity is linked to perception and hearing ability. People who hear well, without noise, without problems, have good acuity.

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The nurse is caring for a client in labor at 37 weeks gestation and notes a baseline fetal heart rate of 180 beats per minute. Which interventions should the nurse perform

Answers

Provide the mother with oxygen

Fetal tachycardia, an abnormal foetal heart rate that can be found on the foetal monitor, is suggested by the heart rate in the description. Tachycardia could result from problems affecting the baby's heart or from conditions affecting the mother, such as fever or dehydration. To boost hydration and oxygenation for the mother and baby, the nurse should increase the IV pace and give the mother oxygen.

What is Fetal tachycardia ?

Having a heartbeat that is faster than 160–180 beats per minute is known as foetal tachycardia (bpm).

This quick pace may be intermittent or continuous, with a regular or irregular rhythm. Fewer than 1% of all pregnancies experience a prolonged foetal tachyarrhythmia.

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The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old patient admitted with suspected dehydration. What is the daily oral fluid maintenance requirement in milliliters for the patient weighing 45 lb

Answers

The daily oral fluid maintenance requirement in milliliters for a patient weighing 45 lb is 1510mL.

What is oral fluid maintenance?Maintenance fluid is a water and electrolyte solution which aims to replace the excessive loss of water and electrolytes through skin and through urinary system.This therapy was given by Holliday and Segar.Maintenance fluids consist of water, glucose, potassium and sodium. This is especially given to those children who are NPO (Nothing by mouth).The rate at which maintenance fluid is given depends upon the patient’s size and weight.For children weighing >20kg, the daily maintenance fluid required is given by 1500 mL + 20 mL/kg for every kg over 20 (cannot exceed 2400 mL/day)For a child weighing 45 lb (20.5 kg), the daily fluid requirement is 1500+ (0.5* 20) = 1510 mL.

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It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to ______ before beginning to clean and disinfect.

Answers

It is recommended to close off areas used by ill persons and wait before beginning to clean and disinfect to minimize potential for exposure to respiratory droplets. If possible, you should wait up to 24 hours before beginning to clean and disinfect.

What is disinfection?

Disinfection is defined as the reduction of the presence of disease causing microorganisms such as bacteria, fungi, and viruses to a less virulent amount.

When a patient that is affected by communicable disease is discharged, the area where the patient stayed must be disinfected.

It is recommended by the center for disease control (CDC) that a waiting period of up to 24 hours should be done to minimize potential exposure to respiratory droplets.

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The aim of community based participatory research is to achieve individual change that results in improved community health outcomes and health equity.

Answers

The aim of CBPR is to increase knowledge and understanding of a given phenomenon and to integrate the knowledge gained with interventions for policy or social change benefiting the community members.

What is Community based participatory research ?

Community-Based Participatory Research (CBPR) is an approach in which researchers and community stakeholders form equitable partnerships to tackle issues related to community health improvement and knowledge production.

CBPR can be used to increase access to care by building relationships with community partners that can determine geographical areas of need.establish community priorities for health concerns and ultimately create a more efficient and streamlined healthcare delivery system.

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Abstract 62: An Assessment of Cervical Cancer Prevention and Treatment Infrastructure in Belize. Cancer Epidemiology, Biomarkers

Answers

A Final statement or concluding statement

The maximum vital issue you could do to assist save you cervical most cancers is to get vaccinated early and feature ordinary screening tests. The public cervical cancers screening personnel in Belize includes seventy five number one care nurses and physicians-one consistent with 1,076 screening-eligible women, with 44% accomplishing rural outreach. All districts have as a minimum one screening facility, however 50% carry out screening offerings most effective as soon as consistent with week.

Colposcopy and loop electric excision approaches are to be had in 3 and 4 districts, respectively; radical hysterectomy and chemotherapy are to be had in  districts; and radiation remedy is unavailable. Of crucial pathology equipment, 38.5% had been gift and functional, 23% had been gift however nonfunctional, and 38.5% had been unavailable. Additionally, 35% of resources had been unavailable on the time of assessment, and seventy five% had been unavailable as a minimum as soon as withinside the one year earlier than assessment.

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. A nurse believes that she lacks the basic knowledge and skills necessary to carry out her initial patient assignment. The nurse invokes Safe Harbor and brings her Quick Request for Safe Harbor form to her supervisor. What other action is required by the nurse when refusing an assignment

Answers

The other action required by the nurse when refusing an assignment is a Safe harbor from collaborating with the supervisor.

A safe harbor is a clause in a law or regulation that says certain actions shall be regarded as not breaking a particular rule.

When a nurse requests in good faith a nursing peer review of an assignment or action they are expected to carry out, Safe Harbor is a mechanism that shields them from employer retribution, suspension, termination, disciplinary, discrimination, and licensure sanctions.

Due to urgent patient care requirements, a nurse may invoke safe harbor by verbally telling the nurse's supervisor of the request. In that case, the nurse's supervisor must establish in writing the specifications for a Safe Harbor Quick Request.

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A condition of the lymphatic system evidenced by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels with accompanying red streaks visible in the skin is called ____.

Answers

Lymphangitis is a disorder of the lymphatic system characterized by inflammation of the lymphatic vessels and associated red streaks visible on the skin.

One of the important parts of the human body that make up the immune system is the lymphatic system. It is made up of a network of ducts, cells, glands, and organs. The body has nodes, which are another name for glands. The body's ability to fight infections depends heavily on your lymphatic system. The lymph vessels transfer lymph fluid and lymphocytes, or white blood cells, to an infection site in order to combat the disease. The inflammation of lymphatic vessels is called lymphangitis.

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A nurse is giving shift report using SBAR to the oncoming nurse on a client who has a traumatic brain injury. When reporting information about the client, which of the following are included in the situation segment of SBAR

Answers

The patient's code status needs to be included in the background section of the SBAR by the nurse.

Why is SBAR important?

When communicating with doctors, participating in handoffs, and providing attendant-to-nurture move reports, medical caregivers use the SBAR process to report concise, correlated, and complete verbal data. Nursing assessments and handovers should be handled carefully since they provide us the ability to ask questions, inquire for clarification, and confirm information. When we must inform doctors of a routine situation, SBAR can be especially important because effective communication is crucial to the patient's health outcomes and wellness. The main purpose of using SBAR is to express a developing situation and obtain arrangement-specific critique.

Original question:

A nurse is giving a change-of-shift report using SBAR to the oncoming nurse on a client who has a traumatic brain injury. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the background segment of SBAR?

a. Glasgow results

b. Intracranial pressure readings

c. Code status

d. Plan of care changes for upcoming shift

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Which of these is generally not a good practice with respect to oral communications (that is, talking) in organizations like healthcare facilities

Answers

Use of full names in public areas or on intercom/paging systems,

because there is no security issue with identifying persons in public areas and using full names helps avoid misidentification

What is Oral communications ?

Oral communication implies communication through mouth.

It's a verbal form of communication where you communicate your thoughts, present ideas and share information. Examples of oral communication are conversations with friends, family or colleagues, presentations and speeches.The speech of this communication must be sensible and applicable to the subject matter.

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Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of __________________ and may need supplements of ________________and ______________

Answers

Some older adults are unable to meet nutrient needs because of a decrease in appetite and may need supplements of vitamins and calcium.

Nutrition is important to live a healthy life. Eating healthy nutritious food gives proper growth and development to the body and brain. With aging the proper functioning of the body declines due to deficiency of nutrients. This decrease in nutrition in the old adult is due to less appetite. This results in diseases like weaker bones, in females osteoporosis, osteoarthritis, etc.   To meet all their nutrition old adults require intake of supplements having vitamin D, vitamin B12, and calcium for healthy bones.

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