Which describes the amplitude of a wave when it carries more ene
O It is higher.
O It is lower.
It is darker.
Oli is lighter​

Complete question:

A 40-turn coil has a diameter of 17 cm. The coil is placed in a spatially uniform magnetic field of magnitude 0.40 T so that the face of the coil and the magnetic field are perpendicular. Find the magnitude of the emf induced in the coil (in V) if the magnetic field is reduced to zero uniformly in the following times.  (a) 0.10 s, (b) 1.0 s, and (c) 60 s.

Answer:

(a) E = 3.632 V

(b) E = 0.3632  V

(c) E = 6.053 mV

Explanation:

Given;

number of turn of the coil, N = 40 turn

diameter of the coil, d = 17 cm = 0.17 m

radius of the coil, r = d /2 = 0.17 /2 = 0.085 m

initial magnitude of magnetic field, B₁ = 0.4 T

final magnitude of magnetic field, B₂ = 0

The induced emf in the coil is given by;

[tex]E = -N\frac{dB}{dt} A = \frac{-NA(B_2 - B_1)}{dt} =\frac{NA(B_1-B_2)}{dt} =\frac{NAB_1}{t}[/tex]

A is area of the coil = πr² = π(0.085)² = 0.0227 m²

(a) when the time is 0.1 s

[tex]E= \frac{40*0.0227*0.4}{0.1} = 3.632 \ V[/tex]

(b) when the time is 1 s

[tex]E = \frac{40*0.0227*0.4}{1} \\\\E = 0.3632 \ V[/tex]

(c) when the time is 60 s

[tex]E = \frac{40*0.0227*0.4}{60} \\\\E = 6.053 \ mV[/tex]

Answer:

The net force on the ball is zero.

Explanation:

Newton's first law of motion states that an object will remain in the same state of motion or at rest unless a resultant force acts on it, and if the net force on an object is zero, then that means that the object will keep moving at the same acceleration or the object stays stationary.

So, the truth about the net forces acting on the ball is that the net force on the ball is zero.

Answer:

The gravitational force is greater than the drag.

Explanation:

I took the quick check and got it wrong when I chose The net force on the ball is zero but I was right the first time with the third answer choice listed in the question.

Answer:

a

  [tex]H_3 = 0.85 \ m[/tex]

b

 [tex]PE = 0.3528 \ J[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

   The  coefficient of resolution is  [tex]C_r = 0.90[/tex]

    The  initial height is  [tex]H_i = 1.60 \ m[/tex]

Considering question a

  The  number of times the ball bounced is [tex]k = 3[/tex]

    Generally the height attained after the 3rd bounce is mathematically represented as

       [tex]H_3 = H_i * (C_r)^{2 * k }[/tex]

 =>    [tex]H_3 = 1.60 * 0.90^{2 * 3 }[/tex]

=>    [tex]H_3 = 0.85 \ m[/tex]

Considering question b

The  mass is  m =  48 g  =  0.048  kg

Generally the amount of potential energy that was lost is mathematically represented as

        [tex]PE = mg [ H_i - H_3 ][/tex]

=>    [tex]PE = 0.048 * 9.8 [1.60 - 0.85 ][/tex]

=>     [tex]PE = 0.3528 \ J[/tex]

Answer:

E. 3h

Explanation:

We know that

u = 0 m/s.

velocity after t = 1s

v = u+gt = 0+9.81 x 1s= 9.81 m/s

distance covered in 1st sec

= =>> ut+0.5 x g x t²

=>>0 + 0.5x 9.81 x 1 = 4.90m

Let 4.90 be h

distance travelled in 2nd second will now be used

So velocity after t = 1s

=>>1 x t+ 0.5 x g x t²

=>9.81x 1 + 0.5 x 9.81 x 1 = 3 x 4.90

So since h= 4.90

Then the ans is 3x h = 3h

Answer:

14.1 kg

Explanation:

Given:

Length=7.00inches

Width=3.63 inches

Height=1.75 inches

density = 19,300 kg/m3.

We can convert the given parameters to metre for unit consistency

But we know 1 inches= 0.0254 metre

✓Then Length l=7.00inches

=7×0.0254 metre=0.1778m

✓Width w =3.63 inches

==3.63 ×0.0254 metre=0.092m

✓Height h =1.75 inches

=1.75 ×0.0254 metre=0.0445 m

But Mass= density × volume

Volume= Length× width×height

Mass= density× Length× width×height

= 19300kg/m³×0.1778×0.0922×0.0445

=14.1 kg

Therefore, the mass of the gold bar is 14.1 kg

The mass of such a gold bar is of 13.89 kg.

Given data:

The length of gold bar is, [tex]L=7.00 \;\rm in =7.00 \times 0.0254=0.1778 \;\rm m[/tex].

The width of gold bar is, [tex]w= 3.63 \;\rm in =3.63 \times 0.0254 = 0.092 \;\rm m[/tex].

The height if gold bar is, [tex]h = 1.75 \;\rm in =0.044 \;\rm m[/tex].

The density of the gold bar is,  [tex]\rho =19,300 \;\rm kg/m^{3}[/tex].

The given problem is based on the concept of density. The density of any substance is equal to the ratio of mass and volume. Considering the gold bar to rectangular shape, the volume of gold bar is calculated as,

[tex]V= L \times w \times h\\\\V = 0.1778 \times 0.092 \times 0.044\\\\V=7.197 \times 10^{-4} \;\rm m^{3}[/tex]

Now, use the formula of density to calculate the mass of gold bar as,

[tex]\rho =\dfrac{m}{V}\\\\m = \rho \times V\\\\m = 19300 \times (7.197 \times 10^{-4})\\\\m= 13.89 \;\rm kg[/tex]

Thus, we can conclude that the mass of such a gold bar is of 13.89 kg.

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Answer:

True! First step is to make objective observations.

Explanation:

The full form of LED is Light Emitting Diode. It is a semi conductor source of light which when electrons passes or flows through them, it emits light. In the semi conductor, the electrons recombine with the electron holes to release high amount of energy. This energy is called photon.

When the LED direction is flipped in the breadboard and back to the original position, the LEDs are forced to be grounded. They will not be able to function without being grounded.

Complete Question

The diagram for this question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

The  voltage is [tex]\epsilon = 0.40163 \ V[/tex]

The  direction of the induced current is clockwise

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The number of turns is  N  = 17

     The  magnetic field is  [tex]B_2 = 0.5 \ T[/tex]

     The diameter is  [tex]d = 3.8 \ cm = 0.038 \ m[/tex]

      The  time interval is [tex]dt = 0.24 \ s[/tex]

The induce emf is mathematically represented as

       [tex]\epsilon = - N \frac{d\phi}{dt}[/tex]

       [tex]\epsilon = - N \frac{d ( B_2 - B_1 ) A }{dt}[/tex]

Here [tex]B_1[/tex] is the magnetic field experienced by the coil before entering the magnetic field given in the question  i.e  [tex]B_1 = 0[/tex]

Here the negative sign show that the induced voltage is moving in a direction opposite to the change magnetic flux

  The  area is mathematically represented as

      [tex]A = \pi \frac{d^2}{4}[/tex]

=>  [tex]A = 3.142 * \frac{ 0.038^2 }{4}[/tex]

=>   [tex]A = 0.01134 \ m^2[/tex]

Hence

     [tex]\epsilon = - 17 * \frac{ 0.5 * 0.01134 }{ 0.24}[/tex]

     [tex]\epsilon = 0.40163 \ V[/tex]

The  direction of the induced current is the same as that of induced voltage

    Thus the direction is clockwise

Answer:

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

In this exercise you are asked to analyze the following situation: for a fixed observer, the two balloons are launched at the same time.

If the observer is mobile moving towards the positive side of axis ax we have several

possibilities when starting the movement

* the observer is to the left of the two balloons

* the observer is between the two balloons

* the observer is to the right of the two baloomls

The time it takes for the signal to arrive to know which ball goes first is

             v = d / t

             t = d / v

If the signal goes at the speed of light, the speed is a constant and the time will depend only on the distance, so we see that the trigger changes depending on the relative position between a given ball and the observer.

Consequently, it will be seen which comes out first, depending on the relative position with the observer.

The correct answer is C

Explanation:

Pressure = force / area

If you are standing on your feet:

P = (70 kg × 10 m/s²) / (0.035 m²)

P = 20,000 Pa

If you are standing on diving fins:

P = (70 kg × 10 m/s²) / (2 × 0.30 m × 0.42 m)

P ≈ 2,800 Pa

Answer:

To prove that the electron is negatively charged, first we orient the direction of the magnetic field of the permanent magnet to enter into this computer screen.

Next we focus the beam of electrons to cut across the magnetic field perpendicularly, flowing from the right side of this screen to the left side.

If the electron beam is deflected upwards, then the electrons in the electron beam are negatively charged.

To check, we know that Lorentz left hand rule for a negatively charged particle moving through a magnetic field states that "if the left hand is held out with the fingers parallel to one another, and the thumb at a 90° angle to the rest of the fingers, then the fingers represents and points in the direction of the magnetic field, and the thumb represents and points in the direction of the negative charge through the magnetic field. The palm of the left hand will push in the direction of the force on the negatively charged particle."

Answer:

for the body to float, the density of the body must be less than or equal to the density of the liquid.

Explanation:

For a block to float in a liquid, the thrust of the liquid must be greater than or equal to the weight of the block.

Weight is

        W = mg

let's use the concept of density

        ρ_body = m / V

        m = ρ_body V

        W = ρ_body V g

The thrust of the body is given by Archimedes' law

        B = ρ_liquid g V_liquid

as the body floats the submerged volume of the liquid is less than or equal to the volume of the block

       ρ_body V g = ρ_liquid g V_liquid

       ρ_body = ρ liquid Vliquido / V_body

As we can see, for the body to float, the density of the body must be less than or equal to the density of the liquid.

Answer:

The simplified expression is [tex]M = \frac{v^2 r}{G}[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that  

     [tex]M = \frac{ \frac{m v^2}{r} }{\frac{ mG}{r^2 } }[/tex]

So simplifying we have

    [tex]M = \frac{m v^2}{r} * \frac{r^2 }{ mG }[/tex]

    [tex]M = \frac{v^2 r}{G}[/tex]

Thus the simplified formula is [tex]M = \frac{v^2 r}{G}[/tex]

Answer:

The amplitude of the induced emf is  [tex]\epsilon_a = 2.45*10^{-4}\ V[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

  The area is  [tex]A = 8.8 \ mm^2 = 8.8 *10^{-6} \ m[/tex]

  The number f turns per cm is  [tex]N = 818 \ turn/cm = 81800 \ turn /m[/tex]

    The current is  [tex]I = 1.28 \ A[/tex]

    The angular frequency is  [tex]w = 212 \ rad /s[/tex]

Generally the amplitude of the  induced emf is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\epsilon_a = \mu_o * N * I * w * A[/tex]

Where  [tex]\mu_o[/tex] is the permeability of free space with value  [tex]\mu_o = 4\pi * 10^{-7} N/A^2[/tex]

=>     [tex]\epsilon_a = 4\pi * 10^{-7} * 81800 * 1.28 * 212 * 8.8*10^{-6}[/tex]

        [tex]\epsilon_a = 2.45*10^{-4}\ V[/tex]

Answer: The planet Mars is terrestrial.

Terrestrial planets are made of rock, earth, or a solid substance. Your other options, Jupiter, Saturn, and Uranus, are all made up of a mixture of gases.

Hope this helps!

The answer is Mars.

Terrestrial planets are Earth-like planets made up of rocks or metals with a hard surface. Terrestrial planets also have a molten heavy-metal core, few moons, and topological features such as valleys, volcanoes, and craters.

Terrestrial planets are smaller, closer to the Sun, and formed from the rock around a molten metal core. They have secondary atmospheres, fewer moons, and a slower spin. Jovian planets are larger, further from the Sun, and formed from gases around a solid metal and hydrogen core.

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Answer:

Approximately [tex]2.7\times 10^{4}\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Explanation:

The two colliding objects would be stuck to each other if the collision is perfectly inelastic. While kinetic energy is conserved only in elastic collisions, momentum is conserved in all types of collisions. Therefore, the momentum of the truck and the car right after the collision will be equal to the vector sum of their momentum right before the collision.

Momentum of the car right before the collision:

[tex]\vec{p}(\text{car, before}) = m \cdot \vec{v} = 800\; \rm kg \times 18\; \rm m \cdot s^{-1}= 14400\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Momentum of the truck right before the collision:

[tex]\vec{p}(\text{truck, before}) = m \cdot \vec{v} = 1500\; \rm kg \times 15 \; \rm m \cdot s^{-1} = 22500\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Note that these two momentum are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their vector sum should be found using the Pythagorean theorem:

[tex]\begin{aligned}&\left|\vec{p}(\text{sum, before})\right| \\ &= \left|\vec{p}(\text{car, before}) + \vec{p}(\text{truck, before})\right| \\ &= \left(\sqrt{14400^2 + 22500^2}\right)\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1} \approx 2.7\times 10^{4}\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1} \end{aligned}[/tex].

Because momentum is conserved, the sum of the momentum of the car and the truck right after the collision should be equal to the sum right before the collision. In other words:

[tex]\vec{p}(\text{sum, after}) = \vec{p}(\text{sum, before})[/tex].

Therefore:

[tex]\left|\vec{p}(\text{sum, after})\right| = \left|\vec{p}(\text{sum, before})\right| \approx 2.7 \times 10^{4}\; \rm kg \cdot m \cdot s^{-1}[/tex].

Answer:

Wavelength, [tex]\lambda=382.9\ nm[/tex]

Explanation:

It is given that,

Distance moved by mirror in Michelson interferometer is 90 μm

Number of bright fringe shift = 470

We need to find the wavelength of the light.

For Michelson interferometer experiment,

[tex]2d=m\lambda[/tex]

here, [tex]\lambda[/tex] is the wavelength of the light

[tex]\lambda=\dfrac{2d}{m}\\\\\lambda=\dfrac{2\times 90\times 10^{-6}}{470}\\\\\lambda=3.829\times 10^{-7}\ m\\\\\lambda=382.9\ nm[/tex]

So, the wavelength of the light is 382.9 nm.

The wavelength of the light should be 382.9nm.

Since

Distance moved by the mirror in Michelson interferometer is 90 μm

And, Number of bright fringe shift = 470

So

we know that

2d = m*wavelength

wavelength = 2*90*10^-6/470

= 3.829*10^-7m

= 382.9nm

hence, The wavelength of the light should be 382.9nm.

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Answer:

False

Explanation:

This is because Since the current flowing through a series resonance circuit is the product of voltage divided by impedance, at resonance the impedance, Z is at its minimum value, ( =R ). So, the circuit current at this frequency will be at its maximum value of V/R

Answer:

D, both A and B

Explanation:

2168 mV is the SI unit for potential difference and the Voltmeter.

The primary unit is Volt, represented as V. Due to the fact that there can be a much higher reading, or an even much more smaller one, comes the need for variants of the same unit.

10^-3 is called milli and represented as m

10^3 is called killo and represented as k

10^-6 is called micro and represented as µ

10^6 is called mega and represented as M

and even much higher variants of up to 10^12 and 10^-12

As we can see from the aforementioned example, 10^-3 is milli and represented as m

And our question gave us the unit in mV, which stands for millivolts.

Also, if we look at option B, it states, 2.168 volts. This 2.168 volts is also the same thing as A. Take a look at it this way, I said mV is 10^-3, right?

So, 2168*10^-3 is also 2168/100 which is 2.168. The only difference here is, once we make this conversion from mV, we have to drop the milli tag, because we have already made a conversion, and thus, leave it as V.

2168 mV = 2.168V

Hence why we picked option D, Both A & B as the right one

Answer:

speed=d/t.

3=d/6.

d=3×6=18m

Answer:

Explanation:

When two coherent light beams travel different paths and arrive at a point , there will be difference in the length of path travelled by them . If this difference is zero then both will reinforce each other and their brightness will add up . Hence there will be constructive interference .

If their path difference is not zero but it is equal to odd multiple of their half wavelength like λ / 2 , 3 λ / 2 , 5 λ /2 , 7 λ /2 etc , then instead of reinforcing each other , they will destroy each other . This is called destructive interference . As a result of it , darkness will prevail at the point where they meet or interfere.

The type of graph that uses wedges to show the amount of data points in a category is a Circle graph, also known as a Pie chart. In a Pie chart, the circle represents the whole data set, and each wedge represents a specific category or data point.

In a Circle graph, the entire circle represents the total amount or the whole data set being analyzed. The circle is divided into wedges or slices, with each wedge representing a specific category or data point. The size of each wedge is proportional to the amount or percentage of data points that belong to that category.

The wedges are typically labeled with the category they represent and are often accompanied by a numerical value or percentage to indicate the exact proportion of data points in that category. The labels and values help the reader interpret the graph and understand the distribution of data across different categories.

Therefore, the correct answer is  A. Circle graph.

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Answer:

1. As rocket mass increases, acceleration decreases.

2. The inverse of the mass of the boat.

Explanation:

1. Newton's second law of motion states;

         F = ma

where F is the force applied, m is the mass and a is the acceleration.

Therefore, increasing the mass of a rocket increases its weight which would reduce its acceleration provided that the force is constant. Thus, as rocket mass increases, acceleration decreases.

2. The slope of the graph can be expressed as;

From Newton's second law,

F = ma

Slope = (Δa) ÷ (ΔF)

Slope = [tex]\frac{a}{F}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]\frac{1}{m}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{a}{F}[/tex]

Therefore, the slope of the graph is the reciprocal of the mass of the boat.

Answer:

As rocket mass increases, acceleration decreases.

The inverse of the mass of the boat

Answer:

The value is   [tex]\eta = 0.2145[/tex]  or  21.45%

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

    The first reservoir is at steam point  [tex]T_s = 100^o C = 100 + 273 = 373 \ K[/tex]  

    The  second reservoir is at room temperature [tex]T_r = 20^o C = 293 \ K[/tex]

Generally the  maximum theoretical efficiency of a Carnot engine  is mathematically evaluated as

     [tex]\eta = 1- \frac{T_r}{T_s}[/tex]

=>    [tex]1 - \frac{ 293}{373}[/tex]

=>    [tex]\eta = 0.2145[/tex]

Answer:

The velocity of the particle is 30 m/s.

Explanation:

The velocity can be found using Lorentz force:

[tex] F = q*v \times B [/tex]

Where:

q: is the charge of the particle = 0.002 C

v: is the velocity of the particle

B: is the magnetic field = 0.25 T

F: is the magnetic force = 0.015 N

Since the magnetic field and the particle's velocity are orthogonal, the cross product is equal to the product of the absolutes values of v and B.

We have:

[tex] F = q|v||B| [/tex]

[tex] v = \frac{F}{qB} = \frac{0.015 N}{0.002 C*0.25 T} = 30 m/s [/tex]

Therefore, the velocity of the particle is 30 m/s.

I hope it helps you!        

Answer:

Charging by contact is when the charged object is brought near but never contacted to the object being charged

Explanation:

Answer:

The  compression is  [tex]x = 0.05 \ m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

     The first velocity is  v

     The  compression of the spring is  [tex]d = 1.0 \ cm = 0.01 \ m[/tex]

      The  second velocity is  4v

Generally according to the law of  energy conservation

   The  kinetic energy of the block is equal to the energy stored in the spring that is  

       [tex]\frac{1}{2} * m* v^ 2 = \frac{1}{2} * k * d^2[/tex]

For  first speed

      [tex]m* v^ 2 = k * 0.01^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]m* v^ 2 = k * 0.0001[/tex]

=>  [tex]k = \frac{ m v^2 }{ 0.0001}[/tex]

For second  speed

       [tex]\frac{1}{2} * m* (5v)^ 2 = \frac{1}{2} * k * x^2[/tex]

=>    [tex]12.5mv^2 = 0.5 k x^2[/tex]

substituting for k

=>    [tex]12.5mv^2 = 0.5 (\frac{mv^2}{0.0001} ) x^2[/tex]

=> [tex]12.5 = 5000x^2[/tex]

=>  [tex]x = 0.05 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

5.8E-3m/s

Explanation:

Using

V= d/t

V= velocity

d= distance

t= time

But d= 2πr

But 180rev= 1min

So 1min/180= 60s/180

So

Vavr= 2π(10m)/180*60

=5.8E-3m/s

Answer:

423v

Explanation:

Using

E= -N ∆န/ ∆ t

= ( -1) X (-83 - 82)/0.39

= 423volts

Explanation:

(c) I assume we're looking for mA.

Sum of forces on B in the -y direction:

∑F = ma

mBg − T = mBa

Sum of forces on A in the +x direction:

∑F = ma

T = mAa

Substitute:

mBg − mAa = mBa

mBg − mBa = mAa

mA = mB (g − a) / a

Plug in values:

mA = (5 kg) (10 m/s² − 0.01 (10 m/s²)) / (0.01 (10 m/s²))

mA = 495 kg

The answer key seems to have a mistake.  It's possible they meant mB = 1 kg, or they changed mB to 5 kg but forgot to change the answer.