Which contains the most moles: 10 g of hydrogen gas, 100 g of carbon, or 50 g of lead?

Answer:

y = 1.75 cm

Explanation:

In the double-slit experiment the equation for destructive interference is

           d sin tea = (m + ½)

λ

let's use trigonometry to find the angle

         tan θ = y / L

as all the experiment does not occur at small angles

          tan θ = sin θ / cos θ = sin θ = y / L

we substitute

        y = (m + 1/2 ) λ  L / d

we calculate

         y = (3 + ½) 500 10⁻⁹ 5.00 / 0.5 10⁻³

         y = 1.75 10⁻² m

         y = 1.75 cm

Answer:

The pressure is  [tex]P_2 = 4.25 \ a.t.m[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The initial pressure is [tex]P_1 = 11.2\ a.t.m[/tex]

   The  temperature is  [tex]T_1 = 299 \ K[/tex]

Let the first volume be  [tex]V_1[/tex] Then the final volume will be  [tex]2 V_1[/tex]

 Generally for a diatomic  gas

           [tex]P_1 V_1 ^r = P_2 V_2 ^r[/tex]

Here r is the radius of the molecules which is  mathematically represented as

    [tex]r = \frac{C_p}{C_v}[/tex]

Where [tex]C_p \ and\ C_v[/tex] are the molar specific heat of a gas at constant pressure and  the molar specific heat of a gas at constant volume with values

     [tex]C_p=7 \ and\ C_v=5[/tex]

=>   [tex]r = \frac{7}{5}[/tex]

=>  [tex]11.2*( V_1 ^{\frac{7}{5} } ) = P_2 * (2 V_1 ^{\frac{7}{5} } )[/tex]

=>   [tex]P_2 = [\frac{1}{2} ]^{\frac{7}{5} } * 11.2[/tex]

=>  [tex]P_2 = 4.25 \ a.t.m[/tex]

The final pressure of the gas will be 4.244 atm.

Given information:

The initial pressure of the gas is [tex]P_1=11.2\rm\;atm[/tex].

The initial temperature of the gas is [tex]T_1=299\rm\; K[/tex].

Let the initial volume of the gas be V. So, the final volume will be double or 2V.

The given diatomic gas is expanded adiabatically. So, the equation of the adiabatic process will be,

[tex]P_1V_1^{\gamma}=P_2V_2^{\gamma}[/tex]

where [tex]\gamma[/tex] is the ratio of specific heats of the gas which is equal to 1.4 for a diatomic gas.

So, the final pressure [tex]P_2[/tex] can be calculated as,

[tex]P_1V_1^{\gamma}=P_2V_2^{\gamma}\\11.2\times V^{1.4}=P_2\times (2V)^{1.4}\\P_2=4.244\rm\;atm[/tex]

Therefore, the final pressure of the gas will be 4.244 atm.

For more details, refer to the link:

https://brainly.com/question/16014998

Answer:

The  minimum thickness is [tex]t = 1.0192 *10^{-7} \ m[/tex]    

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  refractive index is  [tex]n = 1.29[/tex]

    The  wavelength of the light is  [tex]\lambda = 636 \ nm = 636 *10^{-9} \ m[/tex]

    The  refractive index of the glass lens is  [tex]n_g = 1.56[/tex]

Generally the condition for destructive interference of a films is  

               [tex]2t = [ m + \frac{1}{2} ] \frac{\lambda}{n}[/tex]

for  minimum m =  0  

       [tex]2t = [ 0 + \frac{1}{2} ] \frac{\lambda}{n}[/tex]

=>    [tex]2t = [ 0 + \frac{1}{2} ] \frac{636 *10^{-9}}{1.56}[/tex]

=>  [tex]t = 1.0192 *10^{-7} \ m[/tex]    

Answer:

E. The ocean gains more entropy than the iron loses.

Explanation:

When there is a spontaneous process , entropy of the system increases . Here hot iron is losing entropy and ocean is gaining entropy . Net effect will be gain of entropy . That means entropy gained by ocean is more than entropy lost by iron .

Hence option E is correct .

Answer:

D = 4.47d

Explanation:

given that

1/R(eq) = 20/R

R(eq) = R/20

also, we know that the formula for resistance is given by the relation

R = pl/A, where A is πd²/4

If we substitute the value of A, we have

R = pl/(πd²/4)

R = 4pl/πd²

Now, we substitute this in the earlier derived equation

R(eq) = (4pl/πd²) / 20

R(eq) = pl/5πd²

To find the resistance of a single wire made of the same material, the resistance is

R(D) = 4pl / πD²

R(eq) = R(D), and thus

pl/5πd² = 4pl/πD²

1/5d² = 4/D²

D² = 20d²

D = √20d²

D = 4.47 d

Answer

The potential energy is  less

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The  source of  the emf is  by wires to a resistor.

Now  the potential energy of electron before leaving the source emf will be greater than the potential energy of an electron after leaving the source of emf because the resistor connected to the source emf will reduced the potential energy as it will convert some of the energy to heat

The potential energy of an electron after leaving the source of emf is lesser.

Electro motive force is the voltage or potential difference of an electrical energy device such as battery.

The  source of  the emf is  by wires to a resistor.Now,  the potential energy of an electron before leaving the source emf will be greater than the potential energy of an electron.

After leaving the source of emf because the resistor connected to the source of emf will reduce the potential energy as it will convert some of the energy to heat.

Thus the potential energy of an electron after leaving the source of emf is lesser.

To know more about Electromotive force, follow

https://brainly.com/question/820393

Answer:

10⁻¹² W / m²

Explanation:

The feeble sound that a man can hear is of the vale which measures 0 on decibel scale . The intensity of sound in terms of J / m² .s is 10⁻¹² W / m² .

So the intensity of sound of monkey at 2.5 km must be 10⁻¹² W / m² .

Using

V = Amplitude x angular frequency(omega)

But omega= 2πf

= 2πx875

=5498.5rad/s

So v= 1.25mm x 5498.5

= 6.82m/s

B. .Acceleration is omega² x radius= 104ms²

Answer:

a

  [tex]v _{max } = 6.82 \ m/s[/tex]

b

 [tex]a_{max} = 37489.5 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The amplitude is [tex]A = 1.24 \ mm = 1.24 * 10^{-3} \ m[/tex]

   The frequency is  [tex]f = 875 \ Hz[/tex]

Generally the maximum speed is mathematically represented as

           [tex]v _{max } = A * 2 * \pi * f[/tex]

=>        [tex]v _{max } = 1.24*10^{-3} * 2 * 3.142 * 875[/tex]

=>        [tex]v _{max } = 6.82 \ m/s[/tex]

Generally the maximum acceleration is mathematically represented as

       [tex]a_{max} = A * (2 * \pi * f)[/tex]

=>      [tex]a_{max} = 1.24*10^{-3} * (2 * 3.142 * 875 )^2[/tex]

=>       [tex]a_{max} = 37489.5 \ m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

given, work function of Φ = 2.46 eV.

converting the eV to joule, we have

2.45 * 1.6*10^-19 J

The cutoff wavelength is the wavelength where the incoming light does not have enough energy to free an electron, i.e. all of

the photon’s energy will be channeled into trying overcoming the work function barrier.

It is mathematically given as

Φ = hf

f = Φ/h

f = (2.46 * 1.6*10^-19) / 6.63*10^-34

f = 3.936*10^-19 / 6.63*10^-34

f = 5.94*10^14 Hz as our cut off frequency

λf = c,

λ = c/f

λ = 3*10^8 / 5.94*10^14

λ = 5.05*10^-7

λ = 505 nm as our cut off wavelength

K(max) = hf - Φ

K(max) = hc/λ - Φ

K(max) = [(6.63*10^-34 * 3*10^8) / 181*10^-9] - 3.936*10^-19

K(max) = (1.989*10^-25/181*10^-9) - 3.936*10^-19

K(max) = 1.1*10^-18 - 3.936*10^-19

K(max) = 7.064*10^-19 J or 4.415 eV

V(s) = K(max) / e

V(s) = 4.612 V

Answer:

Zoning ordinances detail whether specific geographic zones are acceptable for residential or commercial purposes. Zoning ordinances may also regulate: - size

- placement

- density

- height of structures

HOPE IT HELPS :)

PLEASE MARK IT THE BRAINLIEST!

Answer:

B

Explanation:

B on edg.

Answer:

a). C = b/2   and C = b/4

b).  [tex]$ \therefore T = 2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m_1 +m_2}{k (m_1 + m_2)}} = 2 \pi \sqrt{ \mu/k}$[/tex]

c). m = 63.4 kg (approx.)

Explanation:

Ex. 2.4.4

The total force acting on mass m is [tex]$ F = F_{spring }= -kx $[/tex] , where x is the displacement from the equilibrium position.

The equation of motion is [tex]$ m {\overset{..}x} + kx = 0 $[/tex]

or [tex]$ {\overset{..}x}+ \frac{k}{m}x=0 $[/tex]     or   [tex]$ {\overset{..}x} + w_0^2 x = 0 $[/tex] ,    where [tex]$ w_0 = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} $[/tex]  

The solution is [tex]$ x = A \cos (w_0t + \phi) $[/tex] ,  where A and Ф are constants.

A is amplitude of  motion

[tex]$ w_0$[/tex] is the angular frequency of motion

Ф is the phase angle.

Now, [tex]$ w_0 = 2 \pi f_0 = \sqrt{k/m} $[/tex]

or [tex]$ m = \frac{k}{4\pi f_0^2} $[/tex]

Given [tex]$ f_0 = 0.8 Hz , k = 4 N/m $[/tex]

a).  [tex]$ m = \frac{4}{4(3.14)^2(0.8)^2} = 0.158\ kg$[/tex]

b). [tex]$ w_0^2 = k/m $[/tex]  

or  [tex]$ m = k/ w_0^2 = k / (2\pi f_0)^2 = k / 4 \pi^2 f_0^2 $[/tex]

Ex. 2.4.5

a). Total force acting on the mass m is [tex]$F = F_{spring}+f $[/tex]

                                                                    [tex]$ = -kx-bv $[/tex]

    The equation of motion is [tex]$ m {\overset{..}x}= -kx-b{\overset{.}x} $[/tex]

    or [tex]$ w_0 = \sqrt{\frac{k}{m}} $[/tex] ,  angular frequency of the undamped oscillation.

   γ = b/2m  is called the damping coefficient (γ=C)

   [tex]$ k = m w_0^2 = 4 \pi^2 m f_0^2 $[/tex]

   for 1 kg weight (= 9.8 N), [tex]$ f_0$[/tex] = 1.1 Hz

    k = 4 x (3.14)² x (9.8) x 1.1²  = 4.6 x 10² N/m

  For 2 kg weight (= 19.6 N), [tex]$ f_0$[/tex] = 0.8 Hz

    k = 4 x 9.8596 x 2 x 9.8 x 0.8²  = 5 x [tex]$ 10^7$[/tex] N/m

   [tex]$ \gamma = \frac{b}{2m_1} = \frac{b}{2m_2} $[/tex]

or [tex]$ \gamma = \frac{b}{2 \times 1} = \frac{b}{2 \times 2} $[/tex]

γ = b/2 (for 1 kg)  and   γ = b/4 (for 2 kg)

C = b/2   and C = b/4

b). [tex]$ w_0^2 = \frac{k}{m} \Rightarrow \frac{k}{w_0^2} = \frac{k}{(2 \pi f_0)^2} = \frac{k}{4 \pi^2 f_0^2} $[/tex]

 For two particle problem,

   [tex]$ w'_0^2 = \sqrt{\frac{k(m_1+m_2)}{m_1 +m_2}} $[/tex]

[tex]$ \therefore T = 2 \pi \sqrt{\frac{m_1 +m_2}{k (m_1 + m_2)}} = 2 \pi \sqrt{ \mu/k}$[/tex]

where, μ is the reduced mass.

This time period is same for both the particles.

c). [tex]$ m =\frac{k}{4 \pi^2 f_0^2}$[/tex]

        [tex]$ = \frac{5 \times 10^2}{4 \times 9.14^2 \times 0.2} = 63.4\ kg $[/tex]  ( approx.)

Answer:

See the explanation

Explanation:

Given:

Distance of Firecrackers A and B = 600 m

Event 1 = firecracker 1 explodes

Event 2 = firecracker 2 explodes

Distance of lab partner from cracker A = 300 m

You observe the explosions at the same time

to find:

does event 1 occur before, after, or at the same time as event 2?

Solution:

Since the lab partner is at 300 m distance from the firecracker A and Firecrackers A and B are 600 m apart

So the distance of fire cracker B from the lab partner is:

600 m  + 300 m = 900 m

It takes longer for the light from the more distant firecracker to reach so

Let T1 represents the time taken for light from firecracker A to reach lab partner

T1 = 300/c

It is 300 because lab partner is 300 m on other side of firecracker A

Let T2 represents the time taken for light from firecracker B to reach lab partner

T2 = 900/c

It is 900 because lab partner is 900 m on other side of firecracker B

T2 = T1

900 = 300

900 = 3(300)

T2 = 3(T1)

Hence lab partner observes the explosion of the firecracker A before the explosion of firecracker B.

Since event 1 = firecracker 1 explodes and event 2 = firecracker 2 explodes

So this concludes that lab partner sees event 1 occur first and lab partner is smart enough to correct for the travel time of light and conclude that the events occur at the same time.

Answer:

please find the attachment to this question.

Explanation:

In this question, we represent the 100N in the North-East direction, but first, we define the vector representation:

It is generally represented through arrows, whose length and direction reflect the magnitude and direction of the arrow points. In this, both size and direction are necessary because the magnitude of a vector would be a number that can be compared to one vector.

Please find the attachment:

Answer:

The magnetic force is  [tex]\= F = 400\r j + 2800\r i[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are  told that

  The  charge is  [tex]q = -5C[/tex]

  The  velocity is  [tex]v = (1.00\ \r i + 7.00 \ \r j )\ m/s[/tex]

   The  magnetic field is  [tex]B = 80 \r k \ \ T[/tex]

Generally the magnetic force is mathematically represented as

        [tex]\= F = q \= v \ \ X \ \ \= B[/tex]

=>     [tex]\= F = -5 (1.0 \r i + 7.0 \r j ) \ \ X \ \ 80 \r k[/tex]

=>    [tex]\= F = -5.0 \r i + 35\r j \ \ \ X \ \ 80\r k[/tex]

=>  [tex]\= F = 400\r j + 2800\r i[/tex]    N/B - Applied cross - product of unit vector

Answer:

La resistencia que debe ser conectada en paralelo con una de 20 Ω para hacer una  resistencia combinada de 15 Ω tiene un valor de 60 Ω

Explanation:

Las resistencias son aquellos dispositivos en los circuitos eléctricos que suelen emplearse para oponerse al paso de la corriente eléctrica.

Se denomina resistencia resultante o equivalente al valor de la resistencia que se obtiene al considerar un conjunto de ellas.

Cuando tenes resistencias en paralelo la corriente se divide y circula por varios caminos.

La resistencia equivalente de un circuito de resistencias en paralelo es igual al recíproco de la suma de los inversos de las resistencias individuales:

[tex]R=\frac{1}{\frac{1}{R_{1} } +\frac{1}{R_{2} } +...+\frac{1}{R_{N} }}[/tex]

Esto también puede ser expresado como:

[tex]\frac{1}{R} =\frac{1}{R_{1} } +\frac{1}{R_{2} } +...+\frac{1}{R_{N} }[/tex]

Entonces, en este caso sabes:

Reemplazando:

[tex]\frac{1}{15} =\frac{1}{20}+\frac{1}{R2}[/tex]

y resolviendo:

[tex]\frac{1}{R2} =\frac{1}{15} -\frac{1}{20}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{R2} =\frac{1}{60}[/tex]

se obtiene:

R2=60 Ω

La resistencia que debe ser conectada en paralelo con una de 20 Ω para hacer una  resistencia combinada de 15 Ω tiene un valor de 60 Ω

Answer:

3.1 × 10^- 7 m and 2.1 × 10^-7 m

Explanation:

First we must convert each value of energy to Joules by multiplying its value by 1.6 ×10^-19. After that, we can now obtain the wavelength from E= hc/λ

Where;

h= planks constant

c= speed of light

λ= wavelength of light

For 6.0ev;

E= 6.0 × 1.6 ×10^-19

E= 9.6 × 10^-19 J

From

E= hc/λ

λ= hc/E

λ= 6.6 × 10^-34 × 3 × 10^8/9.6 × 10^-19

λ= 2.1 × 10^-7 m

For 4.0 eV

4.0 × 1.6 × 10^-19 = 6.4 × 10^-19 J

E= hc/λ

λ= hc/E

λ= 6.6 × 10^-34 × 3 × 10^8/6.4 × 10^-19

λ= 3.1 × 10^- 7 m

(a) The wavelength of the atom's emission spectrum when the energy is 4 eV is [tex]3.1 \times 10^{-7} \ m[/tex]

(b) The wavelength of the atom's emission spectrum when the energy is 6 eV is

[tex]2.1 \times 10^{-7} \ m[/tex]

The wavelength of the atom's emission spectrum is calculated as follows;

[tex]E = hf\\\\E = \frac{hc}{\lambda}[/tex]

where;

For 4 eV;

[tex]\lambda = \frac{hc}{E} \\\\\lambda = \frac{(6.626 \times 10^{-34}) \times 3\times 10^8}{4 \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19}} \\\\\lambda = 3.1 \times 10^{-7} \ m[/tex]

For 6 eV;

[tex]\lambda = \frac{hc}{E} \\\\\lambda = \frac{(6.626 \times 10^{-34}) \times 3\times 10^8}{6 \times 1.602 \times 10^{-19}} \\\\\lambda = 2.1 \times 10^{-7} \ m[/tex]

Learn more here:https://brainly.com/question/9432100

Your question has been heard loud and clear

Torque = 6Nm

Angular acceleration= 7.5 revolutions / second

Moment of inertia = ?

Torque = Moment of inertia * Angular acceleration

Therefore , moment of intertia = Torque / Angular acceleration

Moment of inertia = 6 / 7.5 = 0.8 Kgm^2

Moment of inertia of wheel = 0.8 Kgm^2

Thankyou

Complete Question

The image for this question is shown on the first uploaded image

Answer:

[tex]v = 3.4 \ m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that

   The mass of the collar is  [tex]m = 2 \ kg[/tex]

    The original length is  [tex]L = 3.0 \ m[/tex]

     The spring constant is  [tex]k = 3.0 \ N/m[/tex]

Generally the extension of the spring  is  mathematically evaluated as

        [tex]e = 4 -3 = 1 \ m[/tex]

Now with Pythagoras theorem we can obtain the length from A to B as

        [tex]AB = \sqrt{5 ^2 + 4^2}[/tex]

       [tex]AB = 6.4 \ m[/tex]

The  extension of the spring at B is  

     [tex]e_b = 6.4 - 3 = 3.4 \ m[/tex]

According to the law of energy conservation

   The energy stored in the spring at point A +  the kinetic energy of the  spring =  The  energy stored on the spring at B

So

     [tex]\frac{1}{2} * k * e + \frac{1}{2} * m* v^2 = \frac{1}{2} * k * e_b[/tex]

substituting values

    [tex]\frac{1}{2} * 3 * 1^2 + \frac{1}{2} * 2* v^2 = \frac{1}{2} * 3 * 3.4^2[/tex]

=>   [tex]v = 3.4 \ m/s[/tex]

Answer:

5 hours

Explanation:

Given that

Speed of the airplane, v = 400 mile/hr

Distance of the airport, s = 2000 miles

This is quite a straightforward question that deals with one of the basic formulas in physics.

Speed.

speed is said to the the ratio of distance covered with respect to the time taken. This can be mathematically expressed as

Speed, v = distance covered, d / time taken, t

v = d / t

In the question above, we're looking for the time taken. So, so make t, subject of formula.

t = d / v, now we proceed to substituting the earlier given values into this equation.

t = 2000 / 400

t = 5 hrs,

therefore we can conclude that the airplane was airborne for 5 hours

Answer:

What is the intensity is 1.3349 × 10⁻⁷ w/m²

Explanation:

Given that;

λ = 582 nm = 582 × 10⁻⁹

R = 75.0 cm = 0.75 m

d = 0.640 mm = 0.000640 m

a = 0.434 mm = 0.000434 m

I₀ =  4.40×10⁻⁴ W/m²

y = 0.710 mm  = 0.00071 m

Now to get our tanФ we say

tanФ = y/R =  0.00071 / 0.75 = 0.0009466  

Ф is so small

∴ tanФ ≈ sinФ

So

∅ = 2πdsinФ / λ

we substitute

∅ = ( 2π × 0.000640 × 0.0009466  ) /  582 × 10⁻⁹

=  6.54 rad

Now

β = 2πasinФ / λ

we substitute

β = ( 2π × 0.000434 × 0.0009466  ) /  582 × 10⁻⁹

β = 4.435 rad

I = I₀ cos²(∅/2) [(sin(β/2))/(β/2)]²

we substitute

I = 4.40×10⁻⁴ cos(3.27)² [ (sin(2.2175)) / (2.2175) ]²  

= 4.40×10⁻⁴ × 0.9967 × 0.0003044

= 1.3349 × 10⁻⁷ w/m²

Complete Question

 An object floats in water with 5/8 of its volume submerged. The ratio of the density of the object to that of water is:

(a) 8/5

(b) 1/2

(c) 3/8

(d) 5/8

(e) 2/1

Answer:

  The correct option is  d

Explanation:

 From the question we are told that

     The ratio of the  volume of the object submerged to the total volume of the object  is  [tex]\frac{V_w}{V_o} = \frac{5}{8}[/tex]

Generally the buoyancy force acting on the object is equal to the weight of the water displaced and this is mathematically represented as

      [tex]F_b = W[/tex]

Now the mass of the water displaced is mathematically represented as

      [tex]m_w = \rho_w * V_w[/tex]

While the mass of the object is mathematically represented as

    [tex]m_o = \rho_o * V_o[/tex]

So  

      [tex]F_b = W \ \equiv \ \rho * V_o * g = \rho * V_w * g[/tex]

   =>    [tex]\frac{V_w}{V_o} = \frac{\rho_o}{\rho_w}[/tex]

From the question that it volume of the water displace (equivalent to the volume of the object in water  ) to the volume of the total object is

        [tex]\frac{V_w}{V_o} = \frac{5}{8}[/tex]

So

     [tex]\frac{\rho_o}{\rho_w} = \frac{5}{8}[/tex]

Answer:

mA=2,mB=4

mA=2,mB=4 and

mA=3,mB=6

Explanation:

First of all we need to write the equation of the networks

sin θ = mA λ / dA

sin θ = mB λ / dB

Equating we have

mA λ/ dA = mB λ / dB

We are given the ratio as

dB / dA = 2

So

mA 2 = mB

Finally overlapping orders

We have

mA=2,mB=4

mA=2,mB=4

and mA=3,mB=6

Answer:

a. d.

Explanation:

isotopes have a diff number of neutrons

A father and his son want to play on a seesaw. Due to his larger size than that of the son, the father should outweigh the boy on the opposing sides.

A seesaw is a long, narrow board with a single pivot point, which is often situated in the middle of both ends. As one end rises, the other falls.

Rugby continues to have far more health advantages than hazards.

A father and his son want to play on a seesaw. Due to his larger size than that of the son, the father should outweigh the boy on the opposing sides.

To know more about seesaw and outweigh

https://brainly.com/question/27823383

#SPJ2

Mass of fish is 5.09Kg

Explanation:

First to find the spring constant K using

k = F/s

= 220/0.15 = 1466.7 N/m

So using the formula

T = 2π√(m/k)

f = 1/T = 1/2πx √(k/m)

f² x 4π²= k/m

So

m = k/(f² x π²)

m = 1466.7/(2.7² x 4π²)

m = 5.09 kg

Answer:

V_ind = 4 × 10^(-4) V

Explanation:

We are given;

Magnetic field; B = 80 μT = 8 × 10^(-5) T

Angle;θ = 30°

Lenght;L = 50 cm = 0.5 m

Speed; v = 20 m/s

Now, formula for the induced potential difference is known as;

V_ind = NBLVsin θ

Where;

V_Ind = Induced potential difference/voltage

N = Number of turns

B = Magnetic field

V = velocity

L = length

Number of turns in this case is 1 since it's just a wire between both ends.

Thus, plugging in the relevant values, we have;

V_ind = 1 × 8 × 10^(-5) × 20 × 0.5 × sin 30

V_ind = 4 × 10^(-4) V

Answer:

OB.It has definite shape and definite volume

Answer:

Area is a scalar quantity because there is no need of direction to define and also follow the algebraic summation. When we talk about vector there exists a frame of reference with a certain origin. It actually depends on the fact of the physical area, but if that factor changes to a non-directional object such as a rug spread on the floor, you can consider the area or a region as a scalar. (*Scalars are quantities that are fully described by a magnitude (or numerical value) alone.)

Hope this helps!

Answer:

yes it was a constant speed and the car traveled 10 meters in 20 seconds.

Explanation:

Answer:

It's a constant speed and the car traveled 10 meters in 20 seconds.

hope this helps!

Explanation: