Answer:Dairy- This is the one animal food that contains carbohydrate. Milk, cheese, and yogurt contain naturally-occurring lactose. If dairy (like yogurt) is sweetened, then it will also contain added sugar like sucrose (white cane sugar) or fructose and glucose (honey and/or HFCS).
The main source of carbohydrates in livestock feed are grains such as oats, wheat, barley, corn, sorghum etc. forages and hay. Fats are an important part of the animal diet; nevertheless, they are needed in small amounts.
a nurse is caring for a client with hyperparthyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dl. which medication
a nurse is caring for a client with hyperparthyroidism and notes that the client's serum calcium level is 13 mg/dl. medication Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
The parathyroid hormone, which is made by the thyroid glands, aids in preserving the proper level of calcium in the blood and in tissues that require calcium for healthy function. For bone health as well as nerve and muscle function, this is extremely crucial.
Hyperparathyroidism comes in two flavors. Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by an overproduction of parathyroid hormone brought on by enlargement of one or more parathyroid glands. High blood calcium levels as a result of this can result in a number of health issues. The most often used therapy for primary hyperparathyroidism is surgery.
Another condition that first results in low calcium levels in the body can lead to secondary hyperparathyroidism. As the body struggles to maintain a high calcium level, elevated parathyroid hormone levels develop over time.
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The nurse is caring for an 8-year-old girl who was in a car accident. Which symptom suggests the child has a cerebral contusion
When a patient is obese or has a thick chest wall, what is difficult to palpate?
A. Grade 4 murmur B. Sternal angle C. JVP D. Apical impulse
When a patient is obese or has a thick chest wall, option D: apical impulse is difficult to palpate.
The best place to measure your heart rate is on your chest, where your apical pulse is located. It is also known as the apex beat and the point of maximal impulse (PMI). Along your arteries are where your other pulse spots are situated. Obesity negatively affects the diastolic function of the heart. Because of different loading conditions and an increased LV mass that may negatively affect the ventricle's passive filling capabilities, obesity can change the LV filling indexes. This can consequently affect apical impulse caused due to affected cardiac output. Thus, option D is the correct choice.
The apex beat, also known as the apical impulse, is the palpable cardiac impulse that is located in the fifth intercostal space, closest to the midclavicular line (MCL), and furthest down on the chest wall. It is typically caused by the LV.
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A nurse is educating a client with a new diagnosis of diabetes. Which example demonstrates cognitive learning by the client
The example that demonstrates cognitive learning by the client is that the client describes signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia.
Diabetes, commonly known as diabetes mellitus, is a collection of metabolic illnesses defined by a persistently high blood sugar level (hyperglycemia). Frequent urination, thirst, and increased hunger are common symptoms. Diabetes, if left untreated, causes a slew of health problems. Diabetic ketoacidosis, hyperosmolar hyperglycemia, and mortality are all examples of acute complications. Cardiovascular disease, stroke, chronic renal disease, foot ulcers, nerve damage, eye damage, and cognitive impairment are all serious long-term consequences.
Diabetics may also develop diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a metabolic disorder marked by nausea, vomiting, and stomach discomfort, the odour of acetone on the breath, deep breathing known as Kussmaul breathing, and, in extreme instances, a lowered level of awareness. DKA necessitates hospitalisation for immediate treatment.
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__________ is a way for individuals to talk about and safely express their thoughts and feelings with a trained medical professional. A. Psychotherapy B. Medication C. Repression D. Avoidance Please select the best answer from the choices provided A B C D
Psychotherapy is a way for individuals to talk about and safely express their thoughts and feelings with a trained medical professional.
Psychotherapy is one method that is commonly used to treat various psychiatric problems, such as severe stress, depression, and anxiety disorders. Through psychotherapy, psychiatrists will guide and train patients to recognize conditions, feelings, and thou get that cause complaints and help patients form positive behavior toward the problem at hand.
Psychotherapy is intended for anyone who realizes that they have psychological problems or are at high risk of experiencing mental disorders and intends to seek help to overcome these problems.
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a patient with ulcers in the mouth is compalining of pain. How would the nurse most likely classify this pain
The nurse would most likely classify this pain as Deep pain.
Pain is a distressing sensory and emotional experience caused by either real or potential tissue injury. The skin and mucous membranes are the source of superficial discomfort. Deep discomfort originates in tissues under the skin. Skeletal muscles, ligaments, and joints cause somatic discomfort. Organs and smooth muscles cause visceral discomfort.
Pain pushes people to avoid dangerous circumstances, safeguard a wounded bodily part while it heals, and avoid similar experiences in the future. Most pain goes away once the noxious stimulus is withdrawn and the body heals, but it can last even after the stimulus is gone and the body appears to be healed. Pain can occur in the absence of any apparent stimuli, injury, or disease.
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During the newborn examination, the nurse notes that an infant who is appropriate for gestational age by birth weight has a head circumference below the 10th percentile and the fontanels (fontanelles) are not palpable. What action would the nurse take
The nurse take action ;Report the findings to the pediatric provider.
What is the newborn's inspection like?
Within 72 hours of giving birth, all parents are entitled to a full physical checkup for their newborn. The checkup involves screening tests to see whether your infant has any eye, heart, hip, or, in boys, testicular issues (testes).
What is a newborn's transitional assessment?4 to 6 hours after delivery is the newborn's transition phase, during which time they should begin to acclimate to life outside the womb. The infant should be checked for temperature, respiration rate, heart rate, color, and tone every 30 to 60 minutes throughout this period (Overview, 2020).
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The nurse is instructing a client with Parkinson's disease about preventing falls. Which client statement reflects a need for further teaching
Client statement: "I should try to get up slowly to help prevent falls." This client statement reflects an understanding of the need to move slowly to help prevent falls. No further teaching is required.
What is Client statement?A client statement is a document that states the position of a client in a business transaction. It is signed by the client and serves as a record of the transaction. The statement outlines the terms and conditions of the agreement, as well as the obligations of both parties. It can be used as evidence in court proceedings, should the need arise. Client statements are often used in the context of contracts, financing arrangements, and other business relationships. They help to ensure that all parties are aware of their rights and obligations, and provide a clear record of the agreement.
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Explain the reason for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers
Answer:
CPT (Current Procedural Terminology) and HCPCS (Healthcare Common Procedure Coding System) modifiers are used in medical billing to provide additional information about the service or procedure being billed for. The purpose of these modifiers is to help ensure that the correct reimbursement is provided for the services rendered, and to provide additional information about the services that may be important for the payer to know.
One of the main reasons for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers is to indicate that a procedure or service was performed multiple times, or that it was performed in a different way than the typical method. For example, if a patient receives two surgeries on the same day, a modifier would be used to indicate that both procedures were performed, and to indicate which procedure was the primary service and which was the secondary service. This allows the payer to bill for both procedures, rather than just one.
Another reason for assigning CPT/HCPCS modifiers is to indicate that a service was performed in a location that is different from the usual site of service. For example, if a patient receives physical therapy in their home, a modifier would be used to indicate that the service was performed in a different location than the usual site of service. This is important because it affects the reimbursement rate, and it allows the payer to understand the reason for the different location.
Modifiers also used to indicate when a service was provided by a different provider than the one who typically performs the service. This is known as split/shared services and it is used when multiple providers working together on a same service.
In addition, CPT/HCPCS modifiers can be used to indicate that a service was provided to a patient under exceptional or unusual circumstances. This could include a service that is provided to a patient in the emergency room, or a service that is provided to a patient who has a unique medical condition. In these cases, the modifier would be used to indicate that the service was provided in a different way than the typical method, and to indicate the unique circumstances that required the service.
In conclusion, CPT/HCPCS modifiers are used in medical billing to provide additional information about the service or procedure being billed for. They are used to indicate that a procedure or service was performed multiple times, in a different way, at a different location or by a different provider. This additional information is important to ensure that the correct reimbursement is provided and that the payer has a full understanding of the services that were rendered.
Explanation:
which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilators treatment are drugs that dilate (open) blood vessels. They have an effect on the muscles in the artery and vein walls, preventing them from tightening and narrowing.
What is Vasodilators?Vasodilators are drugs that dilate (open) blood vessels. They have an effect on the muscles in the artery and vein walls, preventing them from tightening and narrowing. As a result, blood flows through the vessels more easily. The heart does not have to work as hard to pump blood, which lowers blood pressure.The most potent vasodilator known is a novel neuropeptide derived from the calcitonin gene.Vasodilators are medications that dilate (widen) blood vessels, making it easier for blood to flow through them. Some have an immediate effect on the smooth muscle cells that line the blood vessels.Vasodilators are used to treat a variety of medical conditions, the most common of which is systemic hypertension.To learn more about vasodilator refer to :
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a patient with respiratory depression secondary to opiod toxicity is being treated in the ed. what is the nurses priority action
The nurse's priority action is Administer naloxone.
Respiratory depression is caused by severe opioid poisoning. For the treatment of respiratory depression, naloxone is the best option. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist that suppresses opioid effect while improving the patient's respiratory condition. If the naloxone does not restore the respiratory depression, treatments such as blood gas analysis and preparation for intubation should be implemented. If the patient does not respond to the therapy, the respiratory team will be called.
Respiratory depression occurs when the lungs fail to properly exchange carbon dioxide and oxygen. This malfunction causes a buildup of carbon dioxide in the body, which can lead to health problems. Breathing slower and shallower than usual is a frequent indication of respiratory depression.
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The nurse is monitoring a group of patients for ADRs. Which assessment parameter will be the most beneficial in monitoring patients for organ function in an important and common site of drug toxicity
Creatinine is a measure of kidney function and would be the most helpful in monitoring these patients for ADRs.
Drug toxicity is concentrated in the liver, kidneys, and bone marrow. Creatinine is a kidney function test that would be most useful in monitoring these individuals for ADRs. Mental state is a measure of the function of the central nervous system (CNS), which can be impacted by medications but is not one of the most significant and prevalent sites of drug toxicity. Arterial blood gases assess respiratory and acid/base balance. The Homans sign is used to diagnose deep vein thrombosis.
An adverse drug response is a negative, unanticipated consequence of taking medicine. ADRs can occur after a single dose, after a prolonged administration of a medicine, or as a result of the combination of two or more drugs. This concept contrasts from the term "side effect" in that side effects can be both positive and destructive.
The field of pharmacovigilance is concerned with the investigation of ADRs. An adverse drug event is defined as any unexpected and inappropriate occurrence during the administration of a drug, whether or not it is related to the administration of the drug. An ADR is a sort of ADE in which a causal link can be demonstrated. ADRs are simply one sort of medication-related injury; harm can also result from failing to take prescribed drugs.
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when testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of at least
When testing a mechanical suctioning unit, you should turn on the device, clamp the tubing, and ensure that it generates a vacuum pressure of at least 300 mm Hg.
Suctioning is an action to maintain the airway to allow for an adequate gas exchange process by removing secretions from clients who are unable to remove them themselves.
The suction action is a procedure for suctioning mucus, which is carried out by inserting a catheter suction tube through an endotracheal tube. The most appropriate suction pressure is between 80-100 mmHg, the pressure is safe for suctioning because the decrease in oxygen saturation that occurs is not too large.
During preparation ensure that the device generates a vacuum pressure of more than 300 mm Hg.
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The nurse is obtaining vital signs on a 3-month-old infant. What is the most reliable site for assessing the pulse rate in this infant?
The most reliable site for obtaining pulse rate on a 3-month-old infant is: the brachial artery.
The pulse rate is defined as the number of time the heart beats in a minute. The beating of the heart is actually how many time the heart pumps the blood. The normal pulse rate in adults in 60-100 per minute. Whereas in infants, it can be up to 100-150 beats per minute.
Brachial artery is one of the major blood vessels of the upper arm of an individual. It is the further extension of the axillary artery that begins at the lower margin of the teres major muscle. The artery runs up to the crease in front of the elbow.
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what genetic conditions cause cellular injury? (cellular pathology)
Answer:
There are many genetic conditions that can cause cellular injury, also known as cellular pathology. Some examples include:
Sickle cell anemia: a genetic disorder in which the body produces abnormal hemoglobin, leading to the formation of sickle-shaped red blood cells that can become lodged in blood vessels, causing damage to organs and tissues.
Tay-Sachs disease: a genetic disorder in which the body is unable to produce an enzyme necessary for the breakdown of a fatty substance called ganglioside, leading to a build-up of this substance in cells, particularly in the brain and nervous system.
Hemophilia: a genetic disorder in which the blood does not clot properly, leading to excessive bleeding and the potential for injury to internal organs.
Cystic fibrosis: a genetic disorder that affects the secretory glands, which can lead to the accumulation of thick, sticky mucus in the lungs and pancreas, resulting in respiratory and digestive problems.
Huntington's disease: a genetic disorder caused by a mutation in the huntingtin gene, resulting in the degeneration of brain cells, leading to symptoms such as movement disorder, cognitive decline and emotional instability.
These are only a few examples and there are many more genetic conditions which cause cellular injury.
Explanation:
The most prominent reason for the decline in the number of procedures performed in hospitals is:
a. Most of these procedures were shifted to outpatient setting
b. Most of these procedures were deemed outdated
c. Most of these procedures were unsafe
d. Most of these procedures used technology that was too expensive
The main reason for the decrease in the number of procedures performed in the hospital is that the majority of these procedures have been transferred to outpatient settings.
What is outpatient care called?Outpatient care is any consultation, procedure, treatment or other medical service provided without an overnight stay in a hospital or medical facility.
What is outpatient setting (services)?Primary care physicians, community health clinics, urgent care clinics, specialist outpatient clinics, pharmacies, and emergency departments are examples of outpatient settings (services).
What is the main difference between inpatient and outpatient care?In general, inpatient care requires you to stay in the hospital, while outpatient care does not. The big difference is whether you need to be hospitalized or not.
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When teaching a group of nursing students in a psychiatric assistant class about the use of antipsychotic medications, the nurse advises them that certain symptoms can occur within the first few weeks of treatment. Which symptoms are likely to occur
When teaching a group of nursing students in a psychiatric assistant class about the use of antipsychotic medications, the nurse might advise them that certain side effects can occur within the first few weeks of treatment such as extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), akathisia, dystonia, sedation, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperprolactinemia.
Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS): These symptoms include muscle stiffness, tremors, and restlessness.
Akathisia: This is a condition characterized by an overwhelming sense of restlessness and agitation.
Dystonia: This is a condition characterized by muscle spasms and contractions, which can cause twisted and distorted postures.
Sedation: Antipsychotic medications can cause drowsiness, which can make it difficult for the patient to stay awake and alert.
Orthostatic hypotension: This is a condition characterized by a drop in blood pressure when a person stands up, which can cause lightheadedness and dizziness.
Hyperprolactinemia: This is a condition characterized by an elevation of the hormone prolactin, which can cause menstrual irregularities, breast enlargement, and sexual dysfunction.
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individual health policies contain both mandatory and optional provisions. an example of an optional provision would be
Individual health insurance policies include both obligatory and voluntary components. Change of Occupation is an example of an optional provision.
Mandatory Provisions are provisions there under Residential Tenancies Act 1997 (Vic) that imply conditions into the agreement or give rise to rights or responsibilities on the part of the Landlord or the Tenant that cannot be omitted, changed, or restricted. Uniform Policy is an optional policy. Provisions include the responsibility to notify the insurer of changes in one's income, particularly if caused by a handicap, or shifts to a more or less hazardous vocation.
Mediclaim or hospitalisation plans represent the most fundamental form of health insurance. Once you are taken to the hospital, they pay for your care. The compensation is based on real hospital expenditures submitted as original invoices. Most of these policies provide coverage for the entire family up to a specified limit.
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Which statements would be considered appropriate interventions for a client with an endotracheal tube
The statements which would be considered appropriate interventions for a client with an endotracheal tube are the cuff is deflated before the tube is removed, and cuff pressures should be checked every 6 to 8 hours.
The cuff of the endotracheal tube( ETT) is designed to give a seal within the airway, allowing tailwind through the ETT but precluding passage of air or fluids around the ETT. Deliberate or unintentional movement of the ETT may affect cuff pressure or shift crowds in the cuff, marshaling pooled concealment.
The cuff is inflated to shut the airway to deliver instrumental ventilation. A cuff pressure between 20 and 30 cm H2O is recommended to give an acceptable seal and reduce the threat of complications.
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A thorough medication reconciliation will always contain the drug's: Select one: Imprint Shape Size Strength
A thorough medication reconciliation will always contain the drug's strength.
Prescription reconciliation is indeed the way of evaluating a patient's medication orders for all drugs taken by the patient. This reconciliation is performed to eliminate pharmaceutical mistakes including such omissions, duplications, incorrect dose, or drug interactions. It should be performed at every point of care transition where new drugs are prescribed or current orders are revised. Changes in care settings, services, practitioners, or levels of care are examples of transitions.
Medication reconciliation appears to be a simple process. 7 Obtaining and validating the patient's medication history, documenting the patient's medication history, drafting orders for the hospital drug regimen, and producing a medication administration record are all stages for a newly hospitalized patient.
These steps at discharge include assessing the patient's post-discharge pharmaceutical regimen, generating discharge instructions for home medicines, educating the patient, and transferring the medication list to a follow-up physician.
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which form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilators form of treatment is used to promote the healing process by dilating blood vessels which allows for more circulation to occur in the affected area.
Vasodilation is the medical term for when blood vessels in your body widen, allowing further blood to inflow through them and lowering your blood pressure. This is a normal process that happens in your body without you indeed realizing it.
Vasodilators are specifics that open( dilate) blood vessels. They affect the muscles in the walls of the highways and modes, precluding the muscles from tensing and the walls from narrowing. This enables further effective delivery of the vulnerable cells necessary for defense and form. As a result, blood flows more fluently through the vessels.
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You have just discovered a pancreatic mass suspicious of adenocarcinoma in a patient with weight loss and abdominal pain. What associated findings should you look for
When Adenocarcinoma develops in a patient with pain in the abdomen and weight loss, the associated findings that are commonly observed are liver Mets with lymphadenopathy.
Although the discovery of lymphadenopathy occasionally causes patients to worry about a dangerous illness, it typically results from benign infectious cancer in patients evaluated in primary care settings. On the basis of a thorough history and physical examination, the majority of patients can be diagnosed. To rule out generalized lymphadenopathy, localized adenopathy should motivate a search for an adjacent precipitating lesion and an inspection of other nodal regions. The most concerning nodes for cancer are those that are supraclavicular. In patients with isolated nodes and a benign clinical picture, a three- to four-week period of surveillance is recommended. Further clinical examination should always be requested in cases of generalized adenopathy.
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Which increased physiological response would the nurse include when explaining the need for weight loss to a client who is diagnosed with diabetes
The increased physiological response that the nurse would include when explaining the need for weight loss to a client who is diagnosed with diabetes is Insulin requirements.
Obesity causes cellular insulin resistance, requiring more insulin to transfer glucose across cell membranes. Fatty acid metabolism is altered. Fatty acids deteriorate, and storage capacity decreases. Obesity lowers glucose oxidation while increasing insulin needs. Obesity raises the resistance of peripheral cells to glucose admission.
Diabetes is a chronic medical condition that affects how body transforms food into energy. The body converts the bulk of the food eaten into sugar (glucose) and releases it into the circulation. When the blood sugar levels rise, the pancreas sends a signal to the muscles to produce insulin.
The majority of diabetes types have no known cause. Sugar builds up in the bloodstream under all circumstances. This is caused to the pancreas producing inadequate insulin. Diabetes, both type 1 and type 2, can be caused by a combination of inherited and environmental factors.
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At visit 3, Subject 411, a subject in a clinical trial of a pacemaker with an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) was noted to have a malfunctioning of the ICD sensing system resulting in frequent ICD discharges (shocks). Subject 411 was admitted to the hospital to have the ICD removed and replaced. The investigator should:
The investigator should report this event as an UADE (unanticipated adverse device effect) to the sponsor and IRB within ten working days.
This event is considered unanticipated because the subject had not previously experienced frequent ICD discharges (shocks) and the malfunctioning of the ICD sensing system was not anticipated. Reporting this event is important for patient safety and to ensure that the sponsor and the IRB are aware of any potential hazards of the device.
Additionally, reporting this event within ten working days allows for quicker action on the part of the sponsor and IRB to investigate the cause of the ICD malfunction and take corrective action if necessary. It also allows for the investigation of the ICD device and any potential risks that may be associated with its use.
By reporting this event as an UADE, it will ensure that patient safety is a priority and that any potential risks are monitored and addressed.
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What is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease
A screening test is performed for a patient who does not have symptoms, abnormal findings, or any past history of the disease.
A screening test is utilize to discover probable health issues as well as illnesses in persons who are asymptomatic. The objective is early identification and lifestyle adjustments or surveillance to lower illness risk or diagnose disease early enough to treat it is most effectively. Screening tests are not diagnostic; rather, they are designed to select a portion of the population who really should undergo further testing to assess the presence or absence of illness.
While screening tests aren't always 100% accurate, it is often more helpful to have them at the suggested times by your healthcare professional than not to have them at all.
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Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4' 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:
The area of psoriasis which is detected in Mrs. Britton is indicative of plaque, which means option A is the right answer.
The plaque refers to the sticky film of bacteria which is constantly formed on teeth. It is caused due to left over food which deteriorates inside the mouth with the help of good bacteria present inside the mouth in the saliva. Psoriasis is a skin disease in which rashes and itchy skin is formed on the body which causes irritation and in extreme cases may even lead to fever and headache like condition. It can worsen in case of injury, alcohol consumption, smoking or stress. It is a chronic disease which can be treated through some medications but no permanent cure is available.
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To refer to complete questions, see below:
Mrs. Britton is a 34-year-old patient who presents to the office with complaints of skin rashes. You have noted a 4- × 3-cm, rough, elevated area of psoriasis. This is an example of a:
a. plaque.
b. patch.
c. macule.
d. papule.
The nurse is reinforcing education to a client with a venous thromboembolism who is prescribed rivaroxaban. Which statement by the client indicates the medication teaching has been effective?
1. "I need to continue to avoid eating spinach and kale."
2. "I probably will have some weakness in my legs when I take this medicine."
3. "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
4. "I will have to get blood drawn routinely to check my clotting levels."
Answer: 3 "I should avoid taking aspirin while receiving this medication."
Factor Xa inhibitors (eg, rivaroxaban [Xarelto], edoxaban, apixaban) are anticoagulants used to prevent and treat venous thromboembolism. Factor Xa inhibitors are being prescribed more frequently than other oral anticoagulants (eg, warfarin), as they have a lower risk of bleeding and require less ongoing monitoring (eg, PT/INR).
The combined anticoagulant effects increase the risk for uncontrolled bleeding and hemorrhage.
What is rivaroxaban ?
Rivaroxaban is an anticoagulant drug (blood thinner) used to treat and prevent blood clots. It is marketed under the trade names Xarelto and others. In particular, it is used to avoid blood clots in atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, and pulmonary emboli as well as to treat these conditions, as well as to prevent them after hip or knee surgery. It is ingested orally.
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The nurse is admitting to the hospital an older adult client with a terminal illness and a large, extended family. Which situations are within the role of the bedside nurse
When dealing with an older adult having a terminal illness, the following practices will be under the scope of the nurse -helping the family resolve disputes - giving advice to family members on good coping mechanisms along with serving the duties of a bedside nurse.
Being faced with your own death is painful, emotional, and frightening. Through the tactful application of counseling techniques, nurses can assist patients and their families in coping with this crisis. By doing this, kids will also become more conscious of their own opinions and sentiments on the matter. Being at home helps a lot of terminally ill patients temporarily stabilize, and their families are pleased to take care of them. Sometimes patients' families are perplexed when they suddenly get sick because they have a tendency to believe that they will survive death.
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As you grow older, you will need to remain physically active to keep a good level of physical fitness. Please select the best answer from the choices provided. T F4
The given statement is true because as one gets older, mental as well as physical health declines considerably. Without regular physical activity, the joints and body parts become stiff, and eventually, movement becomes painful and difficult.
The desire to maintain their independence and autonomy is one of the key factors that influence long-term living and care decisions for many seniors. Physical health and mobility are important, even if there are many other elements that might impact a person's capacity to live and function independently. An individual's capacity to carry out activities of daily living and their quality of life can be adversely affected by chronic illness, injury, physical limitations, trouble moving around, and poor cognitive health. Exercise is fortunately a quick and easy technique for elders to safeguard their physical health and their freedom. Regular physical activity can help older persons continue to live independently by protecting them against disease, injury, and cognitive decline.
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The nurse is collecting data from a child who may have a seizure disorder. Which nursing observations suggest an absence seizure
The nursing observations suggests an absence seizure is Minimal or no alteration in muscle tone, with a brief loss of responsiveness or attention.
A seizure is a sudden, uncontrollable electrical breakdown in the brain. It can influence your behaviour, movements, and sensations, as well as your level of consciousness. The term "epilepsy" refers to two or more seizures that occur at least 24 hours apart and are not induced by a known cause.
Seizures can occur both provoked and unprovoked. Provoked seizures occur as a result of a transitory event such as low blood sugar, alcohol withdrawal, alcohol abuse while taking prescription medicine, low blood sodium, fever, brain infection, or concussion. Unprovoked seizures occur when there is no recognised or treatable cause, and they are likely to continue. Stress or sleep deprivation may aggravate unprovoked seizures. Epilepsy is a brain condition in which there has been at least one spontaneous seizure and there is a significant chance of future seizures. Fainting, nonepileptic psychogenic seizure, and tremor are examples of conditions that appear to be epileptic seizures but are not.
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