Answer:
D. All of the above
Explanation:
Can't see option C, but since the other two options are functions of the immune system, I assume it'd be true. The immune system is meant to protect the body from infections.
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In prokaryotes, new mutations accumulate quickly in populations, while in eukaryotes, new mutations accumulate much more slowly. The primary reasons for this are ________.
In prokaryotes, new mutations accumulate quickly in populations, while in eukaryotes, new mutations accumulate much more slowly. The primary reasons for this are prokaryotes reproduce quickly and have vast populations.
Prokaryotes V/S EukaryotesProkaryotesProkaryotes are organisms consisting of cells that don't have cell nuclei or any organelles that are enclosed in membranes. It follows that prokaryote's DNA is not contained within a nucleus.
The following components could be found in a normal prokaryotic cell:
The membrane enclosing and guarding the cell is known as the cell wall.All of the cell's internal components, excluding the nucleus, are called cytoplasm.Some prokaryotic cells have filaments made of proteins called flagella and pili.A nucleoid is a cell structure that resembles a nucleus and contains genetic material.A plasmid is a little DNA molecule with independent reproduction.EukaryotesEukaryotes are organisms made up of cells with membrane-bound organelles and a nucleus that contains DNA in the form of chromosomes. Eukaryotic organisms can have several cells or just one cell. Eukaryotes make up all animal life. Protists, fungi, and plants are examples of additional eukaryotes.
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A human somatic cell is in g1 of the cell cycle. How many physical copies of the ldlr gene does this cell have?
A human somatic cell is in g1 of the cell cycle. The cell will have two copies of the ldlr gene.
Humans are diploid, which means that each chromosome has two copies.Since a diploid organism is produced by the union of two gametes, each of which contains one set of chromosomes (N), diploid cells (all the cells in our body aside from our gametes) have 2N. It helps to think of chromosomes as bundles of genetic data when discussing chromosome number (ploidy). Because each sister chromatid has genetic material (alleles) inherited from just one parent, they make up one chromosome.A diploid organism has two copies of each gene during G1 of interphase. The cell is only developing and functioning normally in the body during the G1 phase.learn more about G1 phase here: https://brainly.com/question/11779221
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Identify the role of the organism in the community
The role of an organism in the community will depend on its position on the food web (e.g., producer, primary consumer, secondary consumer, etc).
What is a trophic role?A trophic role can be defined by the particular position that an organism has in the food web.
For example, plants are producers that generate biomass, whereas herbivores are primary consumers.
In conclusion, the role of an organism in the community will depend on its position on the food web.
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Stomach acidity is in the range of ph 1 to 2. How might this inhibit the growth of ingested bacteria?
Stomach acidity is in the range of pH 1 to 2 because of the presence of hydrochloric acid (HCL) and pepsin.
Cells in the stomach are responsible for the secretion of HCL in the stomach lumen.For the clearance of ingested bacteria, a particular range of pH is required. HCl and pepsin present in the gastric lumen can kill the bacteria within 15 min if the pH of the lumen gets maintained below 3. If the pH of the lumen increased by 4, it can cause bacterial overgrowth and the establishment of infection.
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a short sequence of DNA is replicated using a mixture of dideoxynucleotide triphosphates, which lack a hydroxyl group at the 3' location. The new strands are separated from the old DNA
Sanger sequencing mimics the natural process of DNA replication by using dummy nucleotides to stop replication whenever a specific nucleotide is encountered. Because this truncated replication happens repeatedly, nucleic acids of various lengths accumulate and can be used to determine the position of each nucleotide in the sequence
ddNTPs are included (dideoxynucleoted)
A representation of 16 nucleotides arranged in a single horizontal strand of DNA is shown. Horizontal cylinders represent the deoxyribose sugar molecule and vertical rectangles represent the nitrogenous base in each nucleotide. The deoxyribose sugar and nitrogenous base of a single DNA strand are shown in grey. Below the single strand are four DDNTPs and four individual nucleotides. Sugar molecules are black in the bottom four DDNTPs in the bottom four individual nucleotides. To represent the bases' chemical identities, the nitrogenous bases on the DDNTPs and the lower four nucleotides are colored differently: DDATP is green, DDCTP is orange, DDTTP is red, and DDGTP is blue. Thymine is blue, cytosine is orange, and adenine is green.
DNA sequence :
DNA sequencing is the process of determining the order of the nucleotides within a gene. The first DNA sequencing methods were time-consuming, but a major breakthrough came in 1975 with the development of the Sanger sequencing method. Sanger sequencing is named after the English biochemist Frederick Sanger, and it is also known as chain-termination sequencing or dideoxy sequence. The Sanger method was used to sequence the human genome some 25 years after its invention, and it remains an important method in laboratories around the world today, despite many technological advances and modifications.
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Which procedure is contraindicated in an antepartum client with bright red, painless bleeding?
A vaginal exiamination contraindicated in an antepartum client with bright red, painless bleeding.
If a patient has bright red vaginal bleeding, a vaginal examination should be avoided until placenta previa has been ruled out. Vaginal bleeding is referred to as antepartum haemorrhage. It is most frequently observed in the third trimester and is linked to high rates of maternal and foetal morbidity and mortality.
Placental previa, placental abruption, and bloody labour show are common causes of antepartum haemorrhage. Vaginal haemorrhage, stiff uterus, and lower abdominal pain are frequently present placental abruption symptoms. Contrarily, placenta previa and vasa previa often present with painless vaginal bleeding and foetal discomfort prior to or following the rupture of the membranes, respectively.
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Methicillin is an example of the beta-lactam class of drugs that?
Answer:
Meticillin (INN, BAN) or methicillin (USAN) is a narrow spectrum beta-lactam antibiotic of the penicillin class.
Explanation:
Like other beta-lactam antibiotics, methicillin acts by inhibiting the synthesis of bacterial cell walls. It inhibits cross-linkage between the linear peptidoglycan polymer chains that make up a major component of the cell wall of gram-positive bacteria.
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Answer:
target gram-positive bacteria
Explanation:
To be specific, they block the synthesis of the bacterial cell wall that is composed of peptidoglycan which methicillin targets
Mitosis is a type of cell division. Organize the images below to show the steps of mitosis.
The image in the correct order in which mitosis will occur will be 3, 4, 2, and 1.
What is mitosis?It is the division of vegetative cells that results in the formation of 2 daughter cells.
There are 4 stages of mitosis - prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. Thereafter, the cytoplasm divides in a process known as cytokinesis.
At prophase, the nuclear membrane dissolves and the chromatin material condenses.
At metaphase, the chromosomes align at the center of the cell while the spindle fiber engages each of them from the opposite ends of the cell.
At anaphase, chromosomes are pulled apart and sister chromatids of the same chromosome begin migrating towards opposite ends of the cell.
At telophase, migration of chomatids complete.
Thereafter, the nuclear membrane reappears around each chromosome, the chromosomes decondense, and the cytoplasm divides to give two independent cells.
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NB: The reference image in the question has been attached.
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Psl 250 when the ventricles are contracting, blood is flowing through which valves?
Pulmonary valve and Aortic valve
During systole, the aortic and pulmonic valves open to permit ejection into the aorta and pulmonary artery.
What happen when ventricles contract ?When the right ventricle contracts, blood is forced through the pulmonary semilunar valve into the pulmonary artery
Then it travels to the lungs. In the lungs, the blood receives oxygen then leaves through the pulmonary veins. It returns to the heart and enters the left atrium.When the left ventricle contracts, it forces blood through the aortic semilunar valve and into the aorta. The aorta and its branches carries the blood to all the body's tissues.Learn more about Ventricles here:
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The best way to prevent ________ is to thoroughly cook eggs, chicken, and other foods to kill the bacterium.
The best way to prevent food poisoning is to thoroughly cook eggs, chicken, and other foods to kill the microorganisms.
What is food poisoning?Food poisoning is defined as the contamination of food by disease causing microorganisms which can affect the well being of an individual.
In order to prevent this from happening, the food should be:
Thoroughly preheated,Thoroughly cooked andAnd washed before eating.Learn more about food poisoning here;
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Telomerase is needed in DNA replication to fully reproduce the Group of answer choices soma in the cells bodies. sanchi levels in cells necessary for continued replication. telomeres when cells divide. cross-linking collagen needed for cell survival.
(c) Telomeres when cells divide.
What does the telomere do in the body?A chromosome's end contains a stretch of repeating DNA sequences known as a telomere. Chromosome ends are shielded from fraying or tangling by telomeres. The telomeres get a little bit shorter every time a cell divides. They eventually get so short that the cell can no longer successfully divide, and the cell then perishes.
With age, telomere length decreases. The health and lifespan of an individual are impacted by the progressive shortening of telomeres, which causes senescence, apoptosis, or oncogenic transformation of somatic cells. Reduced survival and higher illness incidence have been linked to shorter telomeres.
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True vertebrates have a true head that develops from a neural crest of cells and hard structures surrounding the notochord.
Yes. True vertebrates have a true head that develops from a neural crest of cells and hard structures surrounding the notochord.
The neural crest, which forms early in the development process in vertebrate embryos, is a fold on the neural plate where the neural and epidermal ectoderms converge. As an embryo grows, the neural crest produces neural crest cells (NCCs), which can differentiate into a variety of different cell types and contribute to tissues and organs.
The notochord is a temporary structure that plays a crucial role in higher animals. It secretes substances that communicate with all neighbouring tissues, telling them where they are and what will happen to them.
Therefore, True vertebrates have a true head that develops from a neural crest of cells and hard structures surrounding the notochord.
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What aspect of the run chart helps you compare data before and after a pdsa cycle?
The baseline median AND annotations of while particular changes were examined (PDSA cycles)both the median and annotations marking particular changes permit you to see how observations earlier than your PDSA cycle evaluate those that come after.
Control charts help health systems measure healthcare processes and determine the strategy and scope for an improvement initiative. The control chart can help determine the focus of the next PDSA cycle in one of four areas: Identifying variation. Understanding variation.
A trend on a run chart is five or greater consecutive factors all going up or all going down. If the cost of or more successive points is the same, ignore one of the points whilst counting. Like values do now not make or destroy a trend.
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Which type of archaebacteria are found in the same environments as those of bacteria?
Group of answer choices
Methanogens
Nonextreme Archaebacteria
All of the choices
Extremophiles
The type of archaebacteria are found in the same environments as those of bacteria are methanogens (option A).
What is Archeaebacteria?Archaebacteria are a diverse group of bacteria that belongs to the domain Archaea. They are exemplified by their ability to survive in extremely harsh environments.
There are three major classes of Archaebacteria as follows:
methanogenshalophilesthermophilesMethanogens are any of various archaebacteria that is capable of methanogenesis, which is the production of methane anaerobically.
Halophiles and thermophiles are found typically in extreme environments of high salinity and high temperature respectively.
Therefore, the type of archaebacteria are found in the same environments as those of bacteria are methanogens.
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In general, the greatest vulnerability to teratogens occurs during:____.
a. the last part of the fetal period of prenatal development.
b. the embryonic period of prenatal development.
In general, the greatest vulnerability to teratogens occurs during the embryonic period of prenatal development.
A teratogen is something that, when exposed to a growing embryo or fetus, can result in birth defects or other abnormalities.Teratogens include certain pharmaceuticals, illicit substances, tobacco, chemicals, alcohol, certain illnesses, recreational drugs, and in rare situations, medical conditions including uncontrolled diabetes in pregnant women.Ten to fourteen days after conception, teratogens can start to damage the growing embryo. There are times when the developing organ systems exhibit greater sensitivity to teratogens during embryonic development.Teratogens can also have an impact on pregnancies and result in issues like premature labor, spontaneous abortions, or miscarriages. Physical agents, metabolic circumstances, infections, and finally, medications and chemicals, are the four categories into which teratogens are divided.learn more about teratogens here:https://brainly.com/question/9798697
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Which of the following is TRUE about bacteria?
Group of answer choices
Autotrophic bacteria are responsible for the recycling of nitrogen, phosphorus, and carbon.
All bacteria cause diseases.
Some bacteria help to process foods or control agricultural pests through chemicals or genetic engineering.
All bacteria are heterotrophs that require oxygen to survive.
The TRUE statement about bacteria is "Some bacteria help to process foods or control agricultural pests through chemicals or genetic engineering". The third option is correct.
One crucial fact about bacteria is that some of them favourably affect food processing and agricultural pest management. Bacteria perform many different functions on our planet.
In the food industry, these helpful bacteria are used to ferment different goods, such as yoghurt and cheese, boosting flavour and nutritional value.
Additionally, certain bacteria function as biopesticides, aiding farmers in pest management without the use of hazardous chemicals.
Additionally, genetic engineering is used to harness microorganisms to create useful materials like pharmaceuticals and enzymes, which help a variety of businesses.
This emphasises the important part that certain bacteria play in enhancing food production, sustainability, and human welfare.
Thus, the third option is correct.
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Lithified ash (or ash mixed with pyroclastic fragments) forms a volcaniclastic rock called a:________
Lithified ash (or ash mixed with pyroclastic fragments) forms a volcaniclastic rock called a Tuff.
A form of rock called tuff is created when volcanic ash is blasted from a vent during an eruption. The ash is transformed into a rock after ejection and deposition. Tuff is defined as rock with an ash content of more than 75%, whereas tuffaceous refers to rock with an ash content of 25% to 75%.The thickness of tuff often decreases with distance from the volcano and is usually greatest close to the volcanic vent. The typical shape of a tuff deposit is that of a "lens," not a "layer." Tuff may also be thickest on the vent's side that faces away from the wind or on the side facing the direction of the blast.
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Which other body areas would if tested prove to have a high density of sweat glands?
Soles of feet, palms, underarms, forehead will have a high density of sweat glands when tested.
Increased friction on bare feet is a fourth potential benefit of sweating on the soles. This is believed to have aided our ancestors in gaining a firmer footing when fleeing from predators or any other danger. All over the body, sweat glands are responsible for producing sweat.Your hypothalamus, a tiny part of your brain, signals to the eccrine sweat glands dispersed throughout your body that it is time to start cooling you down by creating sweat as soon as your body's internal temperature starts to rise. However, cooling off is more difficult than having your perspiration simply drip off of you.learn more about sweat glands here: https://brainly.com/question/19763172
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What is the highest total blood cholesterol concentration (mg/dL) that falls within the desirable range
Cholesterol levels below 200 mg/dl are considered "desirable blood cholesterol," 200 to 239 mg/dl are considered "borderline-high blood cholesterol," and 240 mg/dl and above are considered "high blood cholesterol."
There are two forms of cholesterol: low-density lipoprotein (LDL) and high-density lipoprotein. Cholesterol is a waxy, fatty molecule (HDL).The "bad" cholesterol LDL, or too much of it, can accumulate in blood arteries and form plaques, which are fatty deposits.Heart attacks and strokes are only two more issues that these plaques can cause.Low levels of both total and LDL cholesterol are ideal. However, having higher levels of HDL, or "good," cholesterol, may lower your chance of having a heart attack or stroke.Doctors can check your total cholesterol, HDL, and LDL levels.learn more about Cholesterol levels here: https://brainly.com/question/841110
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The plasma membrane is ____________ permeable and allows some, but not all, substances to pass through it.
animal which have no backbone name of there kingdom ???
Answer: invertebrates
Explanation:
If an organism with the genotype aabb produces gametes, what proportion of the gametes would be bb?
Assuming independent genes and normal meiotic events, the gametes of an individual with genotype aabb are ab, ab, ab, ab. There are no bb gametes. The answer is NONE.
What is a gamete?
A gamete is a haploid cell that results from the meiotic division of germ cells during gametogenesis.
These haploid cells have half the number of chromosomes of somatic and germ cells, and their destiny is to merge with another gamete to produce a new diploid cell.
During gamete formation, homologous chromosomes separate after crossing over, and finally, sister chromatids separate too, resulting in four haploid cells, each of them with a different allele combination.
When genes are in different chromosomes or far from each other in the same chromosome, they express independent assortment during meiosis. These genes are independent.
Independent assortment means that during a meiotic event, alleles from two or more different genes distribute in gametes independently from each other.
Each gamete receives an allele of a gene that does not depend on nor influence the allele of another gene in the same gamete.
In the exposed example, the homozygous recessive genotype is composed of two diallelic genes ⇒ aabb
Genotype: aabbAllele combination ⇒ Gametes ⇒ ab, ab, ab, ab
Assuming independent genes, unless there is some sort of problem during meiosis, there are no gametes bb, because gametes result from the combination of both genes.
The answer is NONE. There are no gametes bb.
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Destruction of the supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus would have which result?
A) loss of ADH secretionB) loss of GH secretionC) loss of melatonin secretionD) loss of emotional responseE) loss of loss of regulatory factor secretion
A )loss of ADH secretion.
Destruction of the supra-optic nucleus of the hypothalamus can cause loss of ADH secretion. Reason behind this is antidiuretic hormone are synthesized in hypothalamic supra optic nerves .Hence, destruction of supra optic nerve in the hypothalamus will alter the production and secretion of ADH . ADH is stored in posterior pituitary gland and is released into the circulation in response to extracellular fluid changes by the osmoreceptors in the brain.
Deficiency of ADH can cause or insensitivity of the kidney to ADH also known as nephrogenic diabetes insipidus. These patients, if untreated, have the predictable result of dehydration, hyperosmolality, hypovolemia, and eventual death in severe cases.
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Consider a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, rabbits, and foxes. The primary productivity of the grass is 200 units. What is the maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be
The maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be recycled from fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level is 0 units.
A food chain describes who eats whom in the wild. Every living thing – from unicellular algae to giant blue whales – needs food to survive. Every food chain is a possible pathway that energy and nutrients can travel through an ecosystem. The primary productivity of the grass is 200 units. There is a 10 fold decrease in the amount of energy units as we move upwards in production chain. So from grass to rabbits we lose energy. The foxes will only really have two units once it's decreased by 10 fold again. The grass does not get any energy from the decaying bodies of foxes, they get the minerals that they need to grow. And so the correct answer to this question is 0 units because when the energy gets recycled from fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level it will be totally reduced.
Note: The question seems to be incomplete. So the complete question is "Consider a hypothetical food chain consisting of grass, rabbits, and foxes. The primary productivity of the grass is 200 units. What is the maximum amount of energy that we should expect to be recycled from the fox trophic level back to the grass trophic level? Answer choices: A) 0 units B) 0.2 units C) 2 units D) 20 units"
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Atp energizes other molecules in cells by transferring a(n) ________ to those molecules.
ATP energizes other molecules in cells by transferring phosphate groups to those molecules.
An energy-demanding process can be coupled to ATP hydrolysis in a cell in one of two ways: either ATP is used to activate a reactant, or ATP is used to alter a reactant's form. Transferring a phosphate group to the reactant results in the phosphorylation of the product, which can be used to accomplish either goal.
Cells can use chemical energy known as ATP, or adenosine triphosphate. It is the molecule that gives your cells the power to accomplish things like contract your muscles as you walk down the street.
Therefore, ATP energizes other molecules in cells by transferring phosphate groups to those molecules.
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Glycolysis occurs in a series of 10 steps using 10 different enzymes. Place the following broad events that occur during glycolysis into their correct order.
1. Hexokinase 2. Phosphoglucose Isomerase 3. Phosphofructokinase 4. Aldolase 5. Triosephosphate isomerase 6. Glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate Dehydrogenase 7. Phosphoglycerate Kinase 8. Phosphoglycerate Mutase 9. Enolase 10. Pyruvate Kinase
What is Glycolysis ?A process in which glucose (sugar) is partially broken down by cells in enzyme reactions that do not need oxygen.
Glycolysis is one method that cells use to produce energy. When glycolysis is linked with other enzyme reactions that use oxygen, more complete breakdown of glucose is possible and more energy is produced.The main aim of glycolysis is to synthesize thousands of ATP molecules used for various cellular metabolism.Learn more about Glycolysis here:
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The use of a thiazide diuretic that inhibits NaCl reabsorption in the distal tubule does which of the following
Thiazide diuretics promote natriuresis and diuresis.
Thiazide diuretics are an FDA-approved class of drugs that inhibit reabsorption of 3% to 5% of luminal sodium in the distal convoluted tubule of the nephron. By doing so, thiazide diuretics promote natriuresis and diuresis.
What is Thiazide diuretics ?Thiazide diuretics are a common treatment for high blood pressure (hypertension). They are also used to clear fluid from the body in conditions where your body accumulates too much fluid, such as heart failure.
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After fertilization, the newly formed zygote begins to divide into multiple cells through a process called __________.
Mitosis is the process by which a newly formed zygote after fertilization begins to divide into multiple cells.
What is mitosis?Mitosis is a type of cell division that results in two daughter cells each having the same number and kind of chromosomes as the parent nucleus, typical of ordinary tissue growth.The major purpose of mitosis is for growth and to replace worn out cells.To know more about mitosis, refer :
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On entering the lungs, the primary bronchi divide to form smaller bronchi called:_____.
On entering the lungs, the primary bronchi divide to form smaller bronchi called lobar.
The secondary lobar bronchi or just lobar bronchi are the primary subdivision of the main (or number one) bronchi. Like the number one and tertiary bronchi, they're undertaking airways that are covered by way of cartilage. The left foremost bronchus offers rise to two secondary bronchi: the left upper lobe bronchus.
The right important bronchus subdivides into three lobar bronchi, even as the left important bronchus divides into two. The lobar bronchi (additionally referred to as secondary bronchi) divide into tertiary bronchi, each of which supplies air to a one-of-a-kind bronchopulmonary segment.
The segmental bronchi divide into many smaller bronchioles that divide into terminal bronchioles, after which into respiration bronchioles, which divide into 2 to 11 alveolar ducts.
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Cyclophosphamide and thiotepa are examples of:
Answer:
ALKYLATING AGENTS
Explanation:
Examples of alkylating agents include chlorambucil, cyclophosphamide, thiotepa, and busulfan.
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