What is the value of x?

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Answer:

5

Step-by-step explanation:

As corresponding lines are equal

16x+1 = 79

16x = 80

x = 5

Answer:

4 and .7 aproximately cups of chocolate chips

Step-by-step explanation:

If 1 batch requires 1 1/3cups, mutliply that by 3, to get 4. Then we can roughly estimate that half of 1 and 1/3 is .7 cups.

Answer:

6 = W + 2

Explanation:

The reason is since the hangar balance is "balanced" and there are six units on the left side and only 2 on the right (minus the variable weight), that means that the left weight is equal to the right and therefore 6u=w+2u.

Answer:

The answer is d.

Answer:

1 5/12

Step-by-step explanation:

use the keep change flip method (KCF)

Answer:

First Quartile Q1 = 13

Second Quartile Q2 = 29

Third Quartile Q3 = 43

Interquartile Range IQR = 30

Median = Q2 x˜ = 29

Minimum Min = 4

Maximum Max = 64

Range R = 60

Answer:

Median (Q2): 29

Lower quartile (Q1) = 13

Upper quartile (Q3): 43

Step-by-step explanation:

There are a total of 15 numbers in the data set:

4, 10, 11, 13, 14, 15, 25, 29, 33, 33, 35, 43, 51, 58, 64

Minimum (Q0): 4

Lower quartile (Q1) = 13

Median (Q2): 29

Upper quartile (Q3): 43

Maximum (Q4): 64

Hope this helps!

Answer:

42 and 41

Step-by-step explanation:

So how I did it tbh I went everywere with this but I went backwards because the how you find the mean of something is adding all the values and then dividing them by the number of values(40+41+42+45+45+48+54=315, 315divided by 7=45) but anyway 45x7(because multiplication is the opposite of division)that equals 315-232 which is the answer to 40+45+48+54+45 which were the numbers that were given

Answer:

I think it's 4 ft.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

i think it c

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

or 2/3

Step-by-step explanation:

because two flips out of 3 all together is 2/3

Answer:

6

Step-by-step explanation:

First, find the total number for the set of four numbers. To do this, multiply 3.5 and 4. We do this because the mean is division, so we need to get back to the original amount.

3.5 x 4 = 14

Next, we need to find the other total when the mean is 4. There are 5 numbers, which tells us we had to divide the total by 5 to get 4. So, again, we want to multiply the mean, 4, and the 5 to get the total.

5 x 4 = 20

Finally, find the number we added in. To do this, we subtract the two totals.

20 - 14 = 6

Answer:

These would be complementary angles.

Step-by-step explanation:

Complementary angles are angles that add up to 90 degrees.

Answer:

m∠1= 31°  m∠2=149°

m∠3= 31° m∠4=149°

m∠6=31° m∠7=149°

m∠8=31°

Step-by-step explanation:

m∠1 + m∠5= 180°

m∠1=180-149

m∠1=31°

m∠2+m∠1=180

m∠2=149°

m∠6=31°

m∠3=m∠1 (corresponding angle)

m∠3=31° m∠8=31° (vertical angle)

m∠4=149° m∠7=149° (vertical angle)

Answer:

14:  T=(0.75,-1) U=(0.75,1.25) V=(-0.75,1.25)

15: W=(-0.75,-1)

16: The error is that if something lies on the X Axis, it has a Y Value of 0.

Answer:

fROM what I am looking at it is four

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

-7, -3, -1, 2, 5

Step-by-step explanation:

-7 is the farthest away from zero so that is why it's first then it's -3 bc of the same thing and -1. Then for 2&5 u literally should know that 2<5.

Answer:

All the answer choices are the solutions to the inequality.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]\frac{p}{6}[/tex] is equivalent to [tex]\frac{1}{6}p[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1}{6}p-1 < -2\\\\. \ \ \ +1 \ \ \ +1\\\\\frac{1}{6}p < -1\\\\6(\frac{1}{6}p < -1)\\\\1p < -6\\\\/1 \ \ \ \ \ /1\\\\y < -6[/tex]

With our solution, we know that p is any number that is less that -6.

-42 < -6

correct

-66 < -6

correct

-90 < -6

correct

-134 < -6

correct

Therefore, all the answer choices are the solutions to the inequality.

Hope this helps!

Answer:  pool b

Step-by-step explanation:

the bigger the number then it the nearest to the tens and it smaller its easy i use common sense

Answer:

25.12

Step-by-step explanation:

circumference is 2 x π x r or π x d

so 8 x π would give you 25.12

Answer:

C.

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for the circumference is:

C = [tex]\pi[/tex]d

C = (3.14)(8)

C = 25.12

The circumference of the circular shaped rug would 25.12 feet.

hope this helps :)

We need volume

So

volume:-

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail \dfrac{9}{10}\times \dfrac{1}{3}[/tex]

[tex]\\ \rm\rightarrowtail \dfrac{3}{10}ft^3[/tex]

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

True

Step-by-step explanation:

Circumference of a circle: [tex]2\pi r[/tex]

[tex]2\pi r\\2*\pi*1\\2\pi\\2(3.14)\\6.28\ in.[/tex]

Therefore, the statement is true. The circumference of the circle is 6.28 inches.

Hope this helps!

Answer:

You want to find the treasure shown on the map. To get to the treasure, start at 1% and move to 100%. The only way you can move on the map is if a number is greater than the number you are currently on.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

Part A-      Surface area = 150cm squared

Step-by-step explanation:

First you find the area of one side of the cube-

side length (5) x side length (5) = area (25)

25 is the area of one side of the cube.

Then you multiple the area of one side (25) by the amount of sides that there are (6)-

25 x 6 = 150

Answer:

3262.9 cm^3

Step-by-step explanation:

Formula =

[tex] \frac{4}{3} \times \pi r ^{3} [/tex]

Pi = 3.145

So,

[tex] \frac{4}{3} \times 3.145 \times 9.2 ^{3} \\ = 3262.183595 \\ = 3262.9 cm^{3} [/tex]

Here you go

Answer: 35°

Step-by-step explanation:

m∠A + m∠B + m∠C  =  180°

40° + 105° + m∠C = 180°

m∠C + 145°  =  180°

Subtract 145° from both sides.

m∠C  =  35°

So, the measure of the missing angle (x) is 35°.