The study you are referring to is likely the policy statement issued by the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) in 2016, which recommends that parents begin reading to their children soon after birth and that parents set limits on screen time for children. This policy statement highlights the importance of early childhood literacy and the negative effects of excessive screen time on the development of children.
According to the AAP, reading to children from birth helps to build strong language and literacy skills, which are critical for later academic success. Parents are encouraged to read to their children every day, and to choose age-appropriate books that are interesting and engaging for the child. By reading to children from an early age, parents can help to build a foundation for future academic success and a love of learning.
The AAP policy statement also highlights the potential negative effects of excessive screen time on the development of children. The AAP recommends that children aged 2 years and younger should not have any screen time, and that children aged 3 to 5 years should have no more than one hour of screen time per day. The AAP suggests that parents should set clear limits on screen time, and that they should engage in other activities such as reading, playing, and spending time outdoors with their children.
In conclusion, the policy statement issued by the American Academy of Pediatrics highlights the importance of early childhood literacy and the negative effects of excessive screen time on the development of children. By reading to children from an early age and setting limits on screen time, parents can help to support the healthy development of their children and set the foundation for future academic success.
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what makes an unsaturated fat different than a saturated fat?
Answer:
Unsaturated fats have at least one carbon-carbon double bond while saturated fats have only carbon-carbon single bonds. Put in another way, saturated fats are “saturated” with hydrogen atoms, while unsaturated fats do not have the maximum amount of hydrogen atoms a fatty acid can have, making them “unsaturated.”
What are three tips to start a healthy dating relationship mentioned in the article?
How to Have a Healthy Relationship: Communication is key, constructive conflict can be beneficial, and closeness in a relationship may be essential.
What are three pointers for beginning a wholesome relationship? Essentially, the three main conclusions are as follows:relating to your spouse as you would a close friend,constructive and kind dispute resolution,being able to mend after disagreements and unpleasant encountersTrust, respect, effective communication, adaptability, a common interest, time apart, distinct relationships (with family and friends), compromise, respectful disagreement, and gratitude.Trust between the partners is essential.Never be challenged, denigrated, or the subject of nasty comments from your spouse.How to Have a Healthy Relationship: 6 Tips.It's important to communicate,Constructive disagreement can be advantageous,Relationship intimacy may be crucial,Make time to spend with your partner,It's also crucial to maintain your identity,Small actions can have a significant effect.To learn more about Healthy Relationship refer
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You have just delivered a baby boy. His body is pink, but his hands and feet are blue. His heart rate is approximately 110 beats/min and his respirations are rapid and irregular. He has a weak cry when stimulated and resists attempts to straighten his legs. His Apgar score is:Select one:A. 7B. 6C. 9D. 8
Based on the information provided, the baby boy's Apgar score is likely to be 6.
The Apgar score is a simple and quick assessment tool used to evaluate a newborn's physical condition at birth. The score ranges from 0 to 10, with 10 being the best possible score. A score of 6 indicates that the baby is in fair condition, with moderate distress. The symptoms described (pink body with blue hands and feet, rapid and irregular respirations, weak cry, and resistance to attempts to straighten his legs) suggest that the baby is experiencing some difficulty adjusting to life outside the womb. This can be due to a variety of factors, including poor perfusion, respiratory distress, or low muscle tone. In such cases, the baby may require medical attention and close monitoring to ensure that he stabilizes and begins to thrive.
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T/F : the only arteries in the body that carry oxygen-poor blood are the coronary arteries.
Answer:
False I think, I don't know for sure.
Explanation:
where to find ati med surg proctored exam?
The ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam is usually found on a course curriculum designed or up taken by a student's nursing school or program.
The ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam is a standardized test used to evaluate a student's knowledge and understanding of medical-surgical nursing. This exam is typically administered by a student's nursing school or program, as part of their curriculum.
If you're a high school student considering a career in nursing, it's important to research the different programs and schools that offer nursing education.
Once you've enrolled in a program, you will likely be given information on how and when to take the ATI Med-Surg Proctored Exam, as well as any other exams required by the program. If you're unsure about where to take the exam, you can reach out to your nursing program or school for guidance.
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identify and prioritize the findings that require immediate follow-up by the nurse. what is the priority action the nurse should perform to address the client’s prioritized findings?
Based on urgency and possible client injury, the nurse should order the findings. The client's airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) should be evaluated first since these are the most crucial and pressing priority
The importance or amount of focus placed on an activity, aim, or target is referred to as its priority. It establishes the sequence in which things should be completed and aids in the efficient resource allocation for people and organisations. When something is urgent and has a high priority, it should be taken care of before other, less essential activities. A priority might be arbitrary and shift depending on the situation and the resources at hand. Setting priorities enables you to concentrate your time and resources on the tasks that will have the most influence on achieving your goals.
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TRUE/FALSE emotional health is a person's ability to express feelings appropriately.
Emotional health is a person's ability to express feelings appropriately is referred to as a true statement.
What is Emotional health?This is referred to as an aspect of mental health and it is characterized by the ability of an individual to cope with both positive and negative emotions, mood etc.
A good mental health is defined as the absence of emotional problems and every individual can interpret emotions accurately which is therefore the reason why true was chosen as the correct choice.
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a patient with impaired digestion or intestinal absorption of nutrients would be said to have
A patient with impaired digestion or intestinal absorption of nutrients would be said to have malabsorption.
Malabsorption is a condition where the body is unable to absorb nutrients from food properly, leading to malnutrition and other health problems. There are many different causes of malabsorption, including diseases of the small intestine, such as celiac disease or Crohn's disease, and conditions that affect the pancreas, such as pancreatitis, which can result in the production of insufficient digestive enzymes.
In addition to malnutrition, symptoms of malabsorption can include weight loss, diarrhea, abdominal pain, bloating, and flatulence. Treatment of malabsorption depends on the underlying cause and may involve dietary modifications,intestinal absorptioin the use of digestive enzymes, or other medications. In some cases, surgery may be necessary to correct the underlying condition.
It is important to diagnose and treat malabsorption in a timely manner, as it can have serious consequences for the patient's overall health and quality of life.
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overinflation of the lungs during inhalation is prevent by the
Overinflation of the lungs during inhalation is prevented by the respiratory system's negative pressure system.
The respiratory system works to maintain a delicate balance of air pressure within the lungs. During inhalation, air flows into the lungs and increases the pressure, but at the same time, the diaphragm and ribcage muscles contract, creating a negative pressure that helps to regulate the pressure within the lungs. If the lungs were to become overinflated, this could cause air trapping, which would make it more difficult for the person to exhale. The negative pressure system helps to prevent this from happening by ensuring that the pressure within the lungs stays within a safe range during inhalation and exhalation. The muscles of the diaphragm and ribcage also play a crucial role in regulating the pressure within the lungs, so that overinflation does not occur. Overall, the negative pressure system of the respiratory system works to ensure that the lungs remain properly inflated and functioning, which is essential for good health and well-being.
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What is the food and drug administration requirement for an off site caterer?
To ensure the safety and quality of their food, off-site caterers must follow strict guidelines set out by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA).
This includes having a valid license from the local health department, a valid food service permit from the FDA, and a valid food safety certification. Furthermore, they must have a safe and clean workspace and equipment, and must adhere to the proper sanitation practices, such as washing hands and wearing hairnets.
Caterers must also keep records of food temperatures, ingredients, and food storage and handling practices. Additionally, they must have a Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points (HACCP) plan in place which outlines the steps taken to ensure food safety and quality.
Finally, caterers must have a plan for responding to any food safety issues, such as a recall or emergency plan. By following these guidelines, off-site caterers can ensure that the food they prepare is safe and of the highest quality.
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what is mnomonic ippa inspection, palpation, percussion auscultation
The IPPA mnemonic is used to help physicians remember the steps involved in a thorough physical examination of the chest and lungs, and to ensure that no important aspect of the examination is overlooked.
A mnemonic is a memory aid used to assist in remembering a list of items in a specific order. IPPA is a commonly used mnemonic in the medical field to remember the steps involved in a physical examination of the chest and lungs. The letters stand for Inspection, Palpation, Percussion, and Auscultation.
Inspection refers to visually examining the chest and chest wall for any obvious signs of abnormality. This includes observing the patient's posture, breathing patterns, and the shape and movement of the chest wall during breathing.
Palpation involves physically feeling the chest and chest wall with the hands to detect any areas of tenderness, masses, or other unusual sensations. The physician may also use palpation to determine the location of the trachea and any areas of decreased or increased lung expansion.
Percussion involves tapping the chest and back with the fingers to assess the density of the underlying tissues and determine if there are any fluid collections or air-filled spaces in the lungs.
Auscultation involves listening to the chest and back with a stethoscope to hear sounds made by the lungs and other structures within the chest. This can help the physician determine if there are any sounds indicative of disease, such as wheezing, crackles, or diminished breath sounds.
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when do the first symptoms of duchenne muscular dystrophy appear ?
Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) is a condition that typically presents itself in early childhood.
Common signs and symptoms may include delayed walking, difficulty rising from the floor, weak legs, a waddling gait, enlarged calf muscles, difficulty rising to stand on toes, weakness in the arms and neck, and difficulty running and jumping.
In later stages, it can lead to a loss of muscle mass, difficulty breathing, and an inability to walk independently.
Generally, the first signs of DMD appear between 1 and 5 years of age. Early recognition and treatment of the condition is important in order to slow its progression and help improve the quality of life for those affected.
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Which factor puts a client on her first postpartum day at risk for hemorrhage?
Obesity, high blood pressure, or cardiac illness increase the chance of dying from pregnancy-related problems. Checking your maternal health is crucial if you have certain risk factors.
Are heart conditions serious?In the United States, heart disease is the most common cause of mortality for both sexes and for members of the majority of racial and ethnic groups. Cardiovascular disease claims one life in the country every 34 seconds.
What causes heart disease most frequently?The most frequent cause of cardiovascular disease is atherosclerosis, which is a deposit of fatty plaque within the arteries. Poor diet, insufficient exercise, obesity, and smoking are risk factors. Choosing a healthy lifestyle can help reduce the risk of atherosclerosis.
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In DeafSpace, the use of
is blank discouraged.
Answer: Voices, talking
Explanation: It is very rude to talk in the presance of deafspace
What is a benefit of telehealth? it helps stop the spread of disease while facilitating important medical conversations. Patients can use their personal wearable technology to self-diagnose sickness and disease. Doctors are able to use high-quality cameras to better diagnose patients during telehealth. Patients are able to see visuals of upcoming procedures through animation and blueprints.
Tele Medicine is a very useful technology which can be utilized for getting prompt medical attention.
Advantages
It makes Healthcare more accessible from the comfort of one's home.It gives medical help to inaccessible locations by transport.It helps in treatment of simple medical conditions.It helps in follow up treatment of many lifestyle diseases at earlier stages.It helps in Low cost medical checkup.Integrated with personal wearable diagnostic tools they can be used in treatment of various conditions.No need to wait for long hours in the hospital queue.Learn more about Tele Medicine here
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Answer:
option d
Explanation:
What is a dorsal recumbent position called?
Unless it is contraindicated, the patient lies flat on their back in the supine position, or dorsal recumbent, with their head and shoulders slightly elevated on pillows (e.g., spinal anesthesia, spinal surgery).
Why is this position referred to be dorsal recumbent?
It makes it simple for medical experts to inspect and observe the pelvic region. The word "dorsal" in the phrase "dorsal recumbent position" refers to the back (posterior) or spine of a human or animal.
What else is used to describe the dorsal position?
On a human body, dorsal (also known as posterior) refers to the back region, and ventral (also known as anterior) refers to the front area. In order to indicate where a body component is in relation to another, the phrases dorsal and ventral are frequently used.
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Unless it is contraindicated, the patient lies flat on their back in the supine position, or dorsal recumbent, with their head and shoulders slightly elevated on pillows (e.g., spinal anesthesia, spinal surgery).
Why is this position referred to be dorsal recumbent?
It makes it simple for medical experts to inspect and observe the pelvic region. The word "dorsal" in the phrase "dorsal recumbent position" refers to the back (posterior) or spine of a human or animal.
What else is used to describe the dorsal position?
On a human body, dorsal (also known as posterior) refers to the back region, and ventral (also known as anterior) refers to the front area. In order to indicate where a body component is in relation to another, the phrases dorsal and ventral are frequently used.
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Scenario:
T. M. Is an 8-year-old with cerebral palsy who has been admitted to your unit following surgery for a femoral osteotomy and tendon lengthening to stabilize hip joints and to help reduce spasticity. He is admitted with a hip spica cast, and epidural for pain management, and a Foley catheter. He also has a gastrostomy tube that was in place before the surgery.
1. What are the issues common to CP that you should consider when planning and providing care to T. M. ?
2. What are your top five priorities in providing nursing care to T. M. ?
3. T. M. Is 16 hours postop and is crying and extremely agitated. His mother asks you to give him some diazepam. What information should you gather from Mrs. M to better understand her request for the medication? What is the most likely reason Mrs. M is requesting diazepam?
The issues associated with caring for a patient with cerebral palsy (CP) are multi-faceted and include physical, psychological, and social concerns.
Physically, the patient may need help with coordination and movement, as well as physical therapy. Psychologically, the patient may struggle with depression, anxiety, and cognitive delays. Socially, emotional support and assisting the patient in becoming more independent are important.
When providing nursing care to a patient with CP, there are five main priorities: assessing pain level and managing it effectively; monitoring vital signs; providing emotional support and security; ensuring the patient is comfortable and that treatments are properly maintained; and educating the patient and family about the disease process, treatments, and home care.
If a patient requests diazepam, it is important to understand why, and to gather information about the patient's current pain level, response to current pain management, and history of diazepam use.
Diazepam can be used to help alleviate pain and agitation, but should only be used on a short-term basis and should be combined with other pain-relieving treatments.
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1 pts based on research using operant conditioning techniques with infants, what appears to be different between infant and adult memories?
Infant and adult memories appear to differ in terms of their stability and the type of information they store.
Studies using operant conditioning techniques have shown that infants have shorter memories compared to adults and that their memories are more prone to interference and decay. Infant memories are also typically linked to emotions and sensorimotor experiences, while adult memories tend to be more abstract and verbally encoded.
This suggests that the memory system in infants is not fully developed and continues to mature over time. Additionally, the difference in memory stability and the type of information stored highlights the importance of considering the unique characteristics of infant memories when designing interventions and studies with this population.
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PLEASE HELP I WILL GIVE BRAINLIST!
Identify which emotions are expressed and what triggered the emotion. Also write the type of communication that is used in the scenario.
Some children may experience distress, worry, anxiety, and hopelessness when their parents frequently engage in combative behaviors.
What do parents fight about the most?After the dispute, be sure to tell your parents how you feel. Avoid bringing it up during the debate because if they feel guilty, that could make things worse. If they are upset, they might also point the finger at the other parent. While communicating, try to remain composed.
Children that experience this kind of conflict frequently experience anxiety, anguish, sadness, anger, and depression. These emotions lead to trouble concentration, poor academic performance, and sleep disruptions. These children can eventually lose the ability to handle disagreement and develop positive adult relationships.
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A urine test to determine the presence of microorganisms is :
Answer:
urine culture test
Explanation:
Urine is your body’s liquid waste (pee). Culture is the medical term for growing microorganisms like bacteria and yeast in a laboratory setting.
A lab adds growth-promoting substances to a urine sample. If bacteria or yeast (a fungus) are present, they start multiplying. This growth indicates an infection in your urinary system.
What happens to your body if you drink black tea every day?
Answer:
you will feel headache and irregular heart beats
Explanation:
It is now well accepted that regular intake black tea increases the body's antioxidant potential, decreasing our chance of developing chronic diseases and enhancing health.
What is an antioxidant's feature?Antioxidants are molecules that may defend your cells from free radicals, which have been linked to cancer, cardiovascular disease, and other illnesses. Oxidative stress are molecules that are created when food is metabolized by the body, when you are exposed to heat or cigarette smoke, or both.
An effective antioxidant is what?These include peppers, figs, cherries, pears, mango, oranges, apricots, red grapes, peaches, berries, strawberries, red grapes, red grapes, watermelon, watermelon, mango, and red sultanas.
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identify the process or environment in this list that is not affected by microorganisms. a. oxygen cycles b.global temps c. human health
Global temperatures are not affected by microorganisms.
The ability of microbes to recycle the basic components that comprise all living systems, particularly carbon (C), oxygen (O), and nitrogen, is their most significant impact on the planet (N). These substances exist in various molecular configurations and must be shared by all forms of life.
Microbes can exist in any habitat, whether it be terrestrial, aquatic, atmospheric, or on a living host, and they always have an impact on the surroundings in which they develop. They can survive in extremely cold or extremely hot situations thanks to their diversity.
Option B global temperatures are the proper response, thus.
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6.what teaching do you need to provide to y.l. regarding oral hypoglycemic therapy
Oral hypoglycemic therapy is a type of treatment used to control blood sugar levels in individuals with diabetes. It involves taking specific medications by mouth to regulate the levels of glucose in the bloodstream.
Before starting this therapy, it is important to understand the different types of oral hypoglycemic agents and how they work. These medications can be classified into several categories, including sulfonylureas, meglitinides, biguanides, and thiazolidinediones, each of which works differently in the body.
It is also crucial to understand the proper dosing and timing of these medications. They may need to be taken at specific times throughout the day and in conjunction with meals, and the dose may need to be adjusted based on blood sugar levels and other factors.
It is also important to monitor blood sugar levels regularly and to have an understanding of the potential side effects of the therapy, including hypoglycemia, weight gain, and gastrointestinal issues.
In addition to taking oral hypoglycemic medications, it is crucial to maintain a healthy diet, exercise regularly, and monitor blood sugar levels to ensure the therapy is effective and safe.
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list three medical terms with word elements that describe regions of the body.
Three medical terms with word elements that describe regions of the body are craniocervical, thoracolumbar, and cephalocaudal.
Craniocervical: describing the regions of the head (cranial) and neck (cervical).Thoracolumbar: describing the regions of the thorax (thoraco-) and lumbar region of the spine.Cephalocaudal: describing the regions from the head (cephalic) to the tail (caudal).The first two bones of the upper spine and the occipital bone, which form the base of the skull, make up the craniocervical junction. Atlas and axis are the names of these structures, which are found in the neck. The foramen magnum is the name of the big aperture at the base of the occipital bone.
The thoracolumbar spine is the area that connects the flexible lumbar spine to the rigid thoracic cage. As a result, it is prone to injuries like fractures and dislocations. The thoracolumbar injury's classification is still up for debate.
Cephalocaudal is Latin for "head to toe." As a result, the term "cephalocaudal principle" refers to the general developmental pattern visible in the initial postnatal years, more precisely from infancy to toddlerhood.
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What is the most common type of stalking?
Explanation:
Simple Obsessions : This is the most common type of stalking.
The most prevalent sort of stalking is simple obsessional.
Stalking, like domestic violence, is not restricted to specific sorts of people, racial, ethnic, or cultural origins, educational levels, or financial position. Stalkers come from a variety of backgrounds, with varying personalities & approaches to their conduct. Social scientists have created numerous methods for identifying or categorizing stalkers.
The stalker in Simple Obsessional is generally a man, and the target of the stalking is frequently an ex-wife, ex-lover, or former boss. In personal relationships, stalking often begins before the break-up. Stalking can often originate from the stalker believing that the victim has abused him or her.
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a. Lung disease
b. Communicable diseases
c. Accidents
d. Diabetes Please select the best answer from the choices provided. A B C D
According to the direct instruction, the answer choice that is a leading cause of death among young people in the United States is C. Accidents
What is an Accident?An accident is an unintentional, typically undesirable event that wasn't primarily brought on by people. The word "accident" indicates that no one is to blame, although the incident could have been brought on by hazards that were not acknowledged or addressed.
Hence, according to statistical data in the United States, accidents is the leading cause of death among young people
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According to the direct instruction, which of the following is a leading cause of death among young people in the United States?
A.
Lung disease
B.
Communicable diseases
C.
Accidents
D.
Diabetes
what physiological changes might happen to patients due to the temperature rise
Heat cramps, heat exhaustion, heatstroke, and hyperthermia are just a few of the disorders that can develop with rising body temperature brought on by exposure to hotter than usual temperatures.
Problems may occur when the ambient temperature or humidity exceeds the comfortable range. Your feelings are the first effects. Increased heat exposure has been linked to performance issues and health issues.
People may experience: as the temperature or heat burden rises:
1. A rise in irritation.
2. A decline in mental acuity and concentration.
3. Loss of capacity for difficult work or skilled jobs.
The body "goes to work" to expel extra heat in moderately hot situations so it can keep its internal temperature at a regular level. In order to sweat and lose extra heat to the environment, the heart rate increases to pump more blood through the skin and outside body parts.
These modifications put the body under more stress. A person's capacity for both physical and mental activity is diminished by changes in blood flow and excessive perspiration. The metabolic heat generated by manual labour increases the load of body heat.
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What is the ICD-10 code for venous stasis ulcer?
Venous insufficiency is indicated by the ICD-10 code I87.2 for venous stasis ulcer without varicose vein.
A distinct code for the ulcer should also be coded because this lacks a descriptor for it.
Venous stasis = I87.8Stasis Ulcer = - I87.2 w/o varicose vein- I83._ w/ varicose veins - this code descriptor contains ulcer, thus there is no need for a separate L code for the ulcer.An alternative term for venous stasis:
A disorder known as chronic venous insufficiency, or CVI, affects the veins' ability to transport blood back to the heart. Phlebitis, persistent venous stasis, and post-thrombotic syndrome are other names for it. Although it can happen in the arms, it most frequently affects the veins in the legs.
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human casualties and injuries were so great during the civil war that some southern states spent 20 percent or more of their annual budget on health care for veterans. T/F
It is true that the number of deaths and injuries caused by the Civil War was so high that several southern governments allocated 20% or more of their annual budget to providing healthcare for veterans.
620,000 males, or around 2% of the population, died while performing their jobs. If the death toll were calculated as a percentage of the current population, it may have reached 6 million people. The Civil War's human toll exceeded everyone's expectations. Confederate surrender in 1865 brought the Civil War, commonly known as the War Between the States, to a conclusion. Approximately 620,000 of the 2.4 million soldiers who were involved in the fight died, millions more were injured, and a large portion of the expense of the war was incurred by the United States.
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what type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
A type of flexibility training that is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve its range of motion is the self-myofascial technique.
The self-myofascial technique often involves the use of foam rollers, massage balls, and other tools to apply pressure to tight or restricted areas of the body in order to release tension and improve the range of motion. The other types of stretching, such as active stretching, static stretching, and dynamic stretching, typically do not use instruments or equipment to the same extent.
Exercises that loosen up your muscles and make your body more supple and limber are included in flexibility training. You'll also have increased mobility if you routinely do flexibility exercises.
Option A is the proper response, so.
The complete question is:-
what type of flexibility training is most likely to use instruments or equipment to help the body improve range of motion?
a. Self-myofascial technique
b. Active stretching
c. Static stretching
d. Dynamic stretching
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