What is the ICD-10 code for history of leukopenia?

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Answer 1

The ICD-10 code for history of leukopenia is Z86.72. This code falls under the category of "Personal history of other diseases and conditions" in the ICD-10.

Leukopenia is a condition in which a person's blood contains low levels of white blood cells. A variety of factors can contribute to it, including viral infections, medications, autoimmune disorders, and bone marrow disorders. If a patient has a history of leukopenia but does not currently have low levels of white blood cells, the ICD-10 code to use is Z86.72.

The code Z86.72 denotes a personal history of leukopenia, indicating that the patient has had the condition in the past but is not currently suffering from it. It is important to note that this code is only used for coding and does not represent a current medical condition or ongoing treatment.

It's also worth noting that other codes in the Z86 category can be used to indicate a personal history of other medical conditions, such as Z86.71 for a personal history of neutropenia, a type of leukopenia characterised by low levels of a specific type of white blood cell called neutrophils.

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Related Questions

What Can I Do to Become Taller?

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Practice good posture, Exercise regularly, Get enough sleep, Eat a balanced die, Avoid smoking and alcohol. While height is primarily determined by genetics, these are a few things you can do to potentially increase your height .

(1)Practice good posture: Stand up straight and sit with good posture to help lengthen your spine.(2) Exercise regularly: Certain exercises, such as swimming, cycling, and running, can potentially help you gain height. (3) Get enough sleep: Your body grows and repairs itself during sleep, so make sure you're getting enough rest. (4). Eat a balanced diet: A diet rich in vitamins and minerals, especially calcium and vitamin D, can help support healthy bone growth.(5). Avoid smoking and alcohol: These can  negatively impact bone health.

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What causes a person to be sensitive to gluten and creates antibodies in the body?

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Answer:gay

Explanation:gay

Compare and contrast the definition in DSM-IV from the proposed revision for DSM-5. Do you see any significant changes?

Answers

Answer: Although there may be some differences between the two, it is most likely that the mental disorders only have some minor changes, so it is basically the same.

Explanation:

If the factors increase or decrease together, they are ______. If, however, one decreases as the other increases, they are ______.

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If the factors increase or decrease together, they are positively correlated If, however, one decreases as the other increases, they are negatively correlated.

Correlation is basically expressed on a given range from +1 to -1, which is known basically as the correlation coefficient. A positive correlation is basically defined a relationship which is present between two variables that happen to move in tandem, or we can say, in the same direction.

A positive correlation basically exists when one of the given variable decreases and at the same time the other variable also decreases, or one of the variable increases and the other one also increases. A negative correlation is basically defined as a relationship which is present between two variables in a way that when the value one variable increases, then the  other one decreases and vice versa.

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What is the ICD-10 code for right side Headache?

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The ICD-10 code for right-sided headache depends on the specific type and cause of the headache. For example, the code G44.209 is used to indicate a migraine headache without aura, unspecified, with right-sided headache.

Similarly, the code G44.40 is used to indicate a chronic cluster headache, unspecified, with right-sided headache. The codes G44.209 and G44.40 fall under the category of Diseases of the Nervous System and are specifically classified as Headache Syndromes. Accurate documentation and coding of right-sided headaches are important for appropriate diagnosis, treatment, and billing of medical services provided to the patient. It is important to note that the specific ICD-10 code used may vary depending on the healthcare provider's documentation and medical billing practices.

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What are some fiber rich foods that you could add to your diet to increase your intake of both soluble and insoluble fibers?

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 Answer: A cup of kidney beans can provide around one-third, if not more, of the fiber you need each day. Other high fiber foods to try include berries, cruciferous vegetables, oats, chia seeds, and dark chocolate.

Explanation: t leaves your stomach undigested and ends up in your colon, where it feeds friendly gut bacteria, leading to various health benefits (1).

Certain types of fiber may also promote weight loss, lower blood sugar levels, and fight constipation (2).

The Academy of Nutrition and Dietetics recommends consuming about 14 grams of fiber for every 1,000 calories you consume daily. This translates to roughly 24 grams of fiber for women and 38 grams for men (3).

Unfortunately, an estimated 95% of American adults and children don’t meet the recommended daily fiber intake. In America, the average daily fiber intake is estimated to be 16.2 grams (4Trusted Source).

Fortunately, increasing your fiber intake is relatively easy — simply integrate high fiber foods into your diet.

 I HOPE THIS helps :)

Select the qualification that is best demonstrated in each example.

Judy is a Veterinarian who lifts animals onto her examination table

Isaac is an Aquacultural Manager who trains and oversees workers.


Felix is a Zoologist who studies goats and carefully records information in his notes about them.

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The answer would be Felix is a zoologist who studies goats and carefully records information in his notes about them

What is the ICD-10 code for eczema?

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The ICD-10 code for eczema is L30.

Eczema is a common skin condition that causes inflammation and itching. It is also known as atopic dermatitis and can occur in people of all ages. Eczema often appears as dry, red, itchy patches on the skin, and it may also cause blisters, oozing, and crusting.

While the exact cause of eczema is not known, it is thought to be related to an overactive immune system response to various triggers such as irritants, allergens, and stress. Treatment for eczema typically involves managing symptoms through the use of topical medications, avoiding triggers, and maintaining good skin care practices.

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A patient is diagnosed with a bacterial infection called Mycobacterium tuberculosis. What is the main term for the ICD-10 code?
A. Mycobacterium
B. Bacterial
C. Tuberculosis
D. Infectious

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Tuberculosis is the main term for the ICD-10 code.

Tuberculosis (TB) is an infectious illness caused by the bacteria Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB). If a TB infection becomes active, it usually affects the lungs (in roughly 90% of cases). Symptoms may include chest discomfort and a persistent cough that produces phlegm. Around 25% of persons may not experience any symptoms (i.e., they remain asymptomatic).

Mycobacterium tuberculosis (MTB), a tiny, aerobic, nonmotile bacillus, is the primary cause of tuberculosis. When persons with active pulmonary tuberculosis cough, sneeze, speak, sing, or spit, infectious aerosol particles 0.5 to 5.0 m in diameter are expelled. A single sneeze can cause the emission of up to 40,000 droplets. A variety of variables make people more vulnerable to tuberculosis infection and/or illness.

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Which condition does NOT require regulatory approval before reinstatement?a. Hep Ab. Norovirusc. c. Sore throat with feverd. d. illness caused by shigella app

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The condition that does not require regulatory approval before reinstatement is sore throat with fever, thus the correct option is (c).

The typical symptoms of some food handlers who have been diagnosed with these foodborne infections may not manifest, or they may have already subsided. Determine whether the food handler has to be barred from the establishment or prohibited from handling or being around food, and when the exclusion or restriction can be lifted, in consultation with the local regulatory authority.

Refrain from allowing the food handler to handle or be near food if they have a fever and a sore throat. When a medical professional issues a written release, the food handler is authorized to handle or be near food.

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what doctors are learning about marijuana and surgery?

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Anesthesiologists are the doctors who are learning about marijuana as well as surgery.

Anesthesiologists basically evaluate, supervise and monitor the patient care before, during, as well as after a particular surgical procedure. They deliver anesthesia, they lead the Anesthesia Care Team, and they also carefully ensure optimal safety of the patient.

There’s a very surprising side effect of having a marijuana habit which a lot of people don’t know about. The regular users of marijuana may require more anesthesia than the normal amount while undergoing a medical procedure in order to remain sedated. The habitual users of it might also require a higher amount of painkillers.

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What is carleen health institute ?

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The Post Lauderdale-based Carleen Wellbeing Establishment gives degree and recognition programs that furnish you with the data and capacities expected to succeed.

What recognizes a medical caretaker from a guaranteed nurture?

The scope of work shifts between a RN and a CNA. Contrasted with CNAs, who act as the RNs' and other clinical experts' colleagues, RNs have more opportunity to do their obligations.

Which certification suits nursing the best?

The Commission on University Nursing Training (CCNE), a piece of the American Relationship of Schools of Nursing, and the ACEN, a division of the Public Association for Nursing, are the two most notable associations that certify nursing programs (AACN).

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Which approach to understanding mental disorders is based on the belief that cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors play an important role in the genesis of mental disorders?
a. psychological
b. sociocultural
c. biological
d. multicultural

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The a. psychological approach is aimed at understanding mental disorders based on the belief that cognitive, interpersonal, emotional, and similar factors play an important role in the genesis of mental disorders.

What is the psychological approach of sciences?

The  psychological approach of sciences makes reference to an area within biology aimed at understanding the development of cognitive processes based on the study of human mental brain disorders

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the psychological approach of sciences  can decipher human behaviors and mental disorders based on cognitive features.

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The difference between hours of sleep needed and actual hours slept is a. sleep inertia. b. sleep pattern. c. sleep ratio. d. sleep debt. d

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Should be sleep debt

does drinking apple cider vinegar help you lose weight?

Answers

There is no scientific evidence that apple cider vinegar is effective against weight loss.

What are the best options for promoting weight loss?Practice physical exercise regularly.Balanced diet.Low intake of fat and sugars.

Apple cider vinegar has been advocated by many people as a great ally for weight loss, but there is nothing to prove its performance in burning calories, fighting body fat, and decreasing fat mass. For this reason, we cannot confirm that it is effective.

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Why is it called right hypochondriac region?

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The two superolateral sections of the abdomen that are located on either side of a epigastric region are known as the hypochondriac. The word "chondriac" means cartilage and refers to a cartilage of a ribs.

Why is it referred to as a hypochondriac rather than a hypochondriac?

The word's Greek origins can be divided into two parts: hypo and chondria. Since hypo is the inverse of hyper, anything with a hypo is beneath everything that is high. It goes under your skin, which is why you receive an injection with a hypodermic needle. The word "cartilage" is the chondira portion of hypochondria.

What else is hypochondria known as?

Once known as hypochondria, anxiety disorder is a chronic mental illness. People with this disorder continually assume they have a severe, life-threatening illness even when they have few or no symptoms.

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How are Fowler's and Supine positions?

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The Fowler's position is accomplished by slanting the backrest of a bed upwards from the prostrate situation with flexed or straight knees.

It is every now and again utilized rather than the prostrate situation to screen hemodynamics and work with breathing and day-to-day exercises like eating or discussion in delicate patients.

Low Fowler's, Prostrate Position, is the point at which a patient's head is incorporated at a 15-30-degree point. This position can be utilized post-methodology, to decrease lower back torment, regulate tranquilizes and forestall yearning during tube taking care.

This is the most widely recognized position for patients resting serenely, whether long-term or in the crisis division, with knees either straight or marginally twisted and the top of the bed somewhere in the range of 45 and 60 degrees.

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devens doctor tells him that he needs to eat more calorie dense foods to help gain more weight what is most likely devens bmi

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Answer:

As you can see from the chart below, oils are the most calorie-dense foods on the planet. Just two measly tablespoons of olive oil are the caloric equivalent of four oranges.

What is diagnosis code N92 4?

Answers

N92.4 is a diagnosis code used to identify a disorder known as "excessive and frequent menstruation."

This code is most usually used to describe a condition in which a woman's periods are more frequent and/or continue longer than normal. 

Endometriosis, hormone instability, obesity, or certain drugs can all contribute to this issue.

The most typical signs of this illness include excessive monthly bleeding, lengthier menstrual cycles than usual, and menstrual cramps.

The diagnosis code N92.4 is used to indicate that the patient is experiencing certain symptoms and that a medical expert is working to determine the underlying reason. Depending on the underlying cause, the patient may be recommended drugs, lifestyle adjustments, or more tests.

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What is the ICD-10 for Failure to thrive in infants?

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The ICD-10 code for failure to thrive in infants is P92. Failure to thrive is a term used to describe insufficient growth or development in infants or children.

P92 is a specific code for this condition and is used to indicate a diagnosis in medical records. The code can also be used to track and monitor cases of failure to thrive for public health purposes. Treatment for failure to thrive can depend on the underlying cause, but may include nutritional interventions, feeding therapies, and other medical interventions.

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What is the ICD-10 code for vaginal bleeding?

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The underlying cause of the bleeding affects the ICD-10 code for vaginal haemorrhage. Some of the codes that could be pertinent are listed below: N92.0 - Unspecified abnormal uterine haemorrhage

When blood is lost from the body as a result of an accident or other causes, bleeding is a common medical problem. It can manifest either internally or outwardly, and its intensity can vary. While severe bleeding can be fatal, mild bleeding may just cause little pain. Many factors, such as trauma, surgery, bleeding disorders, drugs, hormonal imbalances, and some diseases including cancer or infections, can result in bleeding. Depending on the underlying reason, there are several ways to treat bleeding, including medication, blood transfusions, surgery, and other procedures. If you encounter heavy or unexplained bleeding, you should contact a doctor right away to avoid further issues and take care of any

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What is impaired skin integrity?

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The soundness or completeness of a skin in its undamaged state is referred to as skin integrity. On the other hand, a "alter epidermal and/or dermal...loss off skins (dermis), or disruption on skin surface."

Is a diagnosis of nursing damaged skin integrity?

Analyze the location and state of the affected tissue: Examining the wound area for redness, edoema, pallor, etc. This supports a real-world nursing diagnosis of compromised skin integrity.

Which of the following 4 nursing diagnoses apply?

NANDA-I classifies nursing diagnoses into four categories: problem-focused, risk-focused, health promotion-focused, and syndrome. Patient difficulties or problems that are apparent and observable during in the assessment process are problem centred diagnoses, also referred to as actual diagnoses.

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QuestionAll of the following are characteristic of good test data except :-AShould be comprehensiveBUsers do not participate at this preliminary stageCEvery statement should be executedDExpected output from the module's execution should be determined manuallyMedium

Answers

Option D. Expected output from the module's execution should be determined manually.

A good set of test data should be thorough and include both edge cases and typical circumstances. It is preferable for the test data to be generated automatically using algorithms or other test data generating approaches. There is a chance of human mistake when determining the intended output from the module's execution manually, and the test data might not be as thorough or precise as needed.

Furthermore, integrating users in the development of test data can yield insightful information and guarantee that the test data accurately represents real-world circumstances. This may result in more accurate testing and a better comprehension of how the system will function in actual use.

With the exception of option D, which specifies that the anticipated results of the module's execution should be decided manually, all of the options, in conclusion, are characteristics of appropriate test data.

However in some condition Option B also a not good characteristics of good test data. It depends on the environment and testing strategy being employed. In some instances, including users in the process of creating test data can offer insightful information and guarantee that the test data accurately mimics real-world scenarios. This may result in more accurate testing and a better comprehension of how the system will function in actual use.

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Explain physical,intellectual, social, and emotional developments

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Answer:

Physical development involves physical changes in the body, such as growth and development in size, strength, coordination, and motor skills. Intellectual development involves a child's ability to process information, solve problems, and think creatively. Social development involves the development of skills necessary for building and maintaining relationships with others, such as communication, cooperation, and understanding of social rules. Emotional development involves the development and expression of feelings, both positive and negative, and an understanding of how to regulate those feelings.

what is novolog sliding scale ?

Answers

Novolog sliding scale is a method of insulin dosing that is used in the treatment of diabetes. The scale is used to determine the amount of insulin that a patient needs to take based on their blood glucose levels.

The scale works by measuring the patient's blood glucose levels and then using a set of guidelines to determine how much insulin they need to take. The guidelines are based on the patient's weight, age, and other factors, and are designed to help keep their blood glucose levels within a normal range.

In general, the novolog sliding scale is used in conjunction with other methods of insulin dosing, such as basal insulin or long-acting insulin. The scale is typically used to adjust the patient's insulin dose throughout the day, in response to changes in their blood glucose levels.

It is important to note that the novolog sliding scale is not appropriate for all patients, and should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional. If you are considering using the novolog sliding scale, it is important to discuss your options with your doctor or diabetes educator.

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What is a good average number of keystrokes per hour?

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The average user score is roughly 8,000 keystrokes per hour, which is lower than the good keystroke rate of around 10,000.

Which typing speed is ideal?

So, in order to maintain a common quality of productivity at work, you should strive for just a wpm of the at least 40 WPM. There are greater standards for some occupations. You may need to type as least 60 phrases per minute in order to be hired as a personal and executive assistant.

What is a suitable resume-writing typing speed?

Although many users write at a rate of about 40 word per minute (WPM), many positions that call for quick typing demand a greater rate. Most administrative and data entry positions demand that applicants have a writing speed of 60 to 75 words per minute.

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an accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the:_______

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An accelerated heartbeat is to a slowed heartbeat as the "stimulated nervous system" is to the "relaxed nervous system."

The autonomic nervous system is responsible for regulating many involuntary bodily functions, including heart rate. The sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which prepares the body for action by increasing heart rate, blood pressure, and breathing rate.

This results in an accelerated heartbeat. On the other hand, the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the "rest and digest" response, which helps to conserve energy and promote relaxation.

This results in a slowed heartbeat. Therefore, an accelerated heartbeat is the opposite of a slowed heartbeat, just as a stimulated nervous system is the opposite of a relaxed nervous system.

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What is the volume of blood at the end of systole?

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Answer:

At this point, there is about 45 ml of blood in the ventricles and the pressure is about 0 mmHg. The 45 ml represents the amount of blood left in the ventricles after the previous heartbeat and is known as the end-systolic volume.

Explanation:

name the five violations given on your rules sheet that result in the ball being awarded to the opponents outside the sideline.

Answers

The five violations given on your rules sheet that result in the ball being awarded to the opponents outside the sideline is Out of bounds, Unsporting behavior, Dangerous tackles, Handball, & Offside.

What happens when a player commits a violation in football?

Although football is a very physically demanding sport, good sportsmanship is also expected of the players. In the NFL, breaking one of these rules carries a 15-yard penalty and, if the offense is the defense, an instant first down.

What is the 8 second violation?

This is an illustration of an eight-second infraction. Ja Morant, the offensive player with possession of the ball, does not cross the midcourt line until the allotted 8 seconds have passed.

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what is tough complex carbohydrate that the body cannot digest ?

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Fibers are the tough complex carbohydrates which our body is not able to digest.

Carbohydrates are the major source of energy for the human body. Fiber is basically a type of carbohydrate which our body is not able to digest. Though most of carbohydrates get broken down to form sugar molecules like glucose, fiber cannot be broken down in order to form sugar molecules, and instead of that it gets passes through the body in an undigested form.

Fiber perform an important function of regulating the body’s use of the sugars, to keep hunger and also to keep the blood sugar in check. Fiber is mostly of two types which is the soluble fiber and the insoluble fiber.

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