what is the graph of this function?​

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  4

Step-by-step explanation:

The function definition tells you its domain is ...

  -6 < x ≤ 4

Values -7, -6, and 5 are not in this domain.

Of the listed values, only 4 is in the domain.

Answer:

0.0756

Step-by-step explanation:

p(success), p = 70% = 0.7

Nunber of trials, n = 4

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0. 7 = 0.3

x = 1

The question meets the requirements of a binomial probability distribution :

P(x = x) = nCx * p^x * q^(n-x)

P(x = 1) = 4C1 * 0.7^1 * 0.3^(4-1)

P(x = 1) = 4C1 * 0.7 * 0.3^3

P(x = 1) = 4 * 0.7 * 0.027

P(x = 1) = 0.0756

Answer:

fgvilgiuhuikj

Step-by-step explanation:??????????????

Answer:

A. (–2, 4), one, three

Step-by-step explanation:

For a linear equation:

y = a*x + b

the point-slope form is:

(y - y₁) = m*(x - x₁)

Where we know that this line has the slope m, and passes through the point (x₁, y₁)

In this case, the equation:

(y + 2) = –1/3(x – 4)

is already in the point-slope form.

here we have:

y₁ = -2

x₁ = 4

then the point is (-2, 4)

m = -(1/3)

m = -1/3 means that when we move 3 units to the right, we need to move one unit down. (or the inverse, we can move one unit down and 3 to the right)

So, to complete the statement we have:

plot the point (-2, 4),  move one unit down, and three units over to find the next point on the line.

The correct option is A.

Answer:

you just gave your self the answer because you just need to multiply

Step-by-step explanation:

15080 is the answer

Answer:

3/8.

Step-by-step explanation:

First convert days to hours:

2 days = 2 * 24 = 48 hours.

The greatest common factor of 18 and 48 = 6 so the required fraction is

18/48

= (18/6) / (48/6)

= 3/8.

Answer:

hope it helps much

Answer:

The probability that Swallows will win the trophy is 0.8064

The probability that Rucks will win the trophy is 0.1936

Step-by-step explanation:

For each game, there are only two possible outcomes. Either the Swallows win, or they do not. The probability of them winning a game is independent of any other game, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Probability the Swallows wins is 0.56

This means that [tex]p = 0.56[/tex]

2 games:

This means that [tex]n = 2[/tex]

The probability that Swallows will win the trophy is

Probability they win at least one game, so:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{2,0}.(0.56)^{0}.(0.44)^{2} = 0.1936[/tex]

Then

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - 0.1936 = 0.8064[/tex]

0.8064 = 80.64% probability the Swallows win the trophy and 0.1936 probability that the Rucks win the trophy.

Answer:

D. SSS

Step-by-step explanation:

Was given to us that the corresponding sides are congruent so is SSS.

Side Side Side Theorem tells us that if am the sides of a triangle are having the same measurement with the corresponding sides of another triangle then the two triangles are congruent.

Answer:

3x + 2 - 5

3x - 3

x = 3 ÷ 3

x = 1

I hope this helped!

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  y = x^2 +10x -9

Step-by-step explanation:

Quadratic regression generally requires the use of "technology" to aid in finding the equation of the curve of best fit. Use the technology you've been introduced to.

__

When only a few data points are provided, I prefer to use the Desmos graphing calculator. It shows the equation to be ...

  y = x^2 +10x -9

Answer:

45.9

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

answer is 1 2 3 and 4 respectively of given match the following

Answer:

No, the sum of all the probabilities is not equal to 1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

[tex]\begin{array}{ccccc}x & {0} & {1} & {2} & {3} & {P(x)} & {0.001} & {0.007} & {0.033} & {0.059} \ \end{array}[/tex]

Required

Determine if the given parameter is a probability distribution

For a probability distribution to exist, the following must be true;

[tex]\sum P(x)=1[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]\sum P(x) = 0.001 + 0.007 + 0.033 + 0.059[/tex]

[tex]\sum P(x) = 0.1[/tex]

Hence, it is not a probability distribution because the sum of all probabilities is not 1

Answer:

The answer is 40 chocolates in the box in total

Answer: 5 ft i think so

Use the Pythagorean theorem

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  Tk 173.25

Step-by-step explanation:

The firm will break even if its cost is equal to its revenue. That is, the price of each item sold must equal the cost of producing it. To cover the fixed cost, a share of it must be added to each of the items sold. Then the break-even price for 80 items is ...

  price = variable cost + share of fixed cost

  price = Tk 60.75 +9000/80 = Tk 60.75 +112.50 = Tk 173.25

Answer:

The slope of the green line is 3

Step-by-step explanation:

The lines are perpendicular, so the slopes are negative inverses

-1/(-1/3)

3

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  3/4

Step-by-step explanation:

It might be easier to start by expressing the ratios with AD as the denominator.

  AD/AC = 2/1   ⇒   AC/AD = 1/2

  AD/AB = 3/1   ⇒   AB/AD = 1/3

From the latter, we have ...

  (AD -AB)/AD = 1 -1/3 = 2/3 = BD/AD

Then the desired ratio is ...

  AC/BD = (AC/AD)/(BD/AD) = (1/2)/(2/3) = (3/6)/(4/6)

  AC/BD = 3/4

Answer:

hope this will help you a lot

Answer:

[tex]P(x>1)=0.9927[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Mean [tex]\=x =7[/tex]

Generally the Poisson equation for \=x is mathematically given by

[tex]P(x>1)=1-P(x \leq 1)[/tex]

Therefor

[tex]P(x>1)=1-(\frac{e^{-7}*7^0}{0!}+{\frac{e^{-7}*7^1}{1!})[/tex]

[tex]P(x>1)=1-(9.1*10^{-4}+6.3*10^{-3})[/tex]

[tex]P(x>1)=1-(7.3*10^{-3}[/tex]

[tex]P(x>1)=0.9927[/tex]

Answer:

113.1 =VOLUME , 4/3 X 3.14 (3) ^3 = 113.1

Answer:

1) Parallel lines are "ALWAYS"

coplanar.

2) Perpendicular lines ARE "ALWAYS"

coplanar.

3) Distance around an unmarked circle CAN "NEVER" be measured

Step-by-step explanation:

1) Coplanar means lines that lie in the same plane. Now, for a line to be parallel to another line, it must lie in the same plane as the other line otherwise it is no longer a parallel line. Thus, parallel lines are always Coplanar.

2) similar to point 1 above, perpendicular lines are Coplanar. This is because perpendicular lines intersect each other at right angles and it means they must exist in the same plane for that to happen. Thus, they are always Coplanar.

3) to have the distance, we need to have the circle marked out. Because it is from the marked out circle that we can measure radius, diameter and find other distances around the circle. Thus, distance around an unmarked circle can never be measured.

Answer:

The interval is [98,132]

Step-by-step explanation:

Normal Probability Distribution

Problems of normal distributions can be solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean [tex]\mu[/tex] and standard deviation [tex]\sigma[/tex], the z-score of a measure X is given by:

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the p-value, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Normal with mean 115 and standard deviation 25.

This means that [tex]\mu = 115, \sigma = 25[/tex]

Determine the interval of values that is centered at the mean and for which 50% of the students have IQ's in that interval.

Between the 50 - (50/2) = 25th percentile and the 50 + (50/2) = 75th percentile.

25th percentile:

X when Z has a p-value of 0.25, so X when Z = -0.675.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]-0.675 = \frac{X - 115}{25}[/tex]

[tex]X - 115 = -0.675*25[/tex]

[tex]X = 98[/tex]

75th percentile:

X when Z has a p-value of 0.75, so X when Z = 0.675.

[tex]Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}[/tex]

[tex]0.675 = \frac{X - 115}{25}[/tex]

[tex]X - 115 = 0.675*25[/tex]

[tex]X = 132[/tex]

The interval is [98,132]

Answer:

305°

Step-by-step explanation:

The bearing in the reverse direction is 180° plus the bearing in the forward direction, that is

bearing of B from A = 180° + 125° = 305°

Answer:

answer

x = -13/ 15, 0

Step-by-step explanation:

15x^2 + 13 x = 0

or, x(15x + 13) = 0

either, x = 0

or, 15x + 13 = 0

x = -13/15

Answer:

The answer should be C...............

imma sorry if I'm wrong

Answer:

0.9936 = 99.36% probability that during a​ year, you can avoid catastrophe with at least one working​ drive

Step-by-step explanation:

For each disk, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it works, or it does not. The probability of a disk working is independent of any other disk, which means that the binomial probability distribution is used to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

In which [tex]C_{n,x}[/tex] is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

[tex]C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}[/tex]

And p is the probability of X happening.

Assume that there is a 8​% rate of disk drive failure in a year.

So 100 - 8 = 92% probability of working, which means that [tex]p = 0.92[/tex]

Two disks are used:

This means that [tex]n = 2[/tex]

What is the probability that during a​ year, you can avoid catastrophe with at least one working​ drive?

This is:

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0)[/tex]

In which

[tex]P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}[/tex]

[tex]P(X = 0) = C_{2,0}.(0.92)^{0}.(0.08)^{2} = 0.0064[/tex]

[tex]P(X \geq 1) = 1 - P(X = 0) = 1 - 0.0064 = 0.9936[/tex]

0.9936 = 99.36% probability that during a​ year, you can avoid catastrophe with at least one working​ drive

Answer:

11 half years

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula for compound interest is

A = P(1+r/n)^(nt), with r representing the interest rate, n being the number of times interest is applied over the time period, and t being the amount of time periods.

If we make the time period a half year (so interest is compounded once per time period), n=2. Then, our interest rate is 7%, or 0.07 (to convert from percent to decimal, simply divide by 100). Our starting amount is 500, and we want it to double, making it 1000. Our formula is thus

1000 = 500 (1+0.07)^(t)

divide both sides by 500

2 = (1+0.07)^(t)

2 = (1.07)^(t)

Using logarithms, we can say that

[tex]log_{1.07} 2 = t[/tex]

and using a calculator, we get

10.24 = t

Since interest is only compounded once per time period, though, we have to round up to make sure it doubles, so t = 11

Answer:

(-6,-12)

Step-by-step explanation:

A dilation makes a figure gets bigger so just multiply 3 to point N to find N prime.

[tex] - 2 \times 3 = - 6[/tex]

[tex] - 4 \times 3 = - 12[/tex]

So our new coordinates is

(-6,-12)

Answer:

(-6,-12)

Step-by-step explanation:

A dilation makes a figure gets bigger so just multiply 3 to point N to find N prime.

So our new coordinates is

(-6,-12)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

check the attachment

Step-by-step explanation:

2x - y = - 4

- y = - 4 - 2x

y = 2x + 4

slope of the line = 2 with y - intercept 4