What is 70% less than 55?

Answer:

[tex]\frac{-1}{4} x^{2}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{-1}{4} g(x)[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/169

Step-by-step explanation:

There are 4 jacks in a deck of cards.

So 4/52 is the probability of drawing 1 card

The probability of drawing 2 jacks is 4/52*4/52

Solve, and that is 1/169

I hope this helps!

Answer:

[tex]-\dfrac{2}{17} + \dfrac{9}{17}i[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] (2 + i) \div (1 - 4i) = [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{2 + i}{1 - 4i} [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{2 + i}{1 - 4i} \times \dfrac{1 + 4i}{1 + 4i} [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{(2 + i)(1 + 4i)}{(1 - 4i)(1 + 4i)} [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{2 + 8i + i + 4i^2}{1 + 16} [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{2 + 9i - 4}{17} [/tex]

[tex] = \dfrac{-2 + 9i}{17} [/tex]

[tex]= -\dfrac{2}{17} + \dfrac{9}{17}i[/tex]

Answer:

3x2−2x+6/x2

Step-by-step explanation:

have a great day <33333

Answer:

(5,4)

Step-by-step explanation:

The coordinates of a point are the x and y-values of a point. It is organized like (x,y). The x-value is written first and then the y-value. The x-value is the "run" or the horizontal value; so, the value of the axis on the bottom. The y-value is the "rise" or the vertical value. The axes are also labeled. For this graph, the x-value is 5 and the y-value is 4. The final answer is (5,4).

Step-by-step explanation:

3600s=1hr

so, 1hr:1hr

1:1

Based on the concept of fractions and the information in the question, the fraction form in the lowest term is 1/2.

Fraction is a term that is used to describe the portion/part of the whole thing. It represents the equal parts of the whole.

Generally, the term fraction has two parts, namely numerator and denominator.

Hence, in this case, to express the ratio as a fraction in its lowest term, convert both units to the same unit of time.

1 hour is equal to 3600 seconds so 2 hours is equal to 2 * 3600 = 7200 seconds.

Now the ratio is 3600 seconds to 7200 seconds.

To simplify this ratio we can divide both terms by their greatest common divisor which is 3600.

So the simplified ratio is 1:2.

Therefore, in this case, it is concluded that the fraction form in the lowest term is 1/2.

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Answer:

The average value of the cost function over the interval  is of $23,500.

Step-by-step explanation:

Average value of a function:

The average value of a function, over an inteval [a,b], is given by:

[tex]A = \frac{1}{b-a} \int_{a}^{b} f(x) dx[/tex]

In this case:

Function [tex]C(x) = 20000 - 10x[/tex], interval with [tex]a = 0,b = 700[/tex]

So

[tex]A = \frac{1}{700} \int_{0}^{700} 20000+10x dx[/tex]

[tex]A = \frac{1}{700} (20000x+5x^2)|_{0}^{700}[/tex]

So

[tex]A = \frac{20000(700)+5(700)^2}{700} = 23500[/tex]

The average value of the cost function over the interval  is of $23,500.

Answer:

840 mm

Step-by-step explanation:

multiply by 10

Answer:

840 millimetres

Step-by-step explanation:

To convert cm to mm, multiply the value in cm by 10

84cm x 10 = 840 mm

Hope this helps! <3

Answer:

6x

Step-by-step explanation:

If x is the length of one side, and each side is the same length, you will multiply it by 6 times (there are 6 sides in a hexagon).

So, you will add it up 6 times, but you can say 6x for short.

Answer:

HEY THERE!

Step-by-step explanation:

the answer is:800

hope it helps and have a great day!

Ans: 800

explanation:

Answer:

Yes, the assets appear to follow a normal distribution, the values are concentrated in the center and taper off towards the ends

Step-by-step explanation:

The distribution shown above is normal as it exhibits symmetry. This means thatvtge values are concentrated in the middle with the peak so situated in the middle of the distribution which is exactly what is displayed above. As we move towards either side of the center, the values begin to decrease and we have the tail at either side of the midpoint and not on one side of the distribution.

Answer:

B. 0.41

Step-by-step explanation:

Binomial experiment:

In a binomial experiment, the probability of the success on each trial is always the same.

The probability of success on trial 4 is 0.41.

This means that the probability of success on trial 8, and all the other 10 trials, is of 0.41, and thus the correct answer is given by option B.

Answer:

Box dimensions:

x =  3.42 cm

y = 6.84 cm

C(min) = 14.04 $

Step-by-step explanation:

We need the surface area of the cube:

S(c)  =  2*S₁ ( surface area of top or base) +  4*S₂ ( surface lateral area)

S₁  = x²        2*S₁  = 2*x²

Surface lateral area is:

4*S₂  =  4*x*h                          V(c) =  80 cm³  =  x²*h          h  =  80/x²

4*S₂  = 4*80/x

4*S₂  = 320 / x

Costs

C (x)  =  0.2* 2*x²   +  0.1 * 320/x

Taking derivatives on both sides of the equation we get:

C´(x)  =    0.8*x   -  32/x²

C´(x)  =  0            0.8*x - 32/x²  = 0

0.8*x³  -  32  =  0            x³  =  32/0.8

x³  =  40  

x =  3.42 cm

h =  80/(3.42)²          h  = 6.84 cm

To find out if x = 3.42 brings a minimum value for C we go to the second derivative

C´´(x) =  64/x³       is always positive for  x > 0  

The C(min) = 0.4*(3.42)²  +  32/(3.42)

C(min)  =  4.68 +  9.36

C(min)  = 14.04 $

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Refer to the attachment for the steps.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

It’s G

Answer:

C. x is all real numbers

Step-by-step explanation:

Think of domain as how far the graph expands on the x-axis as asymptotes as the limits. So in this case, the graph extends infinitely on the x-axis; so it should be all real numbers.

Answer:

The variance of total loss is 8000000

Step-by-step explanation:

Let

[tex]X \to[/tex] Number of hurricane

Poisson [tex]E(X) = 4[/tex]

[tex]Y \to[/tex] Loss in each hurricane

Exponential [tex]E(Y) = 1000[/tex]

[tex]T \to[/tex] Total Loss

Required

The variance of the total loss

This is calculated as:

[tex]Var(T) = Var(E(T|X)) + E(Var(T|X))[/tex]

Where:

[tex]E(T|X) \to[/tex] Expected total loss given X hurricanes

And it is calculated as:

[tex]E(T|X) = E(Y) *N[/tex] --- Expected Loss in each hurricane * number of loss

[tex]Var(T|X) \to[/tex] Variance of total loss given X hurricanes

And it is calculated as:

[tex]Var(T|X) = Var(Y) * N[/tex] ---- --- Variance of loss in each hurricane * number of loss

So, we have:

[tex]Var(T) = Var(E(T|X)) + E(Var(T|X))[/tex]

[tex]Var(T) = Var(E(Y) * N) + E(Var(Y) * N)[/tex]

For exponential distribution;

[tex]Var(Y) = E(Y)^2[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]Var(T) = Var(E(Y) * X) + E(E(Y)^2 * X)[/tex]

Substitute values

[tex]Var(T) = Var(1000 * X) + E(1000^2 * X)[/tex]

Simplify:

[tex]Var(T) = Var(1000 * X) + 1000^2E(X)[/tex]

Using variance formula, we have:

[tex]Var(T) = 1000^2Var(X) + 1000^2E(X)[/tex]

For poission distribution:

[tex]Var(X) = E(X)[/tex]

So, we have:

[tex]Var(X) = E(X) = 4[/tex]

The expression becomes:

[tex]Var(T) = 1000^2*4 + 1000^2*4[/tex]

[tex]Var(T) = 1000000*4 + 1000000*4[/tex]

[tex]Var(T) = 4000000 + 4000000[/tex]

[tex]Var(T) = 8000000[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The key is to find out the entire volume the tank can hold when it is full, then take 2/3 of that amount. The volume of a cylinder is

[tex]V=\pi r^2h[/tex] and filling in:

[tex]V=3.14(3)^2(3)[/tex] (if the diameter is 6 m, the radius is 3) so

V = 84.78 m³ when it is full all the way. If we need the amount that makes up 2/3 of that:

[tex]\frac{2}{3}(84.78)=56.52m^3[/tex]

Answer:

12/13 is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

B is the correct equation

Answer:

D is the answer

Step-by-step explanation:

all sides and angles are equal

hope it helps!! let me know if it does

Explanation:

Divide 126 over 3. This is because any equilateral triangle has all three sides the same length

126/3 = 42

Each side is 42 mm long

So its perimeter is 3*42 = 126 mm

Side note: if your teacher says a triangle is equiangular, then it's automatically equilateral as well (and vice versa).

The length of one of its sides of an equilateral triangle is  42 mm.

In geometry, an equilateral triangle exists as a triangle that contains all its sides equivalent in length. Since the three sides stand equivalent therefore the three angles, opposite to the equivalent sides, stand equivalent in measure. Thus, it stands also named an equiangular triangle, where each angle measure 60 degrees.

The perimeter of an equilateral triangle exists 126 mm.

The equilateral triangle contains all three sides of the same length

126/3 = 42

Each side stands 42 mm long

So its perimeter stands 3 [tex]*[/tex] 42 = 126 mm

Therefore, the length of one of its sides = 42 mm.

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Answer:

The  weight that separate the top 8% by 5.2605 and the weight that separate bottom 8% by 5.1195.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that

Mean,[tex]\mu=5.19[/tex]

Standard deviation,[tex]\sigma=0.05[/tex]

We have to find the two weights that separate the top 8% and the bottom 8%.

Let x1 and x2 the two weights that separate the top 8% and the bottom 8%.

Z-value for p-value =0.08 =[tex]-1.41[/tex]

For 8% bottom

[tex]Z=\frac{x_1-\mu}{\sigma}=-1.41[/tex]

[tex]\frac{x_1-5.19}{0.05}=-1.41[/tex]

[tex]x_1-5.19=-1.41\times 0.05[/tex]

[tex]x_1=-1.41\times 0.05+5.19[/tex]

[tex]x_1=5.1195[/tex]

For 8% top

p-Value=1-0.08=0.92

Z- value=1.41

Now,

[tex]\frac{x_2-5.19}{0.05}=1.41[/tex]

[tex]x_2-5.19=1.41\times 0.05[/tex]

[tex]x_2=1.41\times 0.05+5.19[/tex]

[tex]x_2=5.2605[/tex]

(x1,x2)=(5.1195,5.2605)

Answer:

The correct answer is:

(a) Mean = 170,

    Standard deviation = 30

(b) 1700

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

(a)

Mean of monthly expenses will be:

= [tex]\frac{\mu}{2}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{2040}{2}[/tex]

= [tex]170[/tex]

Standard deviation will be:

= [tex]\frac{\sigma}{12}[/tex]

= [tex]\frac{360}{12}[/tex]

= [tex]30[/tex]

(b)

The total amount of monthly expenses will be:

= [tex]n\times \frac{\mu}{12}[/tex]

= [tex]100\times 170[/tex]

= [tex]1700[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]x = - 2[/tex]

[tex]x = - 5[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Give

[tex](x - 5)(x + 12)[/tex]

Apply FOIL Method

[tex]x {}^{2} + 7x - 60 = - 70[/tex]

Add 70 on both sides

[tex] {x}^{2} + 7x + 10[/tex]

Factor

[tex](x + 2)(x + 5)[/tex]

So our roots are

x=-2

x=-5

Answer:

dtet

Step-by-step explanation:

dgbyn

Answer:

Milk   10 L

Vanilla essence  = 20 ml

Sugar   = 1kg

Egg yolks   100 yolks

Step-by-step explanation:

2l/250ml = 8 servings per recipe ,

40 servings/8 = 5 "batches"

Milk 2 L * 5 = 10 L

Vanilla essence 4 ml * 5 = 20 ml

Sugar 200 g * 5  = 1000g = 1kg

Egg yolks 20 * 5 = 100 yolks

Answer:

I think the answer is 12:16 because my brother told me

Step-by-step explanation:

I dont know the answer my brother told me this answer. HOPE THIS HELPS