Gold: Gold salts, such as aurothioglucose, should not be administered to patients who have a history of heavy metal toxicity because they may be hazardous to the kidneys.
Which of the following drugs is prescribed to a rheumatoid arthritis patient?To treat rheumatoid arthritis, doctors typically start by prescribing methotrexate (Rheumatrex, Trexall). If that is insufficient to reduce inflammation, they may attempt or add another type of conventional DMARD, such as tofacitinib, leflunomide, hydroxychloroquine (Plaquenil), or sulfasalazine (Azulfidine) (Xeljanz).
What rheumatoid arthritis drug not only reduces inflammation but also helps premature babies with patent ductus arteriosus closure?A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) called indomethacin is used to treat the symptoms of chronic musculoskeletal pain disorders and to cause the closure of a premature infant's hemodynamically critical patent ductus arteriosus.
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a newborn has a generalized rash on the skin, which the nurse identifies as erythema toxicum neonatorum. which information would the nurse include when explaining the condition to the newborn's parent?
Many babies have erythema toxicum, a blotchy red skin response that can present between 2 days and 2 weeks after delivery. Flat, red spots or tiny lumps that start on the face and spread to the torso and limbs are common.
Erythema toxicum neonatorum (ETN) is a neonatal skin disease. ETN typically resembles acne. On the baby's face, limbs, or chest, red patches or tiny, fluid-filled pimples (pustules) may appear. ETN is not harmful and normally disappears on its own.
Colic symptoms will most likely disappear after three months. Colic is described as inconsolable sobbing lasting three hours or more per day and having no physical reason. Colic symptoms usually disappear at the age of three months.
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a client anticipates removal of his or her chest tube with angst. which diagnostic procedure does the nurse discuss when determining when to remove a client's chest tube?
This finding is expected, so keep an eye on things. When deciding to then replace a client's chest tube, the nurse consults with them.
Only when chest tube is being removed, how should the nurse educate the patient?Give the patient practice inhaling deeply and holding it. Explain to the patient either hold their breath or hum before we remove the tube to stop air from entering the body through the lungs again.
What standards apply when a chest tube is removed?That chest tube may be withdrawn if it was implanted to drain any pleural fluid after the flow output becomes less than 100 ml in a 24 hrs period,3,5, the fluids is solid, the lung has expanded again on the lung image, and the person's clinical condition has improved.
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a pregnant client and her husband tell the nurse they have a i-year-old daughter with sickle cell anemia, but that they themselves do not have the disease. which response would correctly answer the clients' question, 'will this baby also have sickle cell anemia?'
There is a 25% likelihood that another child will have sickle cell anemia.
sickle cell anemiaThe sickle cell gene is a recessive gene, in accordance with Mendelian laws of inheritance. A child has a 25% chance of having sickle cell anemia, a 50% probability of having the sickle cell trait, and a 25% chance of being unaffected if neither parent has the disease and both parents have the sickle cell trait.To say that only one child in a household is impacted and that the others will probably be fine is too ambiguous. It is not a correct response to say that the kids will develop sickle cell anemia. The customer should be informed about the likelihood that their child may inherit the illness, but 50% is too high.How is sickle cell anemia treated?
The usual goals of sickle cell anemia treatment are to reduce discomfort, treat symptoms, and stop complications. Blood transfusions and medicines are possible forms of treatment. A stem cell transplant may be able to reverse the condition in certain children and teenagers.
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nan 8 hour postpartum client complains of abdominal cramping and feeling dizzy. during ht e assesment the nurse notes the clients fund is soft deviated to the right 4 fingerbreadths above the umbilicus and there is moderate rubra. what woukd the nurs priority actions be
A nurse should check the patient's blood pressure, heart rate, respiration rate, and temperature to see whether there have been any alarming changes.
The following are the nurse's top priorities:Evaluation of uterine contractions: To identify any alarming changes, the nurse should evaluate the patient's level of discomfort as well as the frequency, severity, and length of uterine contractions.Examining the patient's pad to check for symptoms of bleeding: The nurse should check the patient's pad to see if there is any increased bleeding or if the pad is completely soaked.Notifying the medical professional: Because the patient's symptoms and the results of the physical examination could be signs of postpartum hemorrhage or uterine atony, the nurse should promptly notify the medical professional.Prescription administration: If a doctor prescribes a drug to treat bleeding or abdominal cramps, the nurse must take the medication exactly as prescribed.Monitoring for any alterations in the condition of the patient: The nurse should remain to keep an eye on the patient's vitals and the results of the abdominal exam, and she should notify the healthcare professional right once if anything changes.learn more about abdominal cramping here
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which nursing action is best when a patient diagnosed with pheochromocytoma presents wit ha blood pressure of 210/110 mm hg
The best nursing action to do when a patient with pheochromocytoma presents with high blood pressure is to administer the prescribed phentolamine.
Pheochromocytoma is a rare tumor that develops in an adrenal gland. It's usually benign, affecting people between the age of 20 and 50. Because of the hormones that it can secret, the symptoms of this tumor are high blood pressure, sweating, rapid heartbeat, and headache.
When a patient with pheochromocytoma presents with high blood pressure, the nurse can administer phentolamine. Phentolamine is an alpha-blocking drug that effectively treats hypertension associated with this tumor.
Attached below is an image of pheochromocytoma that's affecting an adrenal gland.
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a nurse assesses a client's respiratory status. which observation indicates that the client is having difficulty breathing?
Respiratory difficulties are indicated by pursed-lip breathing, nasal flaring, loud breathing, intercostal retractions, anxiousness, and usage of accessory muscles.
Which observation suggests a patient is having respiratory problems?A person may be experiencing problems breathing or not getting enough oxygen if their number of breaths per minute increases. A person may have a bluish hue around their mouth, on the inside of their lips, or even on their fingernails if they are not obtaining enough oxygen.
Which traits are taken into account when evaluating breath sounds?Pitch, amplitude, specific qualities, and length of the inspiratory sound in comparison to the expiratory sound are the four characteristics of breath sounds that the examiner should recognize.
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the nurse is assessing the patient for nutritional status. which laboratory value may indicate compromised protein status?
An indication of visceral protein stores and nutritional status is the serum albumin level. If liver function is normal, a serum albumin level of less than 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency.
What laboratory results point to protein malnutrition?The amount of urea in the urine can be measured to study nitrogen balance. Calculating the urine creatinine/height index is another method. Values of 60-80% and 40%, respectively, signify mild and severe protein deficiency.
What types of lab tests are used to evaluate nutritional status?The most frequently utilized laboratory indicators of nutritional status may be serum proteins, which include albumin, transferrin, prealbumin, and retinol-binding protein. They are negative acute-phase reactants produced by the liver, and their levels are decreased during systemic inflammation.
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you obtain an expired carbon monoxide (co) reading of 18 ppm on a copd patient participating in a pulmonary rehabilitation program. based on the finding, you can conclude that the patient:
If methacholine reduces your ability to breathe by 20% or more when compared to your baseline, the challenge test is deemed successful. If the test is positive, it means that your airways are "reactive," and asthma should be suspected.
Which of the patients listed below should you typically advise against having a diagnostic bronchoscopy done on?Notably, individuals with severe refractory hypoxemia, unstable cardiac illness, or life-threatening arrhythmias shouldn't undergo bronchoscopy. There should be caution used when performing bronchoscopy lung biopsy.
How much of a change in FEV1 must there be after the trial in order for it to be regarded a significant response to bronchodilator therapy?ATS recommendations advise that an increase after bronchodilator treatment of more than 200 mL in either FEV1 or FVC is noteworthy and may result in diagnostic misclassification despite the intrinsic differences between these two lung function measurements.
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why is it important for the nurse to understand the stages and characteristics of normal sleep? select all that apply. the quality of sleep impacts the client's wellness while awake. the client will require less sleep while hospitalized. the nurse will need to document the client's sleep cycles. the quality sleep will be manifested in various symptoms.
It is important for the nurse to understand the stages and characteristics of normal sleep the quality of sleep impacts the client's wellness while awake.
Normal sleep timeBy adopting a good sleep pattern, one's body functions will run well, so one can easily avoid several diseases such as stress, diabetes, and heart disease. Seeing these conditions, it is important for us to be able to know how much time is enough for someone to get a healthy sleep pattern. Because the quality of sleep has an impact on the client's health while awake.
For ages, 6-12 years need 10 hours of sleep. Meanwhile, for 12-18 years, the need for healthy sleep is 8-9 hours. At the age of 18-40 years need 7-8 hours of sleep every day.
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how does the incidence of type 2 diabetes among native americans compare to that of the general population?
The prevalence of diabetes among American Indian and Alaska Native adults is one in six, which is more than twice the national average.
Why are African Americans more likely to get type 2 diabetes?Diabetes risk factors in the African American community include genetic factors, obesity rates, and insulin resistance. Due to inadequate glycemic management and racial inequities in access to healthcare in the USA, African Americans have a high risk of diabetic complications.
What is the major contributing factor to type 2 diabetes in the general population?Type 2 diabetes, sometimes referred to as adult-onset or non-insulin-dependent diabetes, is brought on by the body's ineffective use of insulin. More than 95% of people with type 2 diabetes experience complications.
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which action would allow the nurse to interpret and judge a patient's condition and whether predicted changes occurred during the evaluation phase of the nursing process
The action that would allow a nurse to interpret and judge a patient's condition and whether predicted changes occurred during the evaluation phase of the nursing process is to compare the patient's current status to the expected outcomes established during the planning phase.
During the evaluation phase, the nurse assesses the patient's response to the interventions implemented during the implementation phase and determines whether the desired outcomes have been achieved. The nurse compares the patient's current status, symptoms, and vital signs to the baseline data and the expected outcomes established in the plan of care.
This comparison allows the nurse to determine if the patient's condition has improved, remained stable, or worsened and whether any deviations from the expected outcomes are present. Based on this information, the nurse can make a judgement on the effectiveness of the interventions and make necessary changes to the plan of care to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
This continuous cycle of assessment, re-evaluation, and adjustment is an important aspect of the nursing process and helps ensure that the patient receives the best possible care.
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which legal issue is presented when a patient who presents no danger to themselves or others is forced to take medication against their will
The damaging, unwanted touching of another individual is referred to as battery. Battery occurs when medication is administered violently.
What is an illustration of goodness in medical ethics?Beneficence. Beneficence is kindness and charity, which calls for the nurse to take action to help others. Holding the hand of a patient who is dying is an illustration of a nurse exemplifying this ethical principle.
What distinguishes autonomy from beneficence in nursing?Two core nursing ethical concepts, autonomy (following a patient's decisions) and beneficence (doing good), may clash. The nurse's job is to negotiate a compromise between the two through open dialogue, information exchange with the patient, and compromise.
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What is the relationship between the physical intensity and the perceived intensity of a stimulus?
Answer:
Intensity of a sensation is directly proportional to the intensity of the physical stimulus raised to a constant power.
Explanation:
Everyday, patients see and hear advertisements in the media for products that will clean, polish, whiten, and remove stains from their teeth. While some of these products are effective, some are not. What do you reply to a person who states that they do not have to seek professional dental care since all these products are available over the counter?
Over-the-counter dental products are beneficial for oral care, but they cannot replace the comprehensive examination and professional dental care provided by a dentist.
While over-the-counter dental products like toothpaste, mouthwash, and whitening strips can play a valuable role in maintaining oral hygiene, they have limitations. These products are designed for general oral care and may help with regular cleaning, freshening breath, and minor surface stains. However, they cannot replace the expertise and comprehensive care provided by a qualified dentist.
A dentist offers more than just teeth cleaning. Regular dental visits allow for thorough examinations, early detection of dental issues, personalized treatment plans, and professional dental cleanings that remove stubborn plaque and tartar buildup. Dentists are trained to identify and address a wide range of oral health problems, including cavities, gum disease, oral cancer, and misalignment issues.
Professional dental care also includes preventive measures like fluoride treatments, dental sealants, and specialized treatments for sensitive teeth. Dentists can educate patients on proper oral hygiene techniques, offer dietary advice for better oral health, and address specific concerns based on individual needs.
Delaying or avoiding professional dental care can lead to undetected oral health problems, which may worsen over time and require more extensive and costly treatments in the future. It is essential for individuals to recognize that over-the-counter dental products are a part of daily oral care but should not replace regular visits to the dentist. Combining at-home oral hygiene with professional dental care ensures optimal oral health, early detection of issues, and personalized guidance for maintaining a healthy smile.
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Need help asap tonight
Everyone has bad habits, which, of course, they want to change. If you can't change all of them, try eliminating them one by one. Previously, find out what causes it first.
When you are stressed, maybe you can eat several portions of food at one time, or you will spend time on social media when you feel bored. Anxiety and anxiety are also causes for the emergence of bad habits. If you already know the cause, you might be able to find ideas to change the bad habit.
What is behavior modificationBehavior modification refers to techniques for changing behavior, such as changing a person's behavior and reaction to a stimulus through strengthening adaptive behavior and/or eliminating maladaptive behavior through punishment. This term was first used by Edward Thorndike in 1911 in his article Provisional laws of acquired behavior or learning.
Clinical psychology experimenters use the term behavior modification to refer to specific psychotherapeutic techniques for increasing adaptive behavior and eliminating maladaptive ones. Two other related terms are behavior therapy and behavior analysis.
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a native american client discusses cultural beliefs with the nurse providing care. in order to recognize any negative feelings or stereotypes the nurse has, which should the nurse do to ensure culturally competent nursing care can be provided?
Reflect on how the client's beliefs may have similarities and differences from the nurse's own culture in order to identify any unfavourable feelings or stereotypes the nurse may have in order to provide competent nursing care.
There are an increasing number of ethnic and culturally diverse groups, and each has unique cultural characteristics. Furthermore, some racial groups have particular health issues that only they face.
It is crucial for nurses to become culturally competent because they spend an increasing amount of time with their patients from triage to discharge. The accuracy of medical research is increased and patient outcomes are supported by cultural competency in the health care sector.
Many cultures have very distinctive perspectives on healthcare and may practise customs that are in opposition to Western medical practises. A Native American man, for instance, might not want to be revived or put on life support.
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The above question is incomplete. Check complete question below -
native american client discusses cultural beliefs with the nurse providing care. in order to recognize any negative feelings or stereotypes the nurse has, which should the nurse do to ensure culturally competent nursing care can be provided?
A. Reflect on how the client's beliefs may have similarities and differences from the nurse's own culture.
B.Treating the client as a source of cultural information.
C. Show genuine interest in the client's culture and personal life experiences.
D. Avoid eye contact with the client and family.
a patient with iron deficiency anemia was in the asc for a colonoscopy. after bowel prep and iv sedation in the left lateral position, the colonoscope was advanced under direct vision with some difficulty and repositioning finally to the cecum. prep was adequate. the mucosal surfaces were adequately visualized and appeared unremarkable. the patient tolerated the procedure well. there were no complications. the colonoscopy was negative. provide the procedure code(s) for this encounter.
The procedure code for the meeting is 45378, D50.9
The ICD code is used to code a diagnosis or medical procedure. So that the diagnosis is easy to classify and can be recapitulated in the amount used for reporting diagnosis data.
CPT code 45378 is the basic code for colonoscopy, and flexible; diagnostics, including specimen collection by brushing or washing, when performed (separate procedure). As for the ICD-10 code: D50. 9 was iron deficiency anemia, unspecified.
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a physically active 19-year-old primigravida attends the prenatal clinic for the first time. she asks the nurse whether she may continue playing tennis and riding horses while she is pregnant. how would the nurse reply?
The nurse's answer about riding a horse and playing tennis during pregnancy was "both sports are not recommended because riding requires a stable balance and tennis is running around chasing a ball, it can harm the pregnancy."
What is riding horses?Riding horses is a term that refers to the skill of riding, riding, jumping, or running on a horse. However, for pregnant women, this one exercise is certainly not recommended.
Because, when riding, requires a high balance so as not to fall. If it falls, of course, it can endanger the safety of the fetus in the womb and can cause a miscarriage. It's the same with tennis because tennis runs after the ball so it is very risky for pregnant women.
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which information would the nurse educator include in a presentation on how to care for clients with a chest tube drainage system ? select all that apply . one , some , or all responses may be correct.
All of the following is the correct response.
What care should be taken in a client with chest tube drainage system?The nurse educator would include all of the following information in a presentation on caring for clients with a chest tube drainage system:
Purpose of chest tube placement and expected outcomes.Anatomy and physiology related to chest tube placement.Management of chest drainage system, including monitoring and documentation of drainage output.Prevention and management of potential complications, such as dislodgement of the chest tube, infection, and air leaks.Education on deep breathing and coughing exercises to prevent atelectasis and promote lung expansion.Importance of proper positioning to optimize drainage and prevent tension on the chest tube.Use of a water seal chamber to monitor the chest drainage and ensure proper functioning of the system.Assessment and management of pain related to the chest tube.Importance of collaborating with the interdisciplinary team, including the surgeon, to ensure appropriate management of the chest tube.Education on signs and symptoms to report to the healthcare provider, such as sudden changes in drainage output or increased pain.Learn more about chest tube drainage system, here:
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which medications are included in the adrenergic antihypertensives class? select all that apply. carvedilol acetaminophen clonidine diphenhydramine methyldopa
The medication that include the adrenergic Anti-hypertensives class is clonidine, therefore the correct option is C.
Adrenergic anti hypertensives are a class of specifics used to treat high blood pressure. This class of specifics works by blocking the action of adrenaline on the body's cells, which helps to reduce blood pressure. Common specifics included in this class are clonidine, methyldopa, and carvedilol.
Clonidine is an nascence- 2 agonist that helps to reduce the exertion of the sympathetic nervous system, which is involved in the regulation of blood pressure. Methyldopa is an nascence- 2 agonist that helps to reduce the product of aldosterone.
Hence the correct option is A.
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when the paramedics arrive on the scene, you give them an overview of the patient's information and summarize the care you provided. this is called:
One of the most important aspects of a call is the patient care report. This is your opportunity to provide the hospital with a quick report on your patient and to notify them that you are on your way, allowing them time to prepare for your arrival.
The "receiver" in the communication process is the listener, reader, or observer—that is, the individual (or group of individuals) to whom a message is addressed. The receiver is also referred to as the "audience" or the decoder.
Your address or location, the nature of the medical condition, and your name and contact information. You should make certain that a contact person is present until the ambulance comes.
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a patient with hypovolemic shock has a urinary output of 15 ml/hr. the nurse understands that the compensatory physiologic mechanism that leads to altered urinary output is:
Stimulation of cardiac β-adrenergic receptors, leading to increased cardiac output leads to altered urinary output. In this case option B is correct.
During the compensatory stage of shock, agitation and anxiety are frequent feelings. The progressive and refractory stages are characterized by cold, mutilated extremities, cool and clammy skin, and a systolic blood pressure of less than 90.
The sudden cessation of heartbeat is referred to as cardiac arrest or sudden cardiac arrest. A person may lose consciousness, become disabled, or pass away if the lack of blood flow to the brain and other organs is not treated right away.
Make a 911 call right away if a family member exhibits signs of cardiac arrest. An automated external defibrillator (AED) must be accessible in public areas according to many states' laws. If you have access to an AED, administer CPR in accordance with the machine's instructions until emergency assistance can be summoned.
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A patient with hypovolemic shock has a urinary output of 15 ml/hr. The nurse understands that the compensatory physiologic mechanism that leads to altered urinary output is
a. activation of the sympathetic nervous system (SNS), causing vasodilation of the renal arteries.
b. stimulation of cardiac β-adrenergic receptors, leading to increased cardiac output.
c. release of aldosterone and antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which cause sodium and water retention.
d. movement of interstitial fluid to the intravascular space, increasing renal blood flow.
a phlebotomist enters a room to draw blood on a patient undergoing care for an infected wound. the site of the wound and its bandages are considered which link in the chain of infection?
A phlebotomist enters a room to draw blood on a patient undergoing care for an infected wound and the site of the wound and its bandages are considered portal of exit link in the chain of infection.
A phlebotomist is a medical professional who performs phlebotomy at medical facilities. His or her responsibility is to support medical laboratory technologists, physicians, nurses, and anyone who are solely responsible for collecting blood.
The virus can exit the reservoir through any channel, which is referred to as the Portal of Exit. This is largely dependent on the reservoir's properties. The principal egress points for humans are as follows: Vomiting, diarrhoea, and saliva are astringent.
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a client with recurrent urinary tract infections has just undergone a cystoscopy and reports slight hematuria during the first void after the procedure. what is the nurse's most appropriate action?
Assuring that patient that it is not unexpected, you should then keep an eye out for any additional bleeding.
What should the nurse check for after a cystoscopic examination on the patient?Following a cystoscopy, the nurse should pay attention to the following nursing care: Track and keep track of vital signs. Hemorrhage symptoms may include a quickening of the heartbeat (tachycardia) and a drop in blood pressure (hypotension). At least one hour after the procedure, check your patient's ability to urinate.
Which evaluation result about a patient who has undergone left handed shock wave extracorporeal lithotripsy quizlet should be reported to the healthcare provider first?It is crucial for the nurse to note a decrease in urine production in patients who have undergone moved extracorporeal shock waves lithotripsy since this procedure breaks the stone into microscopic particles that may cause blockage.
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when the oxygen saturation of a client with pneumonia is at 89% to 90% while using a nonrebreather mask, which collaborative action would the nurse anticipate ?
When the oxygen saturation of a client with pneumonia is at 89% to 90% while using a nonrebreather mask, the nurse would anticipate that the healthcare provider (HCP) would order additional oxygen therapy to improve the client's oxygenation.
One possible collaborative action that the nurse could anticipate would be an order to increase the oxygen flow rate on the nonrebreather mask, up to the maximum flow rate of 15 L/min. If this does not adequately improve the client's oxygen saturation, the HCP may order additional oxygen therapy, such as a high-flow nasal cannula or mechanical ventilation.
In addition to oxygen therapy, the nurse would also anticipate other collaborative interventions, such as administering antibiotics as prescribed to treat pneumonia and providing supportive care to help the client breathe more comfortably. The nurse would also continue to monitor the client's vital signs and oxygen saturation levels and communicate any changes or concerns to the healthcare team.
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mrs. chou has been suffering from senile dementia alzheimer's type for over 5 years. her family has kept her at home, and each member has participated in her care. you, as a community health nurse, have been supporting the family in this effort. recently, mrs. chou has stopped interacting with the family, refuses to eat, and sleeps a great deal. the family is conflicted over how to care for their dying mother. you understand that your role in this conflict is to
The family is conflicted over how to care for their dying mother. You understand that your role in this conflict is to persuade the family members to meet together to express their feelings for one another.
Alzheimer's disease / senile is a condition in which some cells in the brain are not functioning. As a result, the ability of the brain decreased drastically.
People with Alzheimer's disease will experience a decline in intellectual function which is quite severe. This will cause interference with the daily activities and social life of sufferers
Family and Alzheimer's are two components that are closely related. Bonds between families need to be formed to understand feelings, and emotions and improve the quality of relationships with loved ones. So the role of the family is very important for Alzheimer's patients. Make sure there are no conflicts within the family.
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Arrange these elements of the intrinsic conduction system in the order that a depolarizing impulse travels during a normal heartbeat.
1) SA node
2) Internodal pathways
3) AV node
4) AV bundle
5) Bundle branches
6) Purkinje fibers
The correct order of the elements of the intrinsic conduction system during a normal heartbeat is:
1) SA node
2) Internodal pathways
3) AV node
4) AV bundle
5) Bundle branches
6) Purkinje fibers
The SA node, or sinoatrial node, initiates the depolarizing impulse that starts the heartbeat. This impulse then travels through the internodal pathways to the AV node, or atrioventricular node. The AV node then sends the impulse to the AV bundle, or bundle of His, which splits into the left and right bundle branches. Finally, the impulse travels through the Purkinje fibers to the ventricles, causing them to contract and complete the heartbeat.
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a nurse is preparing to teach a client about common adverse reactions associated with rifampin. which reactions would the nurse include? select all that apply.
The nurse should include the following adverse reactions as associated with the rifampin: nausea, vomiting and headache therefore the correct option is A.
The nurse would explain that the medicine can beget liver enzyme abnormalities, leading to hostility, and that it can intrude with the effectiveness of oral contraceptives. The nurse would explain that nausea, puking, headache, and dizziness are common side goods of rifampin and can generally be managed by taking the drug
With food the nurse would also explain that abdominal pain, anorexia, and orange- colored urine can do and should be reported to the healthcare provider. The nurse would also explain that a skin rash can do and should be reported to the healthcare provider, especially if it's accompanied by fever or itching.
Question is incomplete the complete question is
A nurse is preparing to teach a client about common adverse reactions associated with rifampin. which reactions would the nurse include? select all that apply.
a nausea, vomiting, headache,
b vomiting
c fever
d none
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a client is admitted in active labor. the nurse, performing leopold maneuvers, determines that the fetus is in the left occiput anterior (loa) position. where would the nurse place the transducer of the electronic fetal monitor?
When a client is admitted in active labor and the foetus is in the left occiput anterior (LOA) position, as determined by Leopold Manoeuvres, the nurse would place the transducer of the electronic foetal monitor as follows:
On the maternal abdomen: The nurse would place the transducer on the maternal abdomen, near the side of the uterus where the foetus is presenting. In this case, the foetus is in the LOA position, so the transducer would be placed on the left side of the uterus.Above the symphysis pubis: The nurse would place the transducer above the symphysis pubis, which is the midline joint at the front of the pelvis. This allows the nurse to monitor the foetal heart rate, which is the primary goal of electronic foetal monitoring.Over the foetal presenting part: The nurse would place the transducer over the foetal presenting part, which is the part of the foetus that is closest to the cervix. This allows the nurse to monitor the foetal heart rate and assess the foetal well-being.Above the uterus: The nurse would place the transducer above the uterus, to avoid compressing the foetus or the umbilical cord.It is important for the nurse to properly place the transducer and properly monitor the foetus to assess the foetal well-being and ensure the safe delivery of the baby.
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what role did the federal reserve play in causing the great depression?
The role that did the federal reserve play in causing the great depression is causing great Depression.
The Federal Reserve raised interest rates to help affectation and enterprise in the stock request, but this action drastically braked the inflow of plutocrat in the frugality. This created a space of plutocrat and reduced spending, which in turn led to a sharp drop in product, farther reducing employment and inflows.
In addition, the Federal Reserve failed to respond to the extremity by furnishing liquidity to the banking system, which caused banks to fail and wiped out the savings of millions of Americans. This created an indeed lesser fiscal extremity that further crippled the frugality.
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