The statement (To understand how cells function as the fundamental unit of life, it is essential to become familiar with the individual roles of the cellular structures and organelles) is true because each organelle and structure have specific functions that work together to maintain the life of the cell.
The smallest unit that is capable of living on its own and that can be found in all living organisms, as well as the tissues of the body, is the cell. The cell membrane, the nucleus, and the cytoplasm are the three primary components that make up a cell. The cell membrane encircles the cell and regulates the passage of chemicals into and out of the cell. It also protects the cell from outside forces.
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Which of the following cells would most likely have the greatest concentration of densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a) An amoeba engulfing small ciliates
b) A bioluminescent bacterial cell
c) A pancreatic cell engaged in the production of digestive enzymes
d) A functional phloem cell at maturity
e) An epithelial cell whose DNA is replicating before mitosis
A pancreatic cell producing digesting enzymes would most likely have the highest concentration of densely packed rough endoplasmic reticulum. Option C is correct.
An organelle is a specialized component with a specific purpose found within a cell. Organelles are either separate lipid bilayer-enclosed functional units known as membrane-bound organelles or spatially distinct functional units known as non-membrane bound organelles. The endoplasmic reticulum is the transportation system of the eukaryotic cell, but it also conducts many other important functions such as protein folding.
It is an organelle composed of two subunits: rough endoplasmic reticulum and smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The rough endoplasmic reticulum receives its name from the way it looks. It is a network of flattened sacs with numerous ribosomes on the outside, thus the name. It is responsible for the synthesis and secretion of proteins in the liver, as well as hormones and other chemicals in the glands.
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The chromatids become condensed.
The mitotic spindle begins to form.
The nucleolus becomes less visible.
The nuclear membrane begins to dissociate into small vesicles
Select all of the following events that occur during prophase.
Multiple select question.
The two centrosomes are replicated.
The chromatids become condensed.
The mitotic spindle begins to form.
The nucleolus becomes less visible.
The nuclear membrane begins to dissociate into small vesicles
All of the options are correct: The chromatids become condensed, The mitotic spindle begins to form, The nucleolus becomes less visible, The nuclear membrane begins to dissociate into small vesicles.
Prophase is the first stage of mitosis, the process by which a eukaryotic cell divides its genetic material into two identical daughter cells. During prophase, several key events occur. The chromatin (loosely packed DNA) becomes condensed into discrete chromosomes, which makes them more visible under a microscope. The mitotic spindle, a structure composed of microtubules, begins to form and will eventually separate the chromosomes into two sets. The nucleolus, a region of the nucleus responsible for producing ribosomes, becomes less visible as it breaks down and disassembles. Finally, the nuclear membrane begins to dissociate into small vesicles, allowing the spindle fibers to interact directly with the chromosomes. All of these events are essential for proper chromosome segregation during mitosis.
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Match the energy storage form on the left with its main storage location on the right (you will not need all choices available):
1. glycogen a. skeletal muscle
2. triglycerides b. brain
3. proteins c. adipose tissue
d. liver
Match the energy storage form on the left with its main storage location on the right 3. proteins c. adipose tissue
What is the primary place of bodily energy storage?Glucose is the primary source of energy for our cells. When the body does not require glucose for energy, it stores it in the liver and muscles. This stored form of glucose is known as glycogen and is made up of numerous linked glucose molecules.
However, glucose is a big molecule and is not the most effective means for the body to produce energy rapidly. Adenosine Triphosphate is the most frequent type of energy in cells (ATP).
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How are meiosis and genetic traits related?
Answer:
parental germ cells undergo meiosis and produce gametes that carry specific alleles, and two gametes unite during fertilization to form offspring.
Explanation:
Which of the following statements regarding Anfinsen's denaturing experiments with ribonuclease A are valid?1) Exposing the denatured protein to air oxidation and then dialysis to remove urea restored the protein to its original functionality.2) Removing urea by dialysis and then allowing air oxidation of the denatured protein restored the protein to its original functionality.3) Denaturing the protein with both urea and β-mercaptoethanol yielded an inactive protein.4) Protein folding is determined by its primary sequence.Statements 1, 2, and 4 are valid.Statements 1, 2, and 4 are valid.Only statements 2, 3, and 4 are valid.All of the listed statements are valid
Regarding Anfinsen's denaturing experiments with ribonuclease A, the statements A, B, and D are true.
Anfinsen discovered that the protein became inactive after being denaturized with urea and -mercaptoethanol.
The denatured protein was brought back to its original state by being subjected to air oxidation after urea was removed via dialysis.
In his opinion, the primary sequence of a protein controls how it folds.
'A' is untrue. Anfinsen first removed the urea, after which he let the enzyme solution gradually reoxidize in the air.
After pyrimidine residues, RNase A efficiently catalyzes the cleavage of the RNA P-O5' bond. This enzyme has been the focus of seminal studies in the fields of enzymology, protein folding, stability, and chemistry, as well as molecular evolution.
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Sexual spores are formed by the fusion of two haploid nuclei. They then go through meiosis to form spores. Spores are which of the following?
A. thermophile.
B. halophile.
C. basophile.
D. acidophile.
E. hydrophile.
None of the choices are acceptable based on the condition stated in the question for the spores.
Describe meiosis.Meiosis, a type of cell division that occurs in organisms that reproduce sexually causes the number of chromosomes in "gametes" to decrease. Body (or somatic) cells in humans are diploid, meaning they have two chromosome sets (one (1) from each parent).
What makes meiosis so crucial?Meiosis is the process by which gametes, or sex cells, that are required for sexual reproduction, are produced. It disables the sporophytic info while activating the genetic info for the production of sex cells. By halving the same, it keeps the chromosomal count constant.
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chef grace is trying to experience the taste of dolphin without actually eating dolphin. she presumes that taste is evolutionary and changes much the same way genes do. which of the following organisms should she eat based on this hypothesis?
Option b is Correct. Chef Grace aims to taste dolphin flavor without actually eating dolphin. According to this theory, she should consume bighorn sheep creatures.
She assumes that taste is an evolutionary trait that evolves in a manner similar to how genes do. Bighorn sheep are untamed creatures. Bighorn sheep have occasionally attacked people, but these incidents are uncommon. They can become defensive, especially during the rutting season, despite generally not being aggressive creatures.
They've presumably also talked about hunting bighorn sheep, too. But what you may not know is that rams and bighorn sheep are really the same thing. Bighorn sheep males are referred to as rams, thus when discussing bighorn sheep hunting, you can use either name.
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Correct Question:
Chef Grace is trying to experience the taste of dolphin without actually eating dolphin. She presumes that taste is evolutionary and changes much the same way genes do. Which of the following organisms should she eat based on this hypothesis?
A. elephant
B. bighorn sheep
C. manatee
D. lemur
E. koala
The public architecture of the Maya, including elaborate stone platforms topped with buildings, is associated with
the merchant elite
the military
religion
all of the above
The Maya's public architecture, which included elaborate stone platforms topped with structures, is associated with religion. The required option is the third one.
The Maya civilization is one of the most important civilizations in American history. This civilization is known for its ancient temples, art, architecture, astronomy, mathematics, and calendar. They had a developed writing system so their scripts looks sophisticated.
The Maya city consists of platforms with steps and stone tops, individual house mounds, and temple pyramids. They had a very great sense of art, decoration, paintings, and carvings. Most of their architecture is associated with religion. So the required option is the third option.
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draw the expected pattern of bands on a gel that shows the alleles for the seized tusk and the elephant you identified as a potential match for str loci fh60 and fh129. include a dna ladder that has dna fragments that are 125, 150, and 175 bp in size.
The STR loci FH60 and FH129 are short tandem repeat regions of DNA. When amplified by PCR, the number of repeats in these regions will determine the size of the DNA fragment produced.
If the seized tusk and the potential elephant match have the same number of repeats in these regions, they will produce the same size fragment and therefore show the same band pattern on a gel. The DNA ladder with fragments of known sizes will allow for accurate determination of the size of the DNA fragments produced by the PCR amplification. The expected band pattern will show bands at the sizes corresponding to the PCR products of FH60 and FH129 for both the seized tusk and the potential elephant match, with the same number and size of bands indicating a match. The STR loci FH60 and FH129 are short tandem repeat regions of DNA. When amplified by PCR, the number of repeats in these regions will determine the size of the DNA fragment produced.
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Which of the following does NOT come from a seed plant? a. wooden cabins c. natural sponges b. notebook paper d. linen napkins
Answer:
Explanation:
All-natural sponges come from the sea, right? Not true. An entirely natural sponge plant grows on terra firma. The luffa (Luffa aegyptiaca) sometimes spelled loofah and nicknamed dishcloth gourd may be started from seeds and grown similarly to cucumbers and squash.
wood cabins come from trees that start off as seeds.
Notebook paper also!
Image result for do linen napkins come from seed plants
the flax plant
Technically, linen is a vegetable. Linen fabric is made from the cellulose fibers that grow inside of the stalks of the flax plant, or Linum usitatissimum, one of the oldest cultivated plants in human history.
How much of the land can be farmed?
one third
O two thirds
one half
O one fifth
The farmer has one-fifth (1/5) of the original land left for farming.
The correct option is B.
What fraction of the land is left that can be farmed?The fraction of the land left that can be farmed is calculated as follows:
Assuming that the farmer initially had 100 units of land.
So, 1/5 of the land is 100 * 1/5 = 20 units.
After the first sale, the farmer had 100 - 20 = 80 units of land left.
The second sale was 3/4 of what remained, so 3/4 of 80 units is 3/4 * 80 = 60 units.
So, the farmer can now farm 80 - 60 = 20 units of land.
Fraction left = 20/100 or 1/5
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Complete question:
A farmer sold 1/5 of his land and then sold again 3/4 of what remained. How much of the land can be farmed?
in the trimester view of prenatal development, both the germinal and embryonic periods of development occur during the ____
In the trimester view of prenatal development, both the germinal and embryonic periods of development occur during the third through the eighth week.
The prenatal development process is really divided into three phases. The first two weeks following conception are referred to as the germinal stage, the third through eighth weeks as the embryonic phase, and the ninth week until delivery as the fetal period. The germinal stage of pregnancy begins with conception, when sperm and egg join to create a zygote. The zygote begins to split during the germinal stage in order to implant into the uterine wall.
The embryonic stage begins once implantation is accomplished. When a blastocyst implants in the uterus at the end of the first week following conception, its interior cell mass, formerly known as the embryoblast, is renamed the embryo. The embryonic stage lasts until the eighth week after conception, when the embryo is referred to as a fetus. The embryonic stage is brief, lasting just around seven weeks, yet the alterations that occur during this time cause huge changes in the embryo. During the embryonic period, the embryo not only grows in size but also in complexity.
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In human testing controlled experiments can be tricky and can have ethical considerations. In a controlled experiment investigators apply treatments and then observe the effect of the treatment compared to a control group that does not receive the treatment. When this is not possible investigators may rely on observational studies where investigators simply observe effects without applying any treatment, in observational studies there is no human intervention. Consider the following example In one study subjects were randomly given either a placebo or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season. The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study The first study was and observational study while the second group was an experiment. Both studies were observational studies Both studies were controlled experiments
The correct option for this question option (A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study.
In an observational research, participants are measured or surveyed without any attempt to influence them. In a controlled experiment, participants or objects are divided into groups, and one group is given a treatment while the other is not.
Experimental study, allocate treatments to groups at random so that the researchers can determine the causal (cause-and-effect) relationship. What sets apart this research is the randomization of the treatments (observational and experimental). Here, we conduct an experiment and change the subject's surroundings to assess the response (dependent) variable. The experimental study's evidence is seen as being more reliable than the observational studies.
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The complete question is:
In human testing controlled experiments can be tricky and can have ethical considerations. In a controlled experiment investigators apply treatments and then observe the effect of the treatment compared to a control group that does not receive the treatment. When this is not possible investigators may rely on observational studies where investigators simply observe effects without applying any treatment, in observational studies there is no human intervention. Consider the following example In one study subjects were randomly given either a placebo or 1000 milligrams of vitamin C daily, and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season was noted. In a second study people responded to a questionnaire asking about the average number of hours they sleep per night and the number of colds they came down with during a winter season.
A) The first study was a controlled experiment, while the second group was an observational study
B) The first study was and observational study while the second group was an experiment.
C) Both studies were observational studies
D) Both studies were controlled experiments
In the citric acid cycle, succinate dehydrogenase catalyzes the conversion of succinate to fumarate. This reaction is inhibited by malonate, which resembles succinate but cannot be acted upon by succinate dehydrogenase. Which of the following statements best describes the role played by molecules described in the reaction? Please explain.
Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and malonate is the substrate in the reaction.
Succinate dehydrogenase is the enzyme, and fumarate is the substrate in the reaction.
Succinate is the substrate, and fumarate is the product in the reaction.
Fumarate is the product, and malonate is a noncompetitive inhibitor in the reaction.
The citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle or the tri carboxylic acid cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of cells.
What is the stopping molecule for succinate dehydrogenase ?Succinate dehydrogenase is an enzyme that plays a key role in the citric acid cycle, specifically in the conversion of succinate to fumarate. This reaction is important because it generates a molecule of FADH2, which can be used to produce ATP through the process of oxidative phosphorylation.
Therefore, the role played by molecules in this reaction is to regulate the activity of enzymes involved in the citric acid cycle. In this case, malonate acts as an inhibitor of succinate dehydrogenase, which allows cells to regulate the rate of ATP production based on the availability of substrates and other cellular conditions.
This regulation is important to ensure that cells produce the appropriate amount of energy to meet their needs without wasting resources or damaging the cell.
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why was dry bread included in the experiment ?
Answer:
The purpose of the experiment is to find out how the amount of moisture affects the growth of mould on bread.
Explanation:
I'm guessing your experiment was about mold
the cell that is found in the epidermis, mucous membranes, and lymphoid tissues that initiates immune responses by activating lymphocytes and secreting cytokines is the
The cell found in the epidermis, mucous membranes, and lymphoid tissues that initiates the immune responses by activating lymphocytes and secreting cytokines is called the dendritic cell.
Cytokines are the membrane bound proteins that are required for the control of growth and activities of the immune system cells. They also are involved in controlling the inflammation inside the body. The various types of cytokines secreted inside the body are: chemokines, interferons (IFN), interleukins (IL), lymphokines, etc.
Dendritic cells are the immune cells that act as the antigen-presenting cells inside the body. They are called dendritic due to the dendrite like structures emerging out from them.
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Members of two different species possess a similar looking structure that they use in a similar way to perform about the same function. Which of the following would suggest that the relationship more likely represents Homology instead of convergent evolution
Two species share many proteins in common and the nucleotide sequences that code these proteins are almost identical
The fact that two species share many proteins in common and have almost identical nucleotide sequences that code for these proteins suggests that likely to represent homology rather than convergent evolution.
Homology refers to a situation where two species share a common ancestor and therefore possess similar structures as a result of their shared evolutionary history. On the other hand, convergent evolution occurs when two distantly related species develop similar structures independently in response to similar environmental pressures. Therefore, the similarity between the two species' proteins and nucleotide sequences strongly suggests that they have a recent common ancestor, making homology the more likely explanation for the similar-looking structures.
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T/F the base of the heart is the inferior pointed end, and the apex is the wide portion from which the great vessels emerge.
False. The base of the heart is the wide portion from which the great vessels emerge, and the apex is the inferior pointed end.
The base of the heart is located at the top of the heart and is the widest portion of the heart, from which the great vessels emerge. The apex of the heart is the inferior pointed end of the heart, located at the bottom. The apex is formed by the tip of the left ventricle, and it is located in the fifth intercostal space in the midclavicular line. Understanding the anatomy of the heart is important for healthcare providers when assessing heart sounds, murmurs, and other cardiac abnormalities.
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differentiate between transpiration, exaporation and evapotranspiration
Transpiration refers to the process of water loss through the stomata of plants, evaporation is the process of a liquid turning into a gas, while evapotranspiration is the combination of both transpiration and evaporation and refers to the total water loss from a surface.
What is Transpiration?Transpiration is the process by which water is lost from a plant through small pores called stomata. This water loss can occur through evaporation from the surface of the leaves or stems and serves to regulate the temperature of the plant and maintain water balance.
Transpiration also plays a crucial role in the movement of water and nutrients from the roots to the leaves. It is an important aspect of the water cycle and helps to redistribute water and minerals throughout the plant.
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Which protist has an oral groove and a
gullet?
Answer:
Paramecium are heterotrophs, meaning they must consume food for their energy. The area of the paramecium that appears pinched inward is called the oral groove, which runs about half the length of its body. Cilia sweep food into this area and into the gullet, where food vacuoles are formed.
Name the best quality coal?
Answer:
Anthracite
Explanation:
Answer: Anthracite
Explanation:
on january 15, jones consulting services issued a check for $3,000 to prepay rent for february and march. this transaction would be recorded with which of the following entries?
A. DEBIT $3,000 IN ADVANCED RENTAL B. CREDIT $3,000 IN CASH
Even if the customer receives the final payment, a business is regarded to have earned $2,000 in services.
The sum is recorded by the business as receivable accounts, which is listed as a current asset on the balance sheet. A thorough record of all a company's financial transactions is kept in an accounting journal. As the first place when transactions are recorded, it is sometimes referred to as the ledger of original entry.Even if the customer receives the final payment, a business is regarded to have earned $2,000 in services. It will be overstated in cash. Accounts payable would be debited and cash would be credited in the entry to record the settlement of an accounts payable.
(On Jan 15, Jones Consulting Services issued a check for $3,000 to repay rent for February and March. This transaction would be recorded with which of the following enteries?
A. DEBIT PREPAID RENT FOR $3,000
B. CREDIT CASH FOR $3,000
C. CREDIT RENT EXPENSE FOR $3,000
D. DEBIT CASH FOR $3,000
E. DEBIT RENT EXPENSE FOR $3,000
F. CREDIT PREPAID RENT FOR $3,000)
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purification of crystalline organic compounds how are insoluble impurities removed during recrystalization
To remove the insoluble impurities, the organic compound is mixed with a solvent and the resultant solution is filtered. This removes the insoluble impurities. The solution is then heated to obtain the crystals of pure organic compound by crystallization.
Crystallization is the method applied to remove the soluble impurities from the organic substances. The compound is mixed in such a solvent that the impurities dissolve with the solvent and after crystallization, the crystals obtained are of the pure organic compound.
Organic compounds are the chemical compounds that consist of one or more carbon carbon or carbon hydrogen bonds in it. These bonds are the covalent bonds which are highly strong bonds in nature.
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Which of the following functional groups most appropriately describes the type of acyl group in vitamin C?
A. lactum
B. ester
C. ether
D. lactone
The functional group most appropriately describe the type of acyl group in vitamin C is ether.
Thus, the correct answer is C.
Vitаmin C, аlso known аs аscorbic аcid, is а very essentiаl vitаmin which is to be required by our body dаily in the diet. Vitаmin C is soluble in wаter аnd is therefore known аs the wаter-soluble vitаmins. Wаter soluble vitаmins аre those vitаmins which must be supplied in the diet regulаrly becаuse they аre reаdily excreted in urine аnd cаnnot be stored in our body.
The structure of Vitаmin C in the functionаl groups present аre:
-OH group (i.e. hydroxyl group),-C=O (cаrbonyl group), аnd -O- group (i.e. ether group)Hence, the functionаl group in vitаmin C аre hydroxyl, cаrbonyl аnd ether respectively.
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Confused:( I’m currently a high school student but I’m taking this college anthro 1 online class since my counselor said I need it for my transcript but I’m so lost in this last question :[
Answer: 5a. 0% 5b. 50% 5c. 50%
Explanation: It is asking for you to cross an individual who is heterozygous for this trait, Ee, with someone who has attached earlobes. Because this is the recessive trait they must be ee. With that in mind your Punnett Square should be an Ee x ee. So 0% of the offspring will be homozygous dominant, EE. 50% will be homozygous recessive, ee. And 50% will be heterozygous, Ee.
Hope this helps.
Which of the following enzymes is important for the digestion of fat? A. pancreatic amylase. B. pepsin. C. pancreatic lipase. D. trypsin.
The enzyme important for fat digestion is: (C) pancreatic lipase.
Digestion is the process of breakdown of the food that one consumes by the action of various digestive enzymes. The process begins at the buccal cavity and completes at the small intestine. The digested food is then absorbed into the blood through the intestine.
Pancreatic lipase is the digestive enzyme applied for the breakdown of fats. The pancreatic lipase works together with the bile secretions to accomplish its functions. Secreted from the pancreas, the enzyme works at the duodenum of the small intestine. The optimal pH required by the lipase to function is around 7.
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To what category does this amino acid belong? Note that the non-ionized form is shown!
H
H
N-C-C
H-C-OH
0=
OH
CH3
O polar positively-charged
O polar uncharged
O non-polar
O polar negatively-charged
This amino acid belongs to the polar uncharged category. Therefore, option B is correct.
What are amino acids?Organic substances known as amino acids have both amino and carboxylic acid functional groups. The building components of proteins are amino acids. All living organisms require these molecules in order to produce protein.
Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine are the nine essential amino acids.
This amino acid belongs to the polar uncharged category. Therefore, option B is correct.
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which of the following statements about genetic linkage is generally true? see section 5.1 (page 147
It is commonly accepted that the closer two genes are to one another on a chromosome, the more likely it is that they will be inherited together during meiosis in genetic linkage.
The likelihood that two genes will be inherited together during meiosis increases with the distance between them on a chromosome, which is a general rule of genetic linkage. This is true because genetic linkage describes the propensity for genes that are adjacent to one another on a chromosome to be passed down as a group rather than separately. Recombination, or the exchange of genetic material across homologous chromosomes, is a process that determines how closely two genes are linked. Therefore, genetic linkage is crucial for comprehending the patterns of trait inheritance and the location of genes on chromosomes.
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What is a generally true statement about genetic linkage?
If you tore your Achilles tendon, you would be unable to perform all of the following muscle actions excepta. bending your foot downwardb. standing on your toesc. pulling your knees tp your chestd. walking
Option B, if you tore your Achilles tendon, you would be unable to perform standing on your toes.
The Achilles tendon is a strong, fibrous cord that connects the muscles in the back of your calf to your heel bone. It is the largest tendon in the body and is responsible for the action of plantar flexion, which involves pointing the toes downward. If the Achilles tendon is torn, the ability to perform plantar flexion is greatly diminished. Therefore, the ability to stand on one's toes is also compromised. However, the other actions listed - bending the foot downward, pulling the knees to the chest, and walking - do not rely heavily on the Achilles tendon and would still be possible to some extent.
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Which of the following is/are among the functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton? (Select all that apply.) Helps in cell division Aggregates to form the nuclear envelope Transports organelles within cells Binds cells together Gives cells shape and structure
Functions of the eukaryotic cytoskeleton include:
Helps in cell division.
Transports organelles within cells.
Gives cells shape and structure.
What is a eukaryotic cytoskeleton?The intricate network of protein filaments and tubules that supports the structure and aids in maintaining the shape of cells is known as the eukaryotic cytoskeleton. Microfilaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules are the three main types of filamentous proteins that make up this structure. Actin-based microfilaments, which are the smallest and play a role in both cell movement and muscle contraction, are the thinnest. The thicker intermediate filaments give cells, particularly those under mechanical stress, like skin cells, mechanical strength. The biggest microtubules act as the "tracks" for cell division and organelle migration. Additionally, cellular signaling, motility, and intracellular transport are all significantly influenced by the cytoskeleton.
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