TRUE/FALSE. elongation of the polypeptide chain is terminated when a stop codon is incorporated into the newly synthesized protein.

Answers

Answer 1

The given statement is True.

Translation is the process by which ribosomes read the information encoded in messenger RNA (mRNA) and synthesize a corresponding protein. The ribosome reads the mRNA codons three nucleotides at a time and matches each codon to a specific amino acid. When the ribosome reaches a stop codon, which does not code for an amino acid, it signals the termination of protein synthesis. This stop codon acts as a signal for the release of the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome. In conclusion, elongation of the polypeptide chain is terminated when a stop codon is incorporated into the newly synthesized protein. The stop codon acts as a signal for the release of the newly synthesized protein from the ribosome, and is a critical step in ensuring the accuracy and efficiency of protein synthesis.

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Related Questions

baby rina is a newborn. based on her study of child and adolescent development, rina's mother knows that rina's brain will not be fully developed until she is

Answers

Baby rina is a newborn. based on her study of child and adolescent development, rina's mother knows that rina's brain will not be fully developed until she is at least 20 year(s) of age.

Why is a baby's brain so pliable or "plastic"?

Extra synaptogenesis enables the usage of extra neurons in other areas. The brain can change itself by creating fresh neural connections as a result of experience.

Why is the term "plastic brain" used?

Because neurons may form new or stronger connections with other neurons, our brains are renowned for being "plastic" or flexible. However, if some connections get stronger, neurons must make up for it to avoid being overloaded with information, according to neuroscientists.

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Full Question = Baby Rina is a newborn. Based on her study of child and adolescent development, Rina's mother knows that Rina's brain will NOT be fully developed until she is _____ year(s) of age.

what are the characteristics of smooth muscle tissue?

Answers

Answer:

see below

Explanation:

Smooth muscle tissue is characterized by its ability to contract, but only when stimulated by nerve fibers. The contraction of smooth muscle tissue is usually not sustained, but it can be maintained for long periods of time.

The composition of smooth muscle tissue is also different from that of skeletal and cardiac muscle. Smooth muscle cells lack the striations seen in other types of muscle, and they do not contain myofibrils like skeletal or cardiac muscles do. Instead, smooth muscle cells are composed primarily of actin and myosin filaments arranged in a pattern that allows them to contract.

Panner, B. J., & Honig, C. R. (1970). Locus and State of Aggregation of Myosin in Tissue Sections of Vertebrate Smooth Muscle. The Journal of Cell Biology, 44(1), 52–61. http://www.jstor.org/stable/1605771

which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in dna and rna? which of the following includes all of the pyrimidines found in dna and rna? (a) Cytosine and Thymine
(b) Cytosine and Uracil
(c) Guanine and Adenine
(d) Adenine and Thymine

Answers

Cytosine and Uracil includes all of the pyrimidines found in DNA and RNA that is option B.

What is DNA?

Deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is a polymer made up of two polynucleotide chains that coil around one another to create a double helix. The polymer contains genetic instructions for all known organisms and viruses' genesis, functioning, growth, and reproduction. Nucleic acids include DNA and ribonucleic acid. The molecule found inside cells that holds the genetic information necessary for an organism's growth and function. DNA molecules enable this information to be handed along from generation to generation.

Here,

Pyrimidines are a class of nitrogenous bases found in both DNA and RNA. Cytosine and uracil are the two pyrimidines found in RNA, while thymine is found in DNA. The other pyrimidine found in DNA is cytosine.

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What would happened to a species, if they reproduced sexually but only underwent mitosis and not meiosis?

Answers

Answer:

If a species only underwent mitosis and not meiosis, they would not experience genetic recombination and diversity, leading to a lack of adaptation to changing environmental conditions. Over time, the species would become increasingly vulnerable to diseases and environmental pressures, potentially leading to its extinction. Additionally, without meiosis and its associated reduction of chromosome number, the number of chromosomes would increase with each generation, potentially causing problems with cellular function and viability.

what is the process whereby epsps and ipsps interact to yield a net result of either excitation or inhibition.

Answers

The process by which EPSPs and IPSPs interact to produce a net result of excitation or inhibition is known as synaptic integration.

Synaptic integration refers to the summation of excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSPs) and inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) at the postsynaptic membrane of a neuron.

EPSPs are caused by the release of neurotransmitters that bind to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane and result in an influx of positively charged ions, leading to depolarization and an increase in the likelihood of an action potential being generated.

IPSPs, on the other hand, are produced by neurotransmitters that bind to receptors that result in an efflux of positively charged ions, leading to hyperpolarization and a decrease in the likelihood of an action potential being generated. The net result of the interaction between EPSPs and IPSPs will determine whether the neuron is excited or inhibited.

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T/F micelles, made of bile salts, have hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions that allow them to emulsify fats and dissolve in water.

Answers

The given statement is true. Micelles, which are spherical structures made of bile salts, have both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions.

In the digestive system, bile salts are secreted by the liver into the small intestine, where they help to emulsify fats in the chyme (the mixture of partially digested food and digestive juices). The hydrophobic ends of the bile salts surround the droplets of fat, while the hydrophilic ends face outwards and dissolve in the watery environment of the intestine. This creates tiny droplets of fat, known as micelles, that are more readily soluble in water.

The micelles can then be taken up by the enterocytes, the absorptive cells that line the small intestine, where they are further broken down by lipases and other digestive enzymes into fatty acids and monoacylglycerols. These molecules can then be absorbed into the bloodstream and transported to cells throughout the body for use as a source of energy or for other metabolic processes.

Overall, the ability of micelles to emulsify fats and dissolve in water is critical for the efficient digestion and absorption of fats in the small intestine.

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Robert decides to go for a run when he gets home from school. As he begins running, his breathing rate starts to increase. What are the mechanisms that cause his breathing rate to increase?

A.
When oxygen levels in the blood decrease, the respiratory center sends signals to the diaphragm to increase the rate at which it contracts and relaxes.
B.
The diaphragm senses the need for more oxygen, which causes it to expand and contract more quickly in order to inflate and deflate the lungs.
C.
The respiratory control center senses the need for more oxygen, which causes the trachea to push and pull air more forcefully.
D.
When carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease, the respiratory center sends signals to the alveoli to increase the volume that they expand.

Answers

When carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease, the respiratory center sends signals to the alveoli to increase the volume that they expand causing to increase in the breathing rate of Robert.

What is the mechanism for high breathing rates?  

The respiratory center (in the medulla) sends nerve impulses to the external intercostal muscles and the diaphragm to speed up breathing and expand the lungs during inhalation in response to a drop in blood pH.

Ventilation is increased when a rise in pCO₂ is detected. As more CO₂ is breathed, the pCO₂  drops and stabilizes. Ventilation is reduced when a drop in pCO₂  is detected,

Therefore, option D is correct.

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Which of the following are NOT typical monomer arrangements in a polymer.
A. Ceramically
B. Branching
C. Crystalline
D. Lined-up

Answers

Answer:

A. Ceramically

Explanation:

Polymers can have various structures, and they are composed of repeating units called monomers. Some of the typical monomer arrangements in polymers are branching, crystalline, and lined-up. Ceramics are not a typical monomer arrangement in polymers because they are a completely different class of materials that have a different structure and properties.

A. Ceramically
I had to do this question the other day.

Which of the following research questions would best guide an investigation of the link between the structure of the signaling molecules and the evolution of quorum sensing? A. Do these molecules require the same receptors in each bacteria species to generate a response? B. Did these species evolve from a common ancestor that used a similar signaling molecule? C. Do these species all perform the same action when the concentration of the signaling molecules is high enough? D. Did these species evolve from the same common ancestor that is still living today and uses the same receptors?

Answers

Option A is Correct. Do these molecules require the same receptors in each bacteria species to generate a response. The grass needs energy input from sunshine in order to develop and keep its organized structure.

The following research questions would be the most useful for directing an inquiry into the relationship between the structure of the signaling molecules and the evolution of quorum sensing.

Because there is less genetic diversity in the smaller population than there is in the larger population, the smaller population will be more influenced than the bigger group. Adenosine triphosphate (ADP) and inorganic phosphate (Pi) are converted into ATP during chemiosmosis by the proton motive force, which is the passage of ions across the membrane (adenosine triphosphate).

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Explanation:The interactions between proteins and DNA are dynamic and rely on weak interactions, including hydrogen bonding, ionic interactions, and van der Waals interactions. Covalent linkages are stronger and would prevent release of the binding partners, which could lead to inactive proteins and could inactivate genes. A combination of these weak interactions leads to the specific interaction between a DNA sequence and a protein, such as that between the lac repressor and its DNA binding site.Which of the following interactions it NOT likely to be found between the lac repressor protein and its DNA binding partner?A. van der Waals interactionsB. Ionic interactionsC. Hydrogen bondingD. Covalent linkages

Answers

Covalent linkages are NOT likely to be found between the lac repressor protein and its DNA binding partner. The answer is D.

Covalent bonds are strong and permanent chemical bonds, which means they cannot be easily broken. This would prevent the release of the binding partners and could lead to inactive proteins and inactivated genes.

In contrast, the interactions between proteins and DNA are dynamic and rely on weak interactions, including hydrogen bonding, ionic interactions, and van der Waals interactions, which allow for the release of the binding partners and allow the proteins to be active.

Covalent linkages are generally not used in the specific interaction between a DNA sequence and a protein because it would restrict the protein's mobility and ability to interact with other partners.

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Your question seems incomplete, but I suppose the question was:

"Explanation:The interactions between proteins and DNA are dynamic and rely on weak interactions, including hydrogen bonding, ionic interactions, and van der Waals interactions. Covalent linkages are stronger and would prevent release of the binding partners, which could lead to inactive proteins and could inactivate genes. A combination of these weak interactions leads to the specific interaction between a DNA sequence and a protein, such as that between the lac repressor and its DNA binding site.

Which of the following interactions it NOT likely to be found between the lac repressor protein and its DNA binding partner?

A. van der Waals interactions

B. Ionic interactions

C. Hydrogen bonding

D. Covalent linkages"

primates can be distinguished by a single trait. in other words, there is one trait that, if found, can identify an animal as a primate. true or false

Answers

It is false as primates cannot be distinguished by a single trait. There are several characteristics that are used to identify primates, including having opposable thumbs, forward-facing eyes, and a large brain relative to body size.

What is gene?

Genetics is the study of genes, genetic variation, and heredity in organisms. It is a critical topic in biology since heredity is vital to organism evolution. In the nineteenth century, Gregor Mendel, a Moravian Augustinian monk working in Brno, was the first to do scientific study on genetics. The basic unit of inheritance that is passed down from parent to child. Genes are composed of DNA sequences that are progressively ordered in the nucleus of cells at certain chromosomal regions.

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In which of the following scenarios would evolution most likely occur?

Question 13 options:

a hawk prefers tan colored mice over dark gray mice


a breed of dog can have three different alleles for fur color


within a small population of skunks, two die of disease


within a large population of fish, one is caught by a fisherman

Answers

Answer/Explanation:

A hawk prefers tan-colored mice over dark-gray mice. This could trigger evolution because if hawks prefer tan-colored mice over dark-gray mice, the mice will evolve into dark-gray mice. This will help the overall species of mice.

Yogurt cheese and other foods are produced through alcoholic fermentation. True or false

Answers

The statement "Yogurt cheese and other foods are produced through alcoholic fermentation" is True.

What is alcoholic fermentation?

Alcoholic fermentation is the name for the chemical reaction that results in alcohol. The fundamental step in this process is yeast eating a specific sort of sugar, and this is how beer, wine, sake, and cider all start.

Even alcoholic beverages that are considered hard, like your favorite tequila, start with a simple alcoholic fermentation.

Three main byproducts are created during the fermentation of alcohol. Unsurprisingly, one of them is alcohol, which has traditionally been a key ingredient in beer, wine, and hard cider.

In light of this, it is true that yogurt cheese and other foods were generated by alcoholic fermentation.

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Hi can someone please help me with these questions. I'm struggling with them!!

Answers

To be honest I really truely don’t know I hope u find someone who does tho

Explain why aerotolerant and microaerophilic microbes can't survive high oxygen levels but they can survive low levels.

Answers

Answer:

it’s A

Explanation:

what would happen to the gametes (egg or sperm) of an individual in which disjunction did NOT occur properly during meiosis? HINT: There are two possibilities

Answers

Answer:

the egg and sperms of an individual's during the reproduction occures

Which statement regarding ferns is true?
Ferns produce seeds that are dispersed by water.
Ferns produce pollen that is dispersed by air.
Ferns have well-developed roots and rigid stems.
Ferns are most diverse in grassland environments.

Answers

The statement "Ferns have well-developed roots and rigid stems" is true about ferns.

What are ferns?

A fern is a type of vascular plant (a plant with both xylem and phloem) that reproduces through spores rather than seeds or flowers. The polypodiophytes, which are all living pteridophytes other than lycopods, are distinguished from mosses and other bryophytes by their vascularity (i.e., the presence of specialized tissues that conduct water and nutrients) and by the dominance of the branched sporophyte phase in their life cycles.

Megaphylls, the complex leaves seen on ferns, are more complex than the microphylls found on clubmosses. The majority of ferns are leptosporangiate ferns. Fiddleheads are produced, which uncoil and spread into fronds. There are roughly 10,560 known living species in the category.

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The autosomal recessive human disorder albinism (type I) is caused by a mutation in the gene for _______

Answers

The autosomal recessive human disorder albinism (type I) is caused by a mutation in the gene for the X chromosome.

Type 1 ocular albinism is the most widespread type. An alteration in the X chromosome gene causes this kind to be passed on. A mother who carries one altered X gene to her kid may pass on X-linked ocular albinism. We refer to this as X-linked recessive inheritance.

Type I Oculocutaneous Albinism Linked to Tyrosinase Gene Full-Length Deletion. Due to insufficient tyrosinase activity, type I oculocutaneous albinism is an autosomal recessive condition in which melanin manufacture in the skin, hair, and eyes is limited or nonexistent.

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Humans can slow down the rate at which bacteria evolve antibiotic resistance through? Explain why.


A.
use a variety of different antibiotics


B.
reduce the usage of antiobiotics


C.
apply fewer pesticides to crops


D.
Both A and B

Answers

Answer:

D. Both A and B. Using a variety of different antibiotics and reducing the usage of antibiotics can help to slow down the rate at which bacteria evolve antibiotic resistance. This is because, when exposed to the same antibiotics, bacteria can quickly become resistant. By using a variety of different antibiotics, the chances of bacteria becoming resistant is decreased, and by reducing the usage of antibiotics, it limits the selection pressure on the bacteria and reduces the chance of antibiotic resistance developing.

when protein provides energy, the body must eliminate the containing amine group and other solutes from protein breakdown. True or False

Answers

It is true as when protein provides energy, the body must eliminate the nitrogen-containing amine group as well as other waste products from protein breakdown through the process of deamination. The resulting nitrogen-containing waste is eliminated from the body in the form of urea, which is excreted in the urine.

What is protein?

Proteins are huge biomolecular and macromolecular structures made up of one or more long chains of amino acid residues. Proteins are required for life and are required for a variety of biological processes. The vast majority of chemical processes in the cell are catalyzed by protein enzymes. Proteins supply many of the structural features of a cell and aid in the fusion of cells into tissues. Proteins defend animals from sickness in the form of antibodies, and many hormones are proteins. Proteins regulate gene expression and modulate gene activity.

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Studying a the sediment layers in a rock formation, a biologist can assume that the organisms found in the upper layers

Question 11 options:

are relatively older than those found in lower layers


are exactly 3.2 million years older than an organism found 3.2 meters lower


you cannot tell anything about the relative age of a fossil


are relatively younger than those found in lower layers

Answers

A biologist can estimate that the creatures found as in upper layers of silt inside a rock formation are precisely two million years old than an organism located 3.2 meters beneath.

What do the layers of rock reveal?

Fossils found in rock layers are proof of previous landscapes on Earth. It is difficult to estimate the date of rock. To discover how distant past rocks formed, scientists must solve a problem like a detective. Scientists can identify the age of a rock by looking for fossils in a particular layer of rock.

Why may it be assumed that older rock strata layers can be found beneath newer sedimentary rock layers?

the scientific idea that, in horizontal strata of bedrock, each layer, if left undisturbed, is older than that of the one above and newer than that of the layer below it.

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After meiosis I, the chromosome number in primary oocyte has doubled / remained the same / reduced half (circle your answer). At the end of meiosis I, sister chromatids are still connected al centromeres because unlike milusis, centromeres do not divide in anaphase 1 of meiosis.

Answers

The chromosome number in the primary oocyte has reduced by half after meiosis I. At the end of meiosis I, the sister chromatids separate and are no longer connected at the centromeres as the centromeres do divide in anaphase I of meiosis.

What is meiosis?

Meiosis is a type of cell division that results in the formation of gametes, such as sperm and eggs, with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This reduction in chromosome number is necessary for the proper formation of offspring during fertilization, as the resulting zygote will have the normal diploid chromosome number for the species.

Meiosis occurs in two distinct stages, called Meiosis I and Meiosis II, that each involve two rounds of chromosome division. During Meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material, a process called crossing over. Then, in anaphase I, the sister chromatids separate and are distributed to opposite poles of the cell. In Meiosis II, the chromosomes separate, and the cells divide, producing four haploid daughter cells.

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Assume you have mutagenized a liquid culture of yeast cells and you plate them for single cells on rich media. A few days later you find many colonies on the plate.which true/false based on information answer the following two question?i) All the cells in any given colony on your plate are genetically identical.ii) The cells in one colony are genetically identical to the cells in each of the other colonies

Answers

i) Is True that all the cells in any given colony on your plate are genetically

ii) It is False that The cells in one colony are genetically identical to the cells in each of the other colonies

i) All the cells in any given colony on your plate are genetically identical. This is because each colony originates from a single cell that has undergone replication and division. As the cells divide, they pass on the same genetic information to their progeny, resulting in a clonal population of genetically identical cells.

ii) The cells in one colony are not necessarily genetically identical to the cells in each of the other colonies. This is because the mutagenesis process has likely resulted in genetic variations among the original yeast cells. When these cells undergo replication and division, the genetic variations are passed on to the progeny, leading to the formation of genetically distinct colonies. Therefore, it is possible for different colonies to have different genetic profiles, even though they are all derived from the same original culture of yeast cells.

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What type of evidence can be pulled from both a computer and a portable device?

Images
Text history
GPS coordinates
Phone call data

Answers

Answer: Images

Explanation:


A pedigree diagram expresses the relationships of individuals, their gender, and the presence / absence of a specific trait. To be of much use in a genetic analysis, the pedigree must include several generations, preferably from a family with many children.
Objectives:

To familiarize students with the construction of human pedigrees. Students will apply their knowledge of inheritance patterns to pedigrees. Students will identify the relationships between individuals in a pedigree and determine what inheritance pattern is present in a family based on which individuals in the pedigree are affected and unaffected. Then students will assign individuals who are represented in a pedigree genotypes based on clues they interpret from the pedigree.

Pedigrees 1 - 5 can be found in the WORD or PDF files below this assignment in the weekly Moodle block


Consider the pedigree for cystic fibrosis. (See Pedigree 1.) An autosomal recessive gene (f) causes serious respiratory difficulties that usually lead to death of afflicted people by their late 30’s.

The generations are indicated by the Roman numerals on the left side of the pedigree. The members of each generation (related or not) are indicated by Arabic numbers. Females are represented by circles and males are represented with squares. Individuals with cystic fibrosis are shaded gray (or black). Thus, the 2 affected individuals are those in the 3rd generation: III-2 and III-4.

You have already learned about the inheritance pattern of CF. However, you could have inferred it from the pedigree. Because the disease only affects siblings in one generation, the disease is most likely to have autosomal recessive inheritance.

Because we know that cystic fibrosis is autosomal recessive, we can write the genotypes (entirely or in part) of all of the individuals in this family tree. Recessive homozygous individuals (ff) express the disease. Each normal individual has at least 1 dominant allele (F). We know that the individuals II – 2 and II – 3 are heterozygous (because this couple has a child with CF). The genotypes of the other 2 individuals in generation II can only be written as F_ because we do not know if they are FF or Ff.

QUESTIONS:

1. Using pedigree 1, list all of the possible genotypes of these individuals:
HINT: the easiest way to do this is to write letters (alleles) in, on the pedigree, for the people you know for sure. In this case, write the genotype that is homozygous recessive under the affected people. Then write out the genotypes of other individuals that you can infer. After you have filled in the genotypes on the pedigree, then fill out this chart.
Individual Genotype
I-1
I-2
I-3
I-4
II-1
II-2
II-3
III-1
III-2
III-3
III-4
III-5

2. Look at PEDIGREE #2. Do you think the trait shown is autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive? List all of the characteristics of the pedigree that justify your answer.

Use the letters "B" and "b" for the alleles.

3. What is the most likely genotype of individual I-2?

4. What does the notation like an upside-down T between II-3 and II-4 mean?

5. What is the chance that III-3 will have an affected child?

6. What is the chance that III-4 will have an affected child?

7. What is the genotype of individual III-2?

The family depicted in PEDGIREE #3 has some individuals with achondroplasia, a form of dwarfism. Note: (1) The homozygous dominant genotype is lethal; unfortunately infants with this genotype have such small ribs they cannot breathe at birth. (2) All of the people in the pedigree who have the dominant allele have the express the achondroplasia phenotype.

8. For each of the Genotypes listed below write every individual in pedigree 3 that has that genotype (Write then as “I-1, I-2, etc):

Individuals with genotype "AA"
Individuals with genotype "Aa"
Individuals with genotype "aa"
Individuals with genotype "AA" or "Aa"
Individuals with genotype "Aa" or "aa"

9. Look at Pedigree 4. Do you think the trait shown is autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive or something else? List all of the characteristics of the pedigree that justify your answer.

10. Look at Pedigree #5. What does the double line between individuals III-2 and III-3 indicate?

11. What inheritance pattern is present in pedigree #5?

12. Why are III-2 and III-3 in pedigree #5 more likely to have an affected child?

Answers

The pedigree diagram can be used to determine relationships.

What is a pedigree diagram?

A pedigree diagram is a graphical representation used to track the inheritance of a particular trait or condition within a family. It typically shows the relationships between family members and the presence or absence of the trait in question.

In a pedigree diagram, individuals are represented by symbols such as circles (for females) or squares (for males), and lines connecting the symbols represent genetic relationships (e.g., parent-child, sibling, etc.).

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The group in an experimental study that is a reference differing from the test group in only one way is the _________ group.

Question 3 options:

placebo


uncontrolled


validation


control

Answers

Explanation:

It would be a control group as the control group is the baseline group to compare the other findings too, as a control group is a controlled group with no changing variables.

the similar structure of butterfly wings and hawk wings is an example of [ select ] traits, which are the result of [ select ] .

Answers

The similar structure of butterfly wings and hawk wings is an example of convergent evolution, which are the result of natural selection.

What is genetics?

The study of genes, genetic diversity, and heredity in organisms is known as genetics. It is a significant field of biology since heredity is essential to the evolution of organisms. Gregor Mendel, a Moravian Augustinian monk working in Brno in the nineteenth century, was the first to do scientific research on genetics.

Here,

Convergent evolution is a process by which unrelated species evolve similar structures or adaptations in response to similar environmental pressures. This can result in the development of analogous structures, which have similar form or function but have a different evolutionary origin.

In this case, the wings of both butterflies and hawks have a similar structure because they are adaptations for flight, but the wings evolved independently in each species. The convergence of these structures is the result of natural selection, which favors traits that increase an organism's chances of survival and reproduction in a particular environment.

Overall, the similarity of butterfly wings and hawk wings is a clear example of how natural selection can drive the evolution of analogous structures in unrelated species.

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In this assignment, you'll create a food chain for an ocean ecosystem. Listed below are five organisms found in an Estuary (body of water where a river meets the sea). Your task is to create a food chain with those five organisms and identify each organism’s role. Include producer (photoautotroph), herbivore, 1st level carnivore, 2nd level carnivore and apex predator. You can use text only to write out the food chain. As an option, you can create a drawing with labels, or a list using arrows and labels to show your food chain. Arrows and images are not required. In your text, make sure you explain the relationship between each organism. Estuary organisms: algae, sea lion, zooplankton, squid, salmon brainly

Answers

Food chain for an ocean ecosystem:

1) Algae (producer/photoautotroph)

2) Zooplankton (herbivore)

3) Squid (1st level carnivore)

4) Salmon (2nd level carnivore)

5) Sea lion (apex predator)

Being a producer, algae uses the energy from the sun's photosynthesis to create its own nourishment. Zooplankton consumes the algae in the estuary because they are herbivores. As first-level carnivores, squid consumes zooplankton. Salmon consume squid because it is a second-level carnivore. The top predators in this food chain are sea lions, who eat salmon.

What is an Ecosystem?

A complex network of living and nonliving creatures that interact with one another in a particular environment is called an ecosystem. It is a self-sustaining system in which all living things and the environment in which they live work together to maintain equilibrium. The size of an ecosystem might vary from a tiny pond to a massive forest or ocean. An ecosystem's living creatures are all interdependent on one another in order to survive, and they all contribute significantly to keeping the system's delicate balance.

All the organisms and the physical setting they interact with make up an ecosystem. The nutrition cycles and energy flows connect these biotic and abiotic elements.

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Dialysis tubing is a cellulose material used to make model cells for experiments in osmosis and diffusion. These model cells do not use living cell membranes. A student made a model cell by pouring distilled water into some dialysis tubing. The student placed the model cell in a salt solution and waited 10 minutes. The cell was then removed from the salt solution and the contents were poured into the test tube. The student added silver nitrate to the test tube and a white precipitate formed. This indicated that chloride ions had entered the cell. Would this be true for living cell membranes? Design an experiment to test this.

Answers

Experiment:

Materials:

-Living cell membrane (from a plant or animal cell)

-Dialysis tubing

-Salt solution

-Test tube

-Silver nitrate

Procedure:

1. Place the living cell membrane in the dialysis tubing.

2. Submerge the dialysis tubing with the cell membrane into the salt solution and wait for 10 minutes.

3. Remove the dialysis tubing from the salt solution and pour the contents into the test tube.

4. Add silver nitrate to the test tube and observe the results.

5. Record the observations and compare with the results of the experiment using the dialysis tubing.

Expected Results: If chloride ions have entered the living cell membrane, a white precipitate should form when the silver nitrate is added to the test tube.

What is Dialysis tubing?

Generally, Dialysis tubing is a type of semi-permeable membrane tubing used in a lab setting to separate molecules in solution based on their size. It is commonly used to separate proteins from small molecules and to purify DNA and RNA molecules.

The tube is made from cellulose, which allows molecules smaller than the pore size to pass through the membrane while larger molecules are retained.

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the Earths early atmosphere lacked oxygen and contains noxious gasses that came from what?

Answers

Oxygen is produced by plants through the process of photosynthesis, earlier there were no plants and vegetation, which's why no oxygen in the early atmosphere.

Why was there no oxygen in the early atmosphere?

As Earth cooled, an atmosphere formed mostly from gases spewed from volcanoes. It included hydrogen sulfide, methane, and ten to 200 times as much carbon dioxide as an instant atmosphere. Earth's original atmosphere was rich in methane, ammonia, water vapor, and the titled gas neon, but it lacked free oxygen.

Before photosynthesis develop, Earth's atmosphere had no free oxygen (O2). Small quantities of oxygen were free by geological and biological procedures but did not build up in the atmosphere due to reactions with reducing minerals.

So we can conclude that Earth's first atmosphere was rich in methane, ammonia, water vapor, and the noble gas neon, but it lacked free oxygen.

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