the water would flow towards the right side after the green particles diffused across the semi-permeable membrane down their concentration gradient to the right
How would a red blood cell behave in water?Red blood cells absorb water by osmosis if they are submerged in water. Because of the membrane's fragility, a cell will rupture as its volume and consequent pressure rise. When red blood cells are exposed to intense sugar solutions, water osmosis causes them to shrink.
There is a net transfer of water from the solution into the body in hypotonic solutions. When a cell is put in a hypotonic solution, cytolysis causes the cell to inflate and grow until it ultimately bursts.
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all organisms use ____ to fuel growth and to sustain homeostasis, which is a process that maintains internal constancy.
All organisms use Energy to fuel growth and to sustain homeostasis, which is a process that maintains internal constancy.
For chemical energy, organisms primarily employ two types of molecules: glucose and ATP. Both compounds are used as fuels by all living things. Both chemicals are also important in the photosynthesis process. All life functions are powered by the stored energy in food.
Food is made up of organic molecules that serve as fuel and building material for all living things. Food molecule breakdown allows cells to store energy and carry out the various operations of the cell, and hence the entire organism. Secreted proteins and tiny molecules, which frequently operate as signals, govern homeostasis in an organism or colony of single celled organisms. The cell's homeostasis is maintained by control and the flow of resources and energy.
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02.03 Guided Notes: Muscle Contraction
Page 1: Muscle Contraction
KT = Key Terms; FQ = Focus Question; VR = Video Reflection
KT: Jot down terms and definitions that are new to you. You will see them used in the lesson.
Page 2: Muscle Contractions Create Movement
VR: What important information did you learn about from this video?
Page 3: Sliding Filament Theory
KT: muscle fascicles, muscle fibers
FQ: What is the Sliding Filament Theory?
VR1: What important information did you learn about from this video?
VR2: What important information did you learn about from this video?
How do muscle fascicles and muscle fibers differ from one another?
Page 4: Chemistry of Muscle Contraction
KT: myofibrils, sarcomeres, myofilaments, actin, myosin
FQ: Can you explain what happens in each step of a sliding filament muscle contraction?
Page 5: Sliding Filament Theory (Continued)
KT: ions, tropomyosin, troponin, sarcoplasmic reticulum, cross-bridge
VR: What important information did you learn about from this video?
Fill in the blanks below, replacing the "?" with the correct answer.
1. When the muscle cell is in a ? , the two strands are not in contact with one another.
2. When your nerves send a message to your muscles, these two protein strands reach out and touch one another. The movement that occurs gives us the name ? .
3. In addition to actin and myosin, your muscles also need ? to provide energy to fuel the sliding movement that occurs when the muscle contracts.
4. Proteins can change shapes when they come into contact with charged particles called ? .
5. When a muscle is at rest, there are two tiny proteins called ? and ? that are wrapped around the actin.
6. There are also ? molecules stuck to each one of the ? heads when the muscle is in a relaxed state.
7. It is the ? , ? , and ? which keep the myosin heads from extending and attaching to the protected actin strand.
8. During periods of rest, the muscle builds up an abundance of ? ions that will be used when it is time for the muscle to contract. The cell gets these ions through the calcium pumps of the ? , which is wrapped around each sarcomere.
9. When the muscle receives a signal from the nerves around it, the signal travels down the cells membrane in folds called ? .
10. When the signal reaches the SR, the calcium pumps ? wide and the ? ions begin to flow.
11. Calcium ions bind to the troponin. This causes the troponin to shape and ? around the actin, which moves the tropomyosin out of the way leaving binding sites exposed.
12. With the binding sites open, the myosin heads ? and ? to the actin.
13. This attachment is called a ? . The contact causes the myosin heads to bend toward the center of the sarcomere, shortening the overall length. We call this sarcomere shortening a ? .
14. When there is no longer a nerve stimulus, the calcium ions ? back inside the SR, an ATP molecule ? the head of the myosin, and the troponin and tropomyosin return to their resting positions.
15. It is the energy that is released by the ATP molecule on the myosin head that fuels muscle ? .
Sample Question:
If a sarcomere's troponin molecules are damaged, what will most likely happen?
a) The sarcomere will break down.
b) The sarcomere will not be able to contract.
c) The sarcomere will have uncontrolled muscle contractions.
d) The sarcomere will die.
A sarcomere's troponin molecules are damaged, the sarcomere will have uncontrolled muscle contractions is most likely happen.
What is molecules?
The number of atoms that make up a molecule might vary. Pillows, sheets, and mattress toppers are now part of Molecule's growing line of sleep essentials. To give sleepers a cool, supportive surface, the Molecule AirTEC Mattress Topper blends three layers of open-cell memory foam, AirTEC foam, and polyfoam.
What is muscle?
Both people and animals have muscles, which are soft tissues. Actin and myosin protein filaments that slide past one another make up the muscle cells in muscles. This motion causes contraction and modifies the length and shape of the cell.
Therefore, A sarcomere's troponin molecules are damaged, the sarcomere will have uncontrolled muscle contractions is most likely happen.
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when nitrates or ammonium ions from the soil are converted into nitrogen compounds needed by plant cells, this is called .
The name of this process is nitrification. Plants may absorb substances from soils like nitrate, nitrite, ammonia, and ammonium, which are subsequently utilised to create proteins in both plants and animals.
How is ammonia transformed into nitrate and then nitrogen gas?The nitrogen cycle involves a process known as nitrification, which transforms all ammonium ions or ammonia into nitrates. The nitrogen cycle is completed when nitrates are transformed back into atmospheric nitrogen during denitrification. Some microorganisms also participate in this process.
Which three primary methods are used to fix nitrogen in soil?Nitrogen can be fixed by the atmosphere, the Haber Process, or biological activities. Nitrogen gas is split by lightning's high temperature, which then interacts with oxygen or moisture in the air to generate nitrates, which eventually drop to the ground in rain.
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Explain the role of each of the following:
Promotor:
RNA Polymerase:
Termination Signal:
DNA Template:
The role of each of the following is explained below. All the steps described are of the process of genetic transcription.
What is transcription?The process of formation of messenger RNA from the template of DNA inside a cell is called genetic transcription. There are certain important substances that play an important role in this process, which are described below:
Promotor: It is the region where the beginning of transcription take place, where the RNA polymerase enzyme binds to the DNA of the gene and begins the process.RNA Polymerase: Enzymes called RNA polymerases convert DNA into RNA. Base pairing is how RNA polymerase creates a new RNA molecule from a DNA template.Termination Signal: It is the signal where the process of transcription terminates or stops.DNA Template: It is the template DNA molecule which is the source of RNA, as the formation of RNA takes place from it.Hence, transcription is a very important process which takes place in the organisms through which mRNA is produced and further it codes for the formation of protein.
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Which bone do tear ducts pass through?
Tascha is on medication that increases the pH if the stomach and make it alkaline. What is the effect of this medication
Answer:
A. The medication hampers bile production.
Explanation:
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Which of the following findings by early researchers is most true according to the basic principles of modern genetics?a. mother and father do not contribute to the genetic makeup of the childb. the father is more dominant contribute to the genetic makeup of a childc. the mother is more dominant in contributing to the genetic makeup of a childd. The mother and father contribute equally to the genetic makeup of a child
The correct answer is option D. The mother and father contribute equally to the genetic makeup of a child according to modern genetics principles.
According to basic principles of modern genetics while some aspects of growth may be greatly influenced by biology, other factors, such as the environment, may also play a substantial role. The timing of puberty, for instance, is significantly influenced by genetics, but environmental factors like nutrition can also be important. The interaction of a child's environment and genetics shapes their personality from the moment of birth. Even though the genetic instructions their parents pass on to them may give a road map for development, the environment can influence how a child's genetic instructions are expressed, moulded, or even inhibited.
The proper question is:
Which of the following findings by early researchers is most true according to the basic principles of modern genetics?
a. mother and father do not contribute to the genetic makeup of the child
b. the father is more dominant and contributes to the genetic makeup of a child
c. the mother is more dominant in contributing to the genetic makeup of a child
d. The mother and father contribute equally to the genetic makeup of a child
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dna replicates then is translated into rna which is the in to proteins that then assist in dna replication so the cell cycles to support self replication
Pre-mRNA transcripts are created during transcription by the enzyme RNA polymerase (green), which uses DNA as a template (pink). The pre-mRNA gets transformed into a mature mRNA molecule.
In which can then be translated to produce the protein molecule (polypeptide) that the original gene intended. Transcription and translation are the processes by which DNA is converted into RNA and used to make proteins, respectively. Gene expression begins with transcription.
To create an RNA molecule, the DNA sequence of a gene must be copied. RNA polymerases, which join nucleotides to create an RNA strand, carry out transcription (using a DNA strand as a template). A group of proteins help in the unwinding of DNA to prepare it for replication.
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Correct Question:
Explain about Dna replicates then is translated into rna What is the there in to proteins that then assist in dna replication so the cell cycles to support self replication.
charismatic, cute, and cuddly flagship species may be used to promote a human connection to an environmental issue, but what are the disadvantage
Disadvantages includes that flag ship species often wastes resources and does not benefit broader biodiversity.
Conservation strategies are dependent on the charismatic flagship species, such as tigers, lions, and elephants, they helps in successfully attracting the funding raise from the corporate donors. While generally their utilization has an error and also limitations. They can change the management and conservation priorities, which may cause conflicts. And the donors may face loss when the species is lost .
Advantage of flagship species like pandas and elephants they can help in generating large revenue for the institutions where they are kept. The revenue helps in the protection and sustainability of species.
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Show how the alleles for tall plant height and short plant height are segregated from each other during gamete formation.Tall pea plant Short pea plantTT ttGamatess ................ .......................
During gamete formation, the alleles for tall plant height and short plant height segregate from each other through a process known as meiosis. This process involves the division of a diploid cell into four haploid cells, each containing only one copy of each chromosome.
Let's use the example of a cross between a homozygous tall pea plant (TT) and a homozygous short pea plant (tt). The Punnett square for this cross would be:
T T
t Tt Tt
t Tt Tt
All of the resulting F1 plants would be heterozygous tall (Tt). During the formation of gametes, the two alleles (T and t) segregate from each other and end up in separate haploid cells. This occurs during the first division of meiosis, where homologous chromosomes (each containing one allele of each gene) pair up and then separate, with each resulting daughter cell receiving only one chromosome from each pair. In the case of our example, the Tt plant would produce two types of gametes, each containing only one allele: T or t. These gametes would then combine with gametes from another plant (in a subsequent generation), resulting in the expression of the dominant trait (tall) in the offspring if at least one of the parents has a dominant allele.
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for each of these genes, give the genotype that would be homozygous dominant (hd), heterozygous (he), and homozygous recessive (hr).
Without knowing which genes you are referring to, it is impossible to provide the specific genotypes for homozygous dominant (hd), heterozygous (he), and homozygous recessive (hr).
What is genotypes?I can, however, explain these concepts generally and how they apply to genetic inheritance.
A person receives two copies of each gene, one from each parent, according to genetics. These duplicates may be of the same allele (homozygous) or a different allele (heterozygous). A gene's unique form, or allele, can result in various variations of a trait.
A person who has two copies of the same dominant allele is said to be homozygous dominant (hd). The recessive allele is concealed by the dominant allele, which is expressed in the phenotype, or the individual's observable traits.
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in which of the following applications (diagnostic testing) are monoclonal antibodies not used?in which of the following applications (diagnostic testing) are monoclonal antibodies not used?paternity testing
Monoclonal antibodies are not typically used in DNA paternity testing. They have a wide range of applications in diagnostic testing.
Monoclonal antibodies are laboratory-produced antibodies that are designed to recognize and bind to specific antigens. They have a wide range of applications in diagnostic testing, including in immunoassays, flow cytometry, and immunohistochemistry, among others. However, in paternity testing, DNA analysis is typically used to establish biological relationships between individuals. This Monoclonal antibodies involves analyzing specific regions of DNA to determine whether or not two individuals share a biological relationship. While antibodies can be used to identify specific proteins or other molecules in biological samples, they are not typically used in the context of paternity testing.
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A natural, non-renewable
fuel such as coal, oil, and
natural gas formed over
millions of years from the
remains of dead organisms
A natural, non-renewable fuel such as coal, oil, and natural gas formed over millions of years from the remains of dead organisms is fossil fuel.
What is fossil fuel?Because they were generated from the petrified, buried remains of plants and animals that once lived millions of years ago, coal, crude oil, and natural gas are all referred to as fossil fuels.
Oil, natural gas, coal, and nuclear energy are the four main categories of nonrenewable energy. Fossil fuels are a term that refers to coal, natural gas, and oil together. The term "fossil fuels" refers to the fossilized remains of plants and animals that were produced deep within the Earth over millions of years.
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complete question:
What is a natural, non-renewable fuel such as coal, oil, and natural gas formed over millions of years from the remains of dead organisms?
7. For the following scenario provide a hypothesis, the dependent variable, independent variable, standardized variables, and control group.
Scenario: You want to determine whether plants communicate with their neighbors in response to stress, so you design an experiment. You have two groups of plants, one that will be exposed to a stressor and another that will not. You apply the stress 3 times a day for 10 days. At day 1 you measure the amount of stress hormone in the plants and then again you measure the amount of stress hormone on day 10.
Here, the hypothesis is "plants communicate with their neighbors in response to stress", dependent variable is the amount of the stress hormone in the plants, and the independent variable is the exposure to stress (applied 3 times a day for 10 days), standardized variables are plants used, duration of the stressor, amount of stress hormone. The control group is the plant that is not exposed to stressor.
What is the significance of the control group?Here, the control group is the group of plants that are not exposed to stress, and the control groups plants are experimented or tested with the other plants to get the result of the stress hormone on the plants.
Hence, here, the hypothesis is "plants communicate with their neighbors in response to stress", dependent variable is the amount of the stress hormone in the plants, and the independent variable is the exposure to stress (applied 3 times a day for 10 days), standardized variables are plants used, duration of the stressor, amount of stress hormone. The control group is the plant that is not exposed to stressor.
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How does the RNA of spliceosomes recognize which areas of a primary transcript to splice?
The 5' exon-intron boundary is marked by the bases GC. Also, there is a T ribonucleotide near the end of the intron.
The 3' exon-intron boundary is marked by the bases GU. Also, there is an A ribonucleotide near the 5' end of the intron.
The 5' exon-intron boundary is marked by the bases GU. Also, there is an A ribonucleotide near the 3' end of the intron.
Introns are formed by a unique repeated sequence that makes them recognizable for splicing.
Genetic Pedigree Questions Achondroplastic dwarfism is a dominant genetic trait that causes severe malformation of the skeleton. Homozygotes for this condition are spontaneously aborted (hence, the homozygous condition is lethal) but heterozygotes will develop to be dwarfed. Matthew has a family history of the condition, although he does not express the trait. Jane is an achondroplastic dwarf. Matthew and Jane are planning a family of several children and want to know the chances of producing a child with achondroplastic dwarfism. 1. The genotypes of Matthew and Jane are best represented as Matthew Jane (A) Аа (B) АА Аа ga aa Αα (D) (E) da аа Аа Aa 2. The probability that Matthew and Jane's first child will be an achondroplastic dwarf is (A) 0% (B) 25% (C) 50% D) 75% (E) 100% 3. If three children are born to Matthew and Jane, what are the chances that the first two children will not express the trait but that the third child will be an achondroplastic dwarf? (A) 5/8 (B) 4/8 (C) 3/8 (D) 1/8 (E) 1/16
(1) The genotypes of Matthew and Jane for Achondroplastic dwarfism will be aa nd Aa respectively; (2) The probability that their first child will be an achondroplastic dwarf is 50%; (3) The chances that the first two children will not express the trait but that the third child will be an achondroplastic dwarf will be 1/8.
Since Achondroplastic dwarfism is a dominant trait and homozygotes are lethal, therefore people with not trait will be homozygous recessive (aa) and people with dwarfism will he heterozygous (Aa).
Probability provides the raw idea about the genetic composition of the future offspring through a mating. For a cross between the genotype aa and Aa, there will be 50% chances of genotype Aa and 50% chances of genotype aa for the offspring. Similarly, chances of first two children not expressing the trait will be 1/2 and the third child expressing dwarfism will also be 1/2. Multiplying all these probabilities (1/2 × 1/2 × 1/2) gives the results 1/8.
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otosynthesis and Cellular Respiration 2
in the Item Bank are some key terms and expressions associated with the categories seen in the Venn Diagram. To find out more i
Lick on them. Drag and drop each item onto the proper area of the diagram. If an item describes more than one category, be sure to
ITEM BANK:
The features of photosynthesis and cellular respiration are given below:
Only producers/autotrophs - photosynthesisReactants are carbon dioxide and water - photosynthesisProducts are carbon dioxide and water - cellular respirationReactants are glucose and oxygen - cellular respirationProducts are glucose and oxygen. - photosynthesisWhat is the difference between cellular respiration and photosynthesis?Photosynthesis is the process plants and algae make food from carbon dioxide and water using the energy of the sunlight.
Cellular respiration is the process food molecules are broken down to produce carbon dioxide and water.
Water and carbon dioxide are changed into oxygen and glucose during photosynthesis. The plant consumes glucose and produces oxygen as a byproduct. Oxygen and glucose are transformed into water and carbon dioxide during cellular respiration.
By-products of the process include carbon dioxide, water, and ATP, which are turned into energy.
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You are on vacation in a region that is located near a warm ocean current. What type of climate would you expect this region to experience?
Responses
rainy
warm
cold
ocean currents don't effect climate
If you are on vacation in a region near a warm ocean current, you would expect the region to experience a warm and humid climate, option B.
What is the relationship between climate and the ocean?Warm ocean currents can have a significant impact on the climate of nearby regions by bringing warm, moist air to the coast, which can lead to increased rainfall and higher temperatures.
This type of climate is often referred to as a tropical or subtropical climate, and is characterized by warm temperatures year-round, high humidity, and heavy rainfall, particularly during the summer months. The presence of a warm ocean current can also help to moderate the temperature swings that are common in other climates, making for a more stable and comfortable climate throughout the year.
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nterior of the blood vessel. the exposed fibers and chemicals released from the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel attract platelets, which start to form a plug and release
Collagen fibers in the blood vessel's wall are made visible to the interior when the blood vessel's wall is damaged. The blood vessel's endothelial cells' exposed fibers and chemicals draw platelets, which begin to form a plug and release additional chemicals.
The majority of the arteries, veins, and capillaries in the brain, skin, lung, heart, and muscle are made of continuous endothelium. Tight connections hold endothelial cells together and keep them attached to a continuous basal membrane. The endothelium is an essential metabolizing and endocrine organ that plays a significant role in the regulation of immunology, inflammation, and angiogenesis, as well as the control of blood fluidity, platelet aggregation, and vascular tone. The inner surface of blood vessels is covered by endothelial cells, whereas the outer surface of internal organs and the body is covered by epithelial cells. Despite deriving from the epithelium, endothelial cells and epithelial cells function, position, and structure differently.
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Full Question ;
Platelets are fragments of larger cells and normally circulate in the blood without adhering to blood vessel walls. When the wall of a blood vessel is damaged, collagen fibers in the wall are exposed to the interior of the blood vessel. The exposed fibers and chemicals released from the endothelial cells that line the blood vessel attract platelets, which start to form a plug and release other chemicals (Figure 1).
Which of the following best explains the feedback mechanism illustrated in Figure 1?
a. This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area.
b. This is an example of positive feedback, because it results from the interactions among collagen, endothelial cells, and platelets.
c. This is an example of negative feedback, because a large clump of platelets can block the blood vessel and prevent blood flow through it.
d. This is an example of negative feedback, because the accumulation of platelets returns the open blood vessel wall to a closed state.a. This is an example of positive feedback, because the few platelets that initially bind attract more platelets to the damaged area.
which of the following is not a true statement most hormones systems function under a positive feedback system
Among the following that is not a true statement is (A) most hormones systems function under a positive feedback system.
Most hormone systems don't have positive feedback. Positive feedback regulates some hormonal systems, like the female reproductive cycle, but not most. Many hormone systems use a negative feedback system to stabilize the internal environment by counteracting or reducing input. In response to increased blood cortisol levels, the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis inhibits adrenal gland cortisol secretion.
Positive feedback processes increase the initial stimulus, causing a quick and brief reaction. Positive feedback in hormonal regulation causes female ovulation by increasing luteinizing hormone (LH).
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Imagine what you would want to tell the patient if you were their doctor, chromosomal difference present
A doctor can alert to another about chromosome abnormalities regarding the chromosomal features of a patient.
What are chromosomal abnormalities in a patient?The expression of chromosomal abnormalities in a patient makes reference to certain phenomena associated with the inheritance of abnormal chromosomes in the somatic cell of an individual such as the presence of an extra chromosome which is called trisomy.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that chromosomal abnormalities in a patient may be associated with the presence and or absence of extra chromosomes and it may lead to different problems in health.
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What is defined as the number of children the average couple says they want to have?
Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button.
Answer choices
desired fertility rate
actual fertility rate
total fertility rate
replacement fertility
Desired fertility rate defined as the number of children the average couple says they want to have
What is desired fertility rate?Fertility desire was the study's main finding. The urge for future children as expressed by married or cohabiting people at the time of the interview was characterized as this. Initially, when asked if they had any biological children, all of the respondents gave a positive answer.
The numerator divided by the denominator for each age group is used to produce the age-specific desired fertility rates (ASFWRs), which are then multiplied by 1000. The ASWFRs are an annual rate per 1000 women that represent the average rate over the preceding 36 months.
Therefore, option A is correct.
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What are the 5 major air pollutants?
Significant air pollutants include carbon monoxide (CO), ammonia (NH3), nitric oxide (NO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), ozone (O3), particulate matter (PM), sulphur dioxide (SO2), and volatile organic compounds (VOC).
Air toxics are a different class of air pollutants that are normally present at low concentrations in the atmosphere but have toxic properties and may cause health impacts even at low exposure levels. Automobile exhaust as well as a few commercial and industrial processes were sources of air toxics.
Any chemical, physical, or biological entity that alters the natural properties of the atmosphere is considered an air pollutant and can affect either the indoor or outdoor environment. Common causes of air pollution include motor vehicles, industrial operations, household combustion devices, and forest fires.
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Which of the following hormones is released from the liver in response to increased levels of growth hormone?
a. Cortisol
b. Thyroid hormone
c. Somatostatin
d. Insulin-like growth factor (IGF)
The hormone that is released from the liver in response to increased levels of growth hormone is the Insulin-like growth factor (IGF). So, option d. is the correct option.
Considerably IGF is secreted by the liver and is transported to different tissues, acting as an endocrine hormone. Insulin-like growth factors or IGFs are peptide hormones secreted from numerous diverse cells. Their identification as "insulin-like" derived from experiments in which the remedy of serum with antibodies to insulin failed to eradicate all insulin activity; the remaining activity was eventually ascribed to the IGFs. There are two prevalent IGFs referred to as IGF-1 and IGF-2.
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Favored individuals will generally have ______ surviving offspring than those who are not favored. This is referred to as ______.
Favored individuals will generally have more surviving offspring than those who are not favored. This is referred to as natural selection.
Natural selection is a concept which was given by the naturalist Charles Darwin according to which only the organisms which possess characteristics or traits which give them a survival advantage are passed on to the next generation and only these species survive. The individuals which do not possess such traits which gives them a survival advantage do not survive.
Such an individual who possesses favorable traits also have more number of offspring which are able to survive as compared to those individuals who do not possess such traits.
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Which of the following describes the portion of the total energy cost of exercise that must be supplied through anaerobic mechanisms due to the slow response of the aerobic system to the initial increase in the demand for energy?
a. oxygen debt b. recovery O2 c. oxygen deficit d. EPOC
The fraction of the overall energy cost of the exercise which must be provided by anaerobic mechanisms is known as the oxygen deficit. Hence option 'c' is correct.
What is a deficiency in oxygen?The total of the minute discrepancies between the detected oxygen uptake & the oxygen uptake happening throughout steady flow work at a certain rate was used to define the oxygen deficit.
What symptoms and indicators indicate an oxygen deficit?You may experience headache, disorientation, or restlessness if your blood oxygen level drops below a specific point. Common cause of hypoxemia include the following: Anemia. 'ARDS' (Acute respiratory distress syndrome) A pulse oximeter enables you to monitor your oxygen levels at home.
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g neurobiology regarding the synaptic vesicle recycling pathway, when _____ the correct option it can be directly refilled with neurotransmitter it can be destroyed by ca ._______ membrane it can be destroyed by astrocytes it can fuse with a lysosome in the synaptic end bulb
Understanding neurobiology, after Ca2+-dependent fusion, the synaptic vesicles' membrane and proteins are recycled via endocytosis, at which point they are once again supplied with neurotransmitters and prepared for the subsequent cycle of depolarization and fusion.
Reuptake, enzymatic cleft destruction, and diffusion are the three mechanisms through which neurotransmitter termination can take place. Neurotransmitters are eliminated by a variety of processes, but they are always either degraded by transmitter-specific enzymes, reabsorbed into nearby glial cells or nerve terminals, or a combination of these processes. Although the brain has a variety of synapses, they may be broadly categorized into electrical synapses and chemical synapses.
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Which coordinates identify a location south of a city that has a latitude of 42.0°N and a longitude of 36.0°W
answer choices: 25.0°N and 36.0°W
45.0°N and 35.0°W
42.0°N and 32.0°W
0.0° and 0.0°
The coordinates that identify a location south of a city that has a latitude of 42.0°N and a longitude of 36.0°W is 25.0°N and 36.0°W
What is a coordinate?A coordinate is a set of numbers or values that locates a point on a map, chart, or globe. Coordinates are used to specify the position of an object or location in relation to a reference system or a set of reference points.
A latitude of 42.0°N means the city is located 42.0 degrees north of the equator. A longitude of 36.0°W means the city is located 36.0 degrees west of the prime meridian.
To identify a location south of this city, we need to look for a latitude that is less than 42.0°N.
Therefore, The only option with a latitude less than 42.0°N is 25.0°N and 36.0°W. Therefore, the coordinates 25.0°N and 36.0°W identify a location south of a city that has a latitude of 42.0°N and a longitude of 36.0°W.
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page 134 5.4 the nucleoid and bacterial cell division complete the following passage about bacterial dna.
Membrane proteins have many functions. Which of the following cell functions are linked to membrane proteins?
- detect and respond to the environment
- secrete virulence factors
- maintain an electrical gradient
- attach to surfaces
- regulate homeostasis
All of the options are correct. Membrane proteins detect and respond to the environment, secrete virulence factors, maintain an electrical gradient, attach to surfaces and regulate homeostasis.
Membrane protein – what is it?Membrane protein is the protein molecule which is joined to or connected to an organelle's or cell's membrane. Depending on the way the protein is connected to the membrane, membrane proteins can divided into two categories. Integral membrane proteins are embedded permanently there in plasma membrane.
What is the membrane protein's structure?The most fluid, mobile region of the lipid bilayer is in the middle of a membrane, where a ring of densely packed headgroups on either side of the membrane comes into touch with the membrane protein in its natural environment.
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Which graph best represents directional selection?
Original population
Original population
Original population
Population
aftor
Population
ME VE VA
selection
after
selection
Trait Valuo
Trait Value
Trait Value
Graph A
Graph B
Graph C
Population
after
selection
The graph that best represents directional selection is B. Therefore, the correct option is B.
What is directional selection?It is a type of natural selection where traits on one side of the mean in their population survive better or reproduce more than those on the other side.
It favors the selection of the most adapted and extreme phenotype over other traits. Thus, as the generations continue, organisms with the desired phenotype increase in the population.
Therefore, the correct option is B.
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The question is incomplete but most probably the complete question is,
Which graph best represents directional selection?
Original population
Original population
Original population
Population
actor
Population
ME VE VA
selection
after
selection
Trait Value
Trait Value
Trait Value
Graph A
Graph B
Graph C
Population
after
selection